Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Which cells secrete surfactant?

A

Type 2 alveolar pneumocytes

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2
Q

Tell me about fetal haemoglobin and shift of O2 dissociation curve

A

2 alpha and 2 gamma subunits.
Present to about 6 months of life.
Fetal haemoglobin has higher affinity for O2 so curve is shifted to the left.

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3
Q

How is airflow obstruction categorised?

A

According to the latest NICE guidelines (2010) airflow obstruction is defined as follows:
Mild airflow obstruction = an FEV1 of >80% in the presence of symptoms
Moderate airflow obstruction = FEV1 of 50-79%
Severe airflow obstruction = FEV1 of 30-49%
Very severe airflow obstruction = FEV1 <30%.

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4
Q

What are J receptors, where are they located, and what nerve innervates them?

A

Juxtacapillary receptors (J receptors) are sensory cells that are located within the alveolar walls in juxtaposition to the pulmonary capillaries of the lung.

The J receptors are innervated by the vagus nerve and are activated by physical engorgement of the pulmonary capillaries or increased pulmonary interstitial volume, for example in the presence of pulmonary oedema, pulmonary embolus, pneumonia and barotraumas. They may also be stimulated by hyperinflation of the lung.

Stimulation of the J receptors causes a reflex increase in breathing rate, and is also thought to be involved in the sensation of dyspnoea. The reflex response that is produced is apnoea, followed by rapid breathing, bradycardia, and hypotension.

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5
Q

Respiratory tract is lined with what kind of epithelium.

Which parts are not?

A

Ciliated pseudostratified columnar - not in oropharynx, larynx and laryngopharynx.
4 cell types - ciliated cells, goblet cells, club cells, airway basal cells.

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6
Q

What are the 3 main types of alveolar cell?

A

Type I pneumocytes – the abundant simple squamous epithelium that forms the gas exchange surface with the capillary endothelium
Type II pneumocytes – which secrete pulmonary surfactant, which reduces the surface tension at the air-water interface in the lung
Alveolar macrophages – which ingest foreign materials and destroy bacteria.

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7
Q

Tell me about carbon monoxide effect on oxygen transport.

A

240 times the affinity for Hb as O2
Shifts oxygen dissociation curve to left
pO2 of blood can be normal

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8
Q

What is static and dynamic lung compliance?

A

Compliance = change in volume / change in pressure

Static compliance is during periods without gas flow, eg. during an inspiratory pause.
= TV / ( Pplat - PEEP )

Dynamic compliance is during periods of gas flow, eg. during inspiration.
= TV / ( PIP - PEEP )
Dynamic is always lower than or equal to static compliance.

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9
Q

What is the main lipid component of surfactant?

A

dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC)

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10
Q

Tell me about QT interval?

A
Normally less than 440 ms.
Inversely proportional to heart rate.
From start of QRS to end of T wave.
Represents ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation.
Tends to be longer in women.

Prolonged QT:
hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia and hypomagnesaemia), hypothermia, drugs, congenital syndromes and myocardial ischaemia. The QT interval tends to lengthen during sleep and shorten when awake.

Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include:
Quinidine
Amiodarone
Methadone
Procainamide
Haloperidol
Tricyclic antidepressants
Erythromycin

Digoxin causes shortened QT

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11
Q

What are the 3 salivary glands and their innervation?

A

Parotid gland - glossopharyngeal nerve via otic ganglion.

Submandibular and sublingual glands - facial nerve via submandibular ganglion.

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12
Q

What is the primary muscle of the upper oesophageal sphincter?

A

Cricopharyngeus portion of inferior pharyngeal constrictor

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13
Q

Describe transition in mucosa between lower oesophagus and stomach

A

From non-keratinised stratified squamous to simple columnar

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14
Q

Name some things absorbed in the stomach

A

Ethyl alcohol

Aspirin

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15
Q

Name 3 conditions associated with a split S1?

A

RBBB
LV pacing
Ebstein anomaly - malformation of tricuspid valve and right ventricle enlargement

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16
Q

What ECG changes are seen in RBBB?

What is the difference between primary and secondary T wave changes?

A

As the left ventricle is activated normally the early part of the QRS complex remains unchanged. The delayed activation of the right ventricle, however, produces a secondary R wave (R’) in the right praecordial leads, and a wide, slurred S wave in the lateral leads. It also causes secondary repolarisation abnormalities, with T wave inversion and ST depression being seen in the right praecordial leads.

Broad QRS complex (> 120 ms)
RSR’ pattern in leads V1-V3 (‘M’ shaped QRS complex)
Wide, slurred S wave in the lateral leads – I, AVL, V5 and V6 (‘W’ shaped QRS complex)

Secondary T wave changes are a normal finding in RBBB. T wave changes are classed as secondary if the T wave is upright when the terminal portion of the QRS complex is negative and the T wave is inverted when the terminal portion of the QRS complex is positive. Primary T wave changes occur when these rules are violated and are consistent with myocardial ischaemia.

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17
Q

List causes of RBBB?

A

Can be normal finding in young healthy people.

Ischaemic heart disease
Rheumatic heart disease
Right ventricular hypertrophy (cor pulmonale)
Pulmonary embolus
Cardiomyopathy
Myocarditis
Congenital heart disease (e.g. ASD)
Degenerative disease of the conduction system
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18
Q

In a split S2 which valve normally closes first?

What conditions are associated with a widely split S2?

What conditions are associated with a reversed split S2?

A

Aortic valve normally closes before pulmonary.
Splitting during inspiration is a normal finding.

Widely split S2:
Deep inspiration
Right bundle branch block
Prolonged right ventricular systole (e.g. pulmonary stenosis, P.E.)
Severe mitral regurgitation
Atrial septal defect (fixed splitting, doesn’t vary with respiration)

Reversed split S2:
Deep expiration
Left bundle branch block
Prolonged left ventricular systole (e.g. severe aortic stenosis, hypertropic cardiomyopathy)
Severe aortic stenosis
Right ventricular pacing
Wolff-Parkinson-White (type B)
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19
Q

What 2 equations describe blood flow to the brain?

What are the 2 mechanisms of autoregulation of cerebral blood flow?

How does hypothermia affect cerebral blood flow?

A

Cerebral perfusion pressure = MAP - ICP

Cerebral blood flow = CPP / CVR

myogenic reflexes - at higher pressures the myogenic stretch reflex causes vasoconstriction which increases CVR and reduces CBF.

metabolic feedback - at lower pressures decreased blood flow allows vasoactive metabolites to accumulate (primarily CO2 and K+) that cause vasodilation and reduce CVR and increase CBF.

Outside of the CPP range 60-160mmHg, or in trauma or cerebral disease, auto-regulation is lost and CBF is dependant on MAP in a linear relationship.

Hypothermia reduces CBF by 5% per degree fall in temperature.

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20
Q

At what stage of inspiration, and in what position should the patient be, when measuring CVP?

A

CVP should be measured with the patient lying flat at the end of expiration.

CVP is a useful indicator of right ventricular preload. A volume challenge of 250-500 ml crystalloid causing an increase in CVP that is not sustained for more than 10 minutes suggests hypovolaemia.

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21
Q

What is the cause of Wolf-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome?

What are 3 typical ECG features?

What are the 2 types of WPW?

A

Presence of an abnormal electrical conducting pathway in heart - bundle of Kent, acts as pre-excitation pathway.

This results in the generation of a type of supraventricular tachycardia referred to as an atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).

The typical ECG features of WPW in sinus rhythm are:
Shortened PR (< 120 ms)
Delta wave (slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex)
Widening of the QRS complex (> 110 ms)

Type A – the delta waves and QRS complexes are predominantly positive in the praecordial leads with a dominant R wave in V1. The dominant R wave in V1 can be mistaken for RBBB

Type B – The delta wave and QRS complex are predominantly negative in leads V1 and V2 and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling LBBB

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22
Q

Describe ECG changes seen in LBBB?

A

Normally the septum is activated from left to right, which produces small Q waves in the lateral leads. In the presence of LBBB, however, this septal activation is reversed, which eliminates these normal septal Q waves.

The right to left depolarization of produces deep S waves in the right praecordial leads (V1-V3) and tall R waves in the lateral leads (I, V5 and V6).

It also usually causes left axis deviation.

As the ventricles are activated sequentially from right to left, rather than simultaneously, the R wave in the lateral leads is broad and notched (‘M’ shaped).

Secondary T wave changes are a normal finding in LBBB.

The diagnostic criteria for LBBB are:
Broad QRS complex (> 120 ms)
Dominant S wave in lead V1
Broad, monophasic R wave in lateral leads (I, AVL, V5 and V6)
Prolonged R wave peak time > 60 ms in left praecordial leads (V5-V6)
Absence of Q waves in lateral leads (I, V5 and V6)

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23
Q

List causes of LBBB?

A
Ischaemic heart disease
Anterior myocardial infarction
Hypertension
Aortic stenosis
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Primary fibrosis of the conducting system (Lenegre disease)
Hyperkalaemia
Digoxin toxicity
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24
Q

What does the QT interval represent?

Where does it start and end on the ECG?

List causes of prolonged QT interval?

A

It represents the duration of time taken for the ventricles to depolarize and repolarize.

From start of QRS to end of T wave.

The normal QT interval is less than 440 ms under normal circumstances and tends to be longer in women.

Should be less than half the preceding RR interval.

electrolyte disturbance (hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia and hypomagnesaemia)
hypothermia
drugs
congenital syndromes
myocardial ischaemia

An abnormally prolonged QT interval is associated with an increased risk of Torsades de Pointes.

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25
Q

What are the 5 points on a CVP waveform?

A

a wave - end diastole, atrial contraction

c wave - early systole, closing and bulging of the tricuspid valve

x descent - mid systole, atrial relaxation

v wave - late systole, systolic filling of atria

y descent - early diastole, early ventricular filling

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26
Q

What is Wenckebach block otherwise known as?

A

Mobitz type 1 AV block

Mobitz type 1 AV block is generally considered to be a benign rhythm that infrequently causes haemodynamic disturbance and has a low risk of progression to complete heart block. Asymptomatic patients require no treatment and those that are symptomatic usually respond to the administration of atropine. Permanent pacing is rarely required.

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27
Q

What is the usual paper speed of an ECG?

A

25 mm/sec

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28
Q

What is considered normal MAP?

A

65 to 110 mmHg

Needs to be a minimum of 65 mmHg for adequate organ perfusion to occur

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29
Q

Where in the heart is the AV node located?

A

Inter-atrial septum

30
Q

What kind of defect can cause fixed splitting of S2 that does not vary with respiration?

A

Atrial septal defect

31
Q

List 4 types of cause of prolonged QT interval and give examples?

A

Prolongation of the QT interval is associated with syncope and sudden death, due to ventricular tachycardia, particularly torsades-des-pointes.

  1. Hereditary syndromes
    Jervell-Lange-Neilsen syndrome (autosomal recessive)
    Romano Ward syndrome (autosomal dominant) - most common form of congenital LQTS
2. Metabolic disorders
Hypothyroidism
Hypocalcaemia
Hypokalaemia
Hypomagnesaemia
Hypothermia
3. Drugs
Erythromycin
Quinidine
Amiodarone
Tricyclic antidepressants
Terfenadine
Sotalol
Methadone
Procainamide
  1. Structural heart problems
    Ischaemic heart disease
    Mitral valve prolapse
    Rheumatic carditis
32
Q

What is the daily maintenance fluid requirement in a normal healthy child?

A

First 10 kg - 100 ml/kg
Second 10 kg - 50 ml/kg
Subsequent kg - 20 ml/kg

33
Q

Give 2 examples of endothelium-derived vasodilators and vasoconstrictors?

A

Vasodilators - nitric oxide (NO), prostacyclin

Vasoconstrictors - endothelin-1, thromboxane A2

NO is also known as EDRF

The eicosanoids prostacyclin and thromboxane A2 (TXA2) are synthesised by the cyclo-oxygenase pathway from arachidonic acid, which is made from membrane phospholipase A2.

34
Q

What are Ashman beats and when are they seen?

A

Ashman beats are wide complex QRS complexes, usually with a RBBB morphology, that follow a short R-R interval preceded by a prolonged R-R interval. These are typically seen in atrial fibrillation and are considered benign.

35
Q

Where does the disorganised electrical activity usually originate in AF?

A

Root of pulmonary veins

36
Q

When does the PR interval start and end?

A

The PR interval commences at the start of the P wave and ends at the start of the QRS complex. It represents the time taken for the electrical impulse to be conducted through the AV node.

37
Q

When is a 4th heart sound heard?

What can cause it?

A

During atrial systole, low pitched sound, represents stiff ventricular wall.

Ventricular hypertrophy
Aortic stenosis
Post-MI ventricular fibrosis
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
38
Q

When is a 3rd heart sound heard?

A

Early diastole

39
Q

What type of axis deviation does primum ASD and secundum ASD cause?

A

Primum ASD - LAD

Secundum ASD - RAD

40
Q

How do you calculate MAP?

A

MAP = DBP + (SBP - DBP)/3

41
Q

What is considered a normal pulse pressure?

A

30-40 mmHg

Pulse pressure is considered to be abnormally low (narrow) if it is less than 25% of the systolic value.

Pulse pressure is generally considered to be high (wide) if it is greater than 60 mmHg.

42
Q

What electrolyte abnormalities are seen with loop diuretics?

A
Hyponatraemia
Hypokalaemia
Hypocalcaemia
Hypomagnasaemia
Hypochloraemic alkalosis
43
Q

What are the 2 ECG criteria for diagnosing right atrial enlargement?

A

P wave amplitude in inferior leads (II,III and AVF) > 2.5 mm

P wave amplitude in lead V1 and V2 > 1.5 mm

44
Q

What criteria are used to diagnose MI in LBBB or a ventricular paced rhythm?

A

The Sgarbossa criteria are:
> 1 mm concordant ST elevation in leads with a positive QRS complex (5 points)
> 1 mm concordant ST depression in leads V1-V3 (3 points)
> 5 mm discordant ST elevation in leads with a negative QRS complex (2 points)

Scores > than 3 have a 90% specificity for detecting myocardial infarction.

45
Q

What is Bifascicular block?

What is Trifascicular block?

A

Bifascicular block is a conduction abnormality of the heart in which two of the three main fascicles of the His-Pukinje system are blocked.

This can be either:
Right bundle branch block and left anterior fascicular block (most common pattern) or;
Right bundle branch block and left posterior fascicular block

No treatment is usually required for asymptomatic patients but a pacemaker is recommended for those suffering syncope.
Low risk of progression to complete heart block.

True trifascicular block refers to the presence of conduction delay in all three fascicles below the AV node (RBBB, LAFB, LPFB), manifesting as bifascicular block and 3rd degree AV block.

One of two ECG patterns is present:
3rd degree AV block + RBBB + LAFB or;
3rd degree AV block + RBBB + LPFB

46
Q

How does left anterior and posterior fascicular block affect the cardiac axis?

A

LAFB - LAD

LPFB - RAD

47
Q

When does the QT interval start and finish?

A

From Q wave to end of T wave

48
Q

How is corrected QT interval calculated?

A

QT interval divided by the square root of the RR interval

49
Q

When does the PR interval start and finish?

A

From the start of the P wave to the start of the QRS complex.

50
Q

When does the PR segment start and finish?

A

From the end of the P wave to the start of the QRS complex

51
Q

When does the ST segment start and finish?

A

From the end of the QRS complex to the start of the T wave

It is the interval between ventricular depolarization and repolarisation

52
Q

When does the ST interval start and finish?

A

From the end of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave

53
Q

What are 2 endothelium-derived eicosanoids?

A

The eicosanoids prostacyclin and thromboxane A2 (TXA2) are synthesised by the cyclo-oxygenase pathway from arachidonic acid, which is made from membrane phospholipase A2

54
Q

Which nerve innervates the external anal sphincter?

A

Pudendal nerve

55
Q

What is the Hering–Breuer reflex?

A

Stretch receptors in smooth muscle of bronchi and bronchioles

send action potentials via myelinated fibres of the vagus nerve to the inspiratory area in the medulla and apneustic centre of the pons

This directly inhibits the inspiratory area and inhibits the apneustic centre from activating the inspiratory area

This inhibits inspiration, allowing expiration to occur

56
Q

Stimulation of J receptors in alveolar and bronchial walls causes what to occur?

A

Apnoea followed by rapid breathing (tachypnoea)
Bradycardia
Hypotension
Sensation of dyspnoea

57
Q

What is Dalton’s law of partial pressures?

A

Dalton’s law of partial pressures states that the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the component gases.

58
Q

What is Henry’s law of gas solubility?

A

The amount of gas that dissolves in solution is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas above the liquid.

Fixed for a fixed temp in a particular solvent

59
Q

What effect does hypoxic conditions have on production of 2,3 DPG?

A

Conditions of low tissue oxygen concentration such as high altitude, airway obstruction or congestive heart failure will stimulate increased 2,3-DPG production by erythrocytes.

2,3-DPG binds to haemoglobin and reduces its affinity for oxygen increasing oxygen offloading to the tissues. 2,3-DPG has higher affinity for deoxygenated haemoglobin than oxygenated haemoglobin.

Increased levels of 2,3 DPG shift the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve to the right.

60
Q

What is the role of cholecystokinin (CCK)?

A

CCK is released into the bloodstream by duodenal cells (enteroendocrine cells - specifically I cells) in response to the presence of amino acids and fatty acids in chyme.

CCK stimulates the acinar cells to secrete digestive enzymes.

61
Q

What is the role of secretin?

A

Secretin is released by duodenal S-cells (another type of enteroendocrine cell in the duodenum) in response to the duodenal walls coming into contact with acid.

Secretin stimulates the production of bicarbonate and water by the pancreas specifically the epithelial cells lining the pancreatic ducts.

Secretin also stimulates bile production in the liver and inhibits gastric acid production by the parietal cells of the stomach.

62
Q

What is the difference between osmolarity and osmolality?

A

Osmolarity: osmoles of solute per litre solution.
Osmolality: osmoles of solute per kg solvent.

63
Q

What are the most common causes of prominent U waves on the ECG?

A

Hypokalaemia

Bradycardia

64
Q

What is the Haldane effect?

A

Oxygenation of blood in the lungs displaces CO2 from haemoglobin which increases the removal of carbon dioxide. The decreased binding of CO2 in the blood due to increased oxygen levels is known as the Haldane effect.

This explains haemoglobins ability to carry more CO2 in deoxygenated tissues.

65
Q

What is the Treppe effect?

A

The Treppe effect is also known as the staircase effect and refers to the increase in contractility with increasing heart rate.

The physiological basis for this is that Ca2+ is pumped out of the myocyte via Na+/Ca2+ exchangers in the cell membrane. This is relatively slow and occurs during diastole. If the heart rate increases, shortening diastole, the amount of calcium left in the cell is higher and the force of contraction is greater owing to the higher calcium concentration.

66
Q

Use the acronym GOLDMARK to list causes of high anion gap metabolic acidosis?

A

G glycols (ethylene glycol & propylene glycol)
O oxoproline, a metabolite of paracetamol
L L-lactate, the chemical responsible for lactic acidosis
D D-lactate
M methanol
A aspirin
R renal failure
K ketoacidosis, ketones generated from starvation, alcohol, and diabetic ketoacidosis

67
Q

What 2 substances are the main metabolic regulators of cerebral blood flow?

A

CO2 and K+

68
Q

Which part of the clotting cascade is represented by the APTT?

A

Intrinsic pathway

69
Q

What Vitamins does Pabrinex contain?

A
Water soluble vitamins:
C
B1 (thiamine)
B2
B3
B6
70
Q

How do nerve impulses from the pneumotaxic centre effect respiration?

A

Increase resp rate

Decrease TV

71
Q

Which adrenergic receptors predominate in the coronary circulation and in the peripheral circulation?

What does Adrenalines stimulation of them cause?

A

β2 adrenergic receptors are the dominant type in the coronary circulation where as α1 predominate in the peripheries.

Adrenaline stimulates coronary vasodilation via stimulation of β2 adrenergic receptors.

Adrenaline stimulates vasoconstriction in the peripheries via stimulation of α1 adrenergic receptors.