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Physiology Exams #1, #2, and #3 > Physiology Exam #1 > Flashcards

Physiology Exam #1 Flashcards

1
Q

Epithelial Tissues:

A

Simple Squamous

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2
Q

Epithelial Tissues:

A

Simple Cuboidal

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3
Q

Epithelial Tissues:

A

Simple Columnar

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4
Q

Epithelial Tissues:

A

Stratified Squamous

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5
Q

Epithelial Tissues:

A

Stratified Cuboidal

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6
Q

Epithelial Tissues:

A

Stratified Columnar

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7
Q

Epithelial Tissues:

A

Pseudostratified Columnar

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8
Q

Epithelial Tissues:

A

Transitional

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9
Q

The integumentary system is:

A

Hair, skin, or nails!

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10
Q

Is there blood on the epidermal layers?

A

No.

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11
Q

What skin layer bleeds?

A

Dermal layer.

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12
Q

Wei qi grabs the acupuncture needle in the skin layer named…?

A

Epidermal.

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13
Q

Mnemonic for epidermis layers?

A

C L G S
Come let’s get sun burned.
C stratum corneum
L stratum lucidum
G stratum granulosum
S stratum spinosum
B stratum basale

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14
Q

When bones get longer (teenager), growth occurs where?

A

Center: called the diaphysis.

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15
Q

True or false? As a child ages (bones thinner and longer as a teenager), the bone thickens eventually after it lengthens.

A

True.

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16
Q

As we age, spongy bone gets harder or softer?

A

It hardens!

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17
Q

An osteon’s central canal contains 4 kinds of tubes and they are so called?

A

Arteries, veins, lymphatic vessels, and nerves.

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18
Q

The ends of the long bones are called…

A

Epiphysis!

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19
Q

List the order of cartilage in a long bone (outside to inside).

A

Articular, compact, spongy.

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20
Q

What is an osteocyte? What does it make?

A

Osteocyte: mature bone cell.

Make osteons (circular tree wood-like ring patterns).

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21
Q

What is an osteoblast?

A

Bone-forming cells.

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22
Q

What is an osteoclast?

A

Bone destroying cells.

Large cells that reabsorb or break down bone matrix for remodeling and release of calcium.

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23
Q

What is an osteoid?

A

Unmineralized organic bone tissue that is eventually deposited in layers in the bone matrix (composed of proteoglycans, glycoproteins, and collagen).

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24
Q

What is the chemical composition of bone?

A

Organic.

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25
Q

What is an osteon?

A

Microscopic structure of compact bone.

Functional units of compact bone!
Smallest unit that can carry out function for the organ.

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26
Q

Hydroxyapatite is…?

A

One of the best bone building supplements (matrix other bone minerals can plug into). Better than calcium because it contains many minerals.

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27
Q

Best bone building recommendations for patients?

A

Strength/resistance fitness (weight bearing exercises), kidney/water element supporting nutrition, and bone broth.

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28
Q

Hematopoiesis means?

A

Making blood.

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29
Q

Hyaline cartilage also present in? What does it do for bones?

A

In chicken feet.

Hyaline cartilage is slippery and smooth which helps your bones move smoothly past each other in your joint.

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30
Q

Which part of the bone grows: epiphysis or diaphysis?

A

Diaphysis.

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31
Q

What is long bone articular cartilage made of?

A

Slippery and smooth hyaline cartilage.

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32
Q

Bone remodeling is a process by both…

A

Bone remodeling is a process by both osteoblasts and osteoclasts.

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33
Q

What is Wolff’s Law?

A

Bone density is influenced by stress placed on it.

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34
Q

Plasma calcium levels must be carefully regulated. Bone is a major source of 2 minerals named…

A

Calcium and phosphate.

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35
Q

What gland tells the osteoclasts what to do?

A

Parathyroid gland and the parathyroid hormone secretion will actually modulate the action of the osteoclasts.

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36
Q

? makes blood from blood calcium ions?

A

Osteoblasts.

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37
Q

? dissolves bone by releasing calcium ions to the blood.

A

Osteoclasts.

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38
Q

Hypocalcemia means…and results in…

A

Low blood calcium

Results in muscle spasms and increased excitability of nerves (think piranhas).

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39
Q

Fracture? Partial bone breaks (not all the way in two pieces).

A

Greenstick.

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40
Q

Fracture? Ragged break from excessive twisting force applied to bone.

A

Spiral.

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41
Q

Fracture? Broken bone ends are forced into each other.

A

Impacted.

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42
Q

Fracture? Broken bone portion pressed inward.

A

Depressed.

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43
Q

Fracture? Crushed (down direction) bone. For example, verticals spine collapse of vertebrae.

A

Compression.

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44
Q

Fracture? Bone breaks into many fragments.

A

Comminuted.

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45
Q

4 stages in the healing of a bone? Place in correct order: bony callus formation, fibrocartilage callus formation, bone remodeling, hematoma formation.

A
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46
Q

Joints are…

A

Articulations of bones.

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47
Q

2 bone functions are…

A

Hold bones together

Allow mobility

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48
Q

2 ways joints are classified?

A

Functionally

Structurally

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49
Q

3 functional classifications of joints?

A

Synarthroses: immovable joints.

Amphiarthroses: slightly moveable joints.

Diarthroses: freely moveable joints.

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50
Q

3 structural classifications of joints?

A

The structural classification divides joints into fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial joints.

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51
Q

Examples of fibrous joints are…and give an example:

A

Bones united by fibrous tissue.

Sutures in skull, ends or tibia and fibula.

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52
Q

Cartilaginous joints are…and an example…

A

Bones connected by cartilage.

Examples:
pubic symphysis
intervertebral joints

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53
Q

Synovial joints are…and examples are…

A

Articulating joints separated by a joint cavity with synovial fluid inside.

Examples are: elbow (humerus/ulna), wrist, tibia.

54
Q

What is oxygen debt?

A

The amount of oxygen needed to restore muscle tissue (and the body) to the pre-exercise state.

55
Q

3 muscle types?

A

Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth.

56
Q

What is muscle fatigue?

A

How much repetition muscle strength can you do/use until you can’t continue anymore.

*accumulation of lactic acid and low ATP = muscle fatigue or reduction in ability to contract.

57
Q

Hypertrophy is an…

A

Increase in myofibril (muscle cell organelles) size.

Hypertrophy is an increase in your muscle size. Most of the time, this increase is accomplished through exercises and workouts that incorporate strength training—lifting weights is the most common way to increase hypertrophy.

58
Q

Hyperplasia is from…

A

Hyperplasia is from increase in number of muscle fibers due to splitting muscle cells (not mitosis).

Historically, two primary mechanisms—hypertrophy and hyperplasia—have been proposed to explain how an increase in the size of an intact muscle might occur. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of individual muscle fibers, whereas hyperplasia refers to an increase in the number of muscle fibers.

59
Q

Relaxed or contracted muscle picture?

A

Relaxed muscle.

60
Q

Relaxed or contracting muscle?

A

Contracting muscle.

61
Q

Briefly, what is Excitation-Contraction Coupling & Sliding Filament Theory?

A

Actin and myosin need to connect to contract the muscle.

*Happening in the muscle cell membrane “excitation”.

62
Q

The neuromuscular junction has 3 components (terminal of motor axon, synaptic cleft, and muscle endplate).

What is the synaptic cleft?

A

Synaptic cleft: gap through which transmitters diffuses.

63
Q

What ends muscle contraction?

A

ACh-esterase. Enzyme that breaks down ACh. No further stimulation of the muscle fiber.

64
Q

After the muscle contracts, what do you not want there anymore? Why?

A

ACh because the muscle could stay contracted (initiation of muscle impulse must end).

65
Q

What stimulates ACh to “shower” the muscle tissue to make a contraction?

A

Calcium.

66
Q

Describe the process (in order) that allows actin and myosin to interact when they slide past each other and the muscle cell shortens. *4 steps.

A
  1. Calcium binds to troponin.
  2. Pulls tropomyosin away from active site on actin.
  3. Myosin can now bind to actin.
  4. Myosin head moves actin filaments.
67
Q

What binds to troponin when the muscle cell shortens?

A

Calcium binds to troponin.

68
Q

What pulls tropomyosin away from the active site on actin when the muscle cell shortens?

A

Troponin with calcium bound to it.

69
Q

What is needed to disengage actin from the myosin head?

A

ATP.

70
Q

What provides energy for strokes? *sliding filament theory muscle cell shortens (contraction).

A

ATP.

71
Q

When rigor morris sets in, what is missing in stiff muscles (actin and myosin filaments are cross-linked)?

A

Lack of ATP.

72
Q

*Muscle Metabolism

3 ways we get energy are…which one is most effective (produce the most ATP and we use it at rest).

A

Aerobic respiration (36 ATP), energy lasts hours not seconds, and almost anything used as energy source to convert to ATP. *During eating and sleeping (relaxed state).

Also, creatine phosphate and anaerobic.

73
Q

Creatine phosphate muscle metabolism uses what fuel, to make how many ATP, and energy lasts how long? *Least effective

A

Creatine phosphate
1 ATP
15 seconds

74
Q

Anaerobic muscle metabolism uses what fuel, to make how many ATP, and energy lasts how long? *Second least effective

A

Glucose
2 ATP
30-60 seconds

75
Q

What is oxygen debt? Exercise physiologists call it “EPOC” or Excess Post Exercise Oxygen Consumption.

A

Oxygen debt: the amount of oxygen needed to restore muscle tissue and the body to the pre-exercise state.

76
Q

What is muscle fatigue? *2 things

A

Accumulation of lactic acid and low ATP that results in fatigue (reduction in ability to contract muscle).

77
Q

3 kinds of muscle fibers? Slow twitch, fast twitch (intermediate), and fast twitch (fatigable) are also called (name colour and type):

A

Type I (Red Muscle Fibers)
*due to myoglobin and blood supply
Type IIA (Pink Fibers)
*humans have fewer intermediate fibers.
Type IIB (White Fibers)
*easily fatigued

78
Q

Sprinters have more ________ twitch fibers and long distance runners have more ________ twitch fibers.

A

Sprinters: fast twitch
Long distance runners: slow twitch

79
Q

_____________ muscle is striated, with short fibers and usually a single nucleus. The __________ muscle is strictly aerobic.

A

Cardiac muscle.

80
Q

Non-striated, sensitive to a number of hormones and neurotransmitters, and typically associated with “viscera” and involuntary systems (circulatory, respiratory, digestive, urinary, reproductive, and integumentary).
*controls involuntary muscle constrictions.

A

Smooth muscle.

81
Q

In __________ muscle, calmodulin is calcium binding protein (rather than troponin). *controls involuntary muscle constrictions.

A

Smooth muscle.

82
Q

________ muscle is responsible for voluntary movement of bones, multinucleated, and heavily striated.

A

Skeletal muscle.

83
Q

Mneumonic for peripheral nervous system cranial nerves (12 pairs)?

A

OOOTTAFVGVAH.

O o o to touch a few very green vegetables ah.

Olfactory, optic, oculomotor, trochlear, trigeminal, abducens, facial, vestibuloCochlear, glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory spinal, hypoglossal.

84
Q

Cranial nerve CN I responsible for?

A

Olfaction (smells).

85
Q

Cranial nerve CN II responsible for?

A

Visual acuity, visual fields, pupillary reaction, and fundi.

86
Q

Cranial nerve CN III, IV, and VI responsible for?

A

Pupillary reaction and extra-ocular movements (exceptions SO4LR6).

87
Q

Cranial nerve CN V responsible for?

A

Facial sensation, corneal response, and muscles of mastication (chewing).

88
Q

Cranial nerve CN VII responsible for?

A

Muscles of facial expression.

89
Q

Cranial nerve 8 (CN VIII) responsible for?

A

Hearing & balance.

90
Q

Cranial nerve CN IX & X responsible for?

A

Palatal rise to phonation (production of speech sounds) & coordinated swallowing.

91
Q

Cranial nerve CN XI responsible for?

A

Sternocleidomastoid & upper trapezius strength.

92
Q

Cranial nerve CN XII responsible for?

A

Tongue size & movement.

ALLOW US TO SAY ALPHABET LETTERS: L S T N.

93
Q

In order to smell, what needs to be moist?

A

Nose and mouth!

94
Q

This flavor ends the process of digestion!

A

Sweet.

95
Q

Odor receptors: what mineral deficiency can create anosmia (lack of sense of smell)?

A

Zinc!

96
Q

Where are the medial and lateral commissures?

A

Inner and outer canthus of the eye!

97
Q

What is sclera?

A

Inner or outer white of the eye (sometimes covered with conjunctiva).

Conjunctivitis = “pinkeye” inflammation.

98
Q

Extrinsic eye muscles: what cranial nerve is for LR6SO4 and the rest?

A

CN3 cranial nerve 3!

99
Q

If the pupils are not the same
size, then that means…

A

Inside the brain pressure. Intracranial pressure.

100
Q

Autonomic regulation of the iris: what eye muscles and parts of the nervous system are responsible for when the pupil constricts and dilates?

A

Pupil constricts: parasympathetic & sphincter pupillae muscles.
Pupil dilates: sympathetic & dilator pupillae muscles.

101
Q

Concave and convex lenses correct which eye abnormalities?

A

Myopia (nearsighted): concave “minus” lens corrects.

Hyperopia (farsighted): convex “plus” lens corrects.

102
Q

Neural organization in the retina: name the two photoreceptors and the colours of light they can look at.

A

Rods: for dim light, and black, white, and shades of grey.

Cones: blue, green, red, and bright light.

103
Q

What is the area of sharpest vision in the optic disc?

A

Macula is the area of sharpest vision (dense cells).

104
Q

Transduction of sound waves (hearing).

Movement against the ____________ stimulates the ____________ to send impulses to the _____________.

A

Inner membrane
Hair cells
Auditory cortex

105
Q

The “cinnamon bun” of the inner ear is named?

A

Cochlea.

106
Q

Myelin sheath (nerve cell axon coating) is responsible for…

A

Speedy transmission of nerve impulses.

107
Q

Neurons are…

A

Nerve cells.

108
Q

Histology is the study of…

A

tissues.

109
Q

Tissues are….

A

Aggregations of similar cells that perform a function.

110
Q

4 kinds of tissue types? Describe them all (action/what they do).

A

Epithelial tissues live body cavities and surfaces, glands.

Connective tissues bind, support, and protect.

Muscle tissues contract and provide body movements.

Nervous tissues conduct impulses, integrate information (sensory and motor).

111
Q

True or false: epithelial tissues are external and internal linings?

A

True!

112
Q

Give 3 examples of where stratified epithelial tissues may be found in body.

Hint: multiple layers of cells found on surfaces that are protective or have to distend or stretch.

A

Skin, lining of bladder, large ducts.

113
Q

True or false: columnar cells can be ciliated or non-ciliated?

A

True!

114
Q

Simple squamous found where?

A

Lungs, kidneys, vessels lining.

115
Q

Simple cuboidal found where?

A

Small ducts and tubules.

116
Q

Simple columnar found where?

A

Digestive system - lining of stomach, gallbladder, intestines.

117
Q

Stratified squamous found where?

A

Skin and some linings.

118
Q

Keratinized stratified squamous makes up the outer layer of skin for what purpose?

Non-keratinized form is found lining body orifices (nose, mouth, esophagus, anus, cervix, vagina).

A

Waterproofing.

119
Q

Stratified cuboidal found where?

A

Big sweat ducts, salivary and pancreatic glands.

120
Q

Transitional epithelium consists of layers of rounded cells and is found in…

They change shape if distended.

A

Uterus and bladder.

121
Q

Keratin and collagen are found in which kinds of tissues?

A

Keratin: epithelial.
Collagen: connective.

122
Q

Tendons, ligaments, sclera eye whites are examples of what kind of tissue?

A

Dense connective tissues.

123
Q

Sudoriferous glands are…

A

Sweat glands.

124
Q

2 types of sweat glands are…

A

Eccrine
*for cooling
water and salt secretions

and apocrine
*pheromones
fatty materials

125
Q

The smallest organelles are…?

A

Ribosomes.

126
Q

Gustation =

A

means taste.

127
Q

Umami is what taste?

A

Meaty.

128
Q

Anterior 2/3 of tongue is which CN?

A
  1. CN 7 facial.
129
Q

Gag reflex and back 1/3 of tongue is which CN?

A

CN 9.

130
Q

This part of the eye gets suction cupped by contact lenses.

A

Cornea.

131
Q

Extrinsic eye muscle exceptions?

A

Are CN 3: LR6SO4.

132
Q

Touch (temperature) thermoreceptors: do humans have more cold receptor or warm receptors?

A

Cold receptors because we can die in the cold.

Physiology Exams #1, #2, and #3 (3 decks)

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