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Cardiology Kaplan > Physiology > Flashcards

Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Factors that promote juxtaglomerular secretion of renin

A
  • Decreased pressure in renal afferent arterioles
  • Decreased sodium delivery to macula densa of distal convoluted tubule
  • Increased beta 1 noradrenergic stimulation to juxtaglomerular cells
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2
Q

Cranial nerve that transmits aortic arch information

A

Vagus nerve

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3
Q

Cranial nerve that transmits carotid sinus information

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

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4
Q

Medullary nucleus that receives information from the baroreceptors

A

Solitary nucleus

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5
Q

Difference between Mobitz type 1 and 2 2nd degree AV block

A

Mobitz type 1 skips a beat after progressive prolongation of the PR Interval, while Mobitz type 2 skips it without this prolonged interval

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6
Q

Class 1 antiarrhythmics with potassium channel blocking effects

A

1A

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7
Q

Macroscopic changes after a myocardial infarction in day 1

A
  • Dark mottling

* Pale with tetrazolium stain

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8
Q

Histologic changes after a myocardial infarction in 1 day

A
  • Early coagulative necrosis (starts at 4 hours)

* Contraction bands

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9
Q

Macroscopic changes after a myocardial infarction in days 2 to 4

A

Hyperemia

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10
Q

Most abundant type of inflammatory cell after a myocardial infarction during days 2 to 4

A

Neutrophils

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11
Q

Postinfarction fibrinous percarditis is a common side effect during which period of time after a myocardial infarction

A

2 to 4 days

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12
Q

Macroscopic changes after a myocardial infarction in days 5 to 10

A
  • Hyperemic border

* Central yellow-brown softening

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13
Q

Most abundant type of inflammatory cell after a myocardial infarction during days 5 to 10

A

Macrophages (formation of granulation tissue at margins)

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14
Q

Dressler syndrome occurs how long after a myocardial infarction

A

Weeks to months

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15
Q

Time it takes for troponin I to peak in plasma and how long does it stay elevated

A

Starts rising after 4 hours and peaks after 24 hours, stays elevated for 7 to 10 days

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16
Q

Time it takes for CK-MB to peak and how long does it stay elevated

A

Starts rising after 6 to 12 hours and peaks after 16 to 24 hours, stays elevated for 2 to 3 days

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17
Q

Cardiac enzyme that is the most useful in diagnosing a reinfarction

A

CK-MB

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18
Q

Cardiac malformation associated with congenital rubella

A

PDA

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19
Q

Cardiac malformation associated with a diabetic mother

A

Transposition of the great vessels

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20
Q

Treatment of HACEK group infections

A
  • Third generation cephalosporins

* Fluoroquinolones

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21
Q

Jones criteria for rheumatic fever

A

Diagnosis requires 2 major or 1 major and 2 minor:

  • Joint (migratory poloarthritis)
  • Heart (carditis)
  • Nodules in skin (subcutaneous)
  • Erythema marginatum
  • Sydenham corea

Minor: fever, arthralgias, elevated APR

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22
Q

Triad of Wegener’s granulomatosis (granulomatosis with polyangiitis)

A
  1. Focal necrotizing vasculitis
  2. Necrotizing granulomas in the lung and upper airway
  3. Necrotizing glomerulonephritis
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23
Q

Type of antibody associated with Wegener’s granulomatosis (granulomatosis with polyangiitis)

A

PR3-ANCA/c-ANCA (anti-proteinase 3)

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24
Q

Wegener’s granulomatisis (granuloamtosis with polyangiitis) treatment

A

Corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide

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25
Q

Main symptomatic difference between Wegener’s granulomatosis and microscopic polyangiitis

A

In microscopic polyangiitis there’s no nasopharyngeal involvement and no granulomas

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26
Q

Type of antibody associated with microscopic polyangiitis

A

MPO-ANCA/p-ANCA (anti-myeloperoxidase)

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27
Q

Pathologic and laboratory characteristic of Churg-Strauss syndrome

A
  • Granulomatous, necrotizing vasculitis

* Eosinophilia

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28
Q

Type of cell necessary for truncus arteriosus partition

A

Neural crest cells

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29
Q

Failure in truncus arteriosus partition can give rise to what pathologies

A
  • Transposition of the great vessels
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Persistent truncus arteriosus
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30
Q

The outflow tract of the ventrciles is derived from which embryonic structure

A

Bulbus cordis

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31
Q

The coronary sinus is derived from which embryonic structure

A

Left horn of sinus venosus

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32
Q

The smooth part of the atrium is derived from which embryonic structure

A

Right horn of sinus venosus

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33
Q

The superior vena cava is derived from which embryonic structures

A

Right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein

34
Q

The descending aorta is derived from which embryonic structures

A

Right and left dorsal aortas

35
Q

Week at which heart starts beating

A

4th week

36
Q

Vessel with the highest oxygen content of the fetal circulation

A

Umbilical vein

37
Q

The posterior descending/interventricular artery (PDA) supplies which parts of the heart

A
  • AV node
  • Posterior 1/3 of interventricular septum
  • Posterior 2/3 walls of ventricles
  • Posteromedial papillary muscle

(INFERIOR WALL)

38
Q

The posterior descending/interventricular artery (PDA) derives most frequently from which artery

A

Right coronary artery

39
Q

Vein that carries the most deoxygenated blood in the body

A

Coronary sinus

40
Q

Formula for cardiac output using the Fick principle

A

CO = rate of oxygen consumption/(arterial O2 content - venous O2 content)

41
Q

Name the 2 formulas for mean arterial pressure

A
  1. MAP = CO x TPR

2. MAP = 2/3 diastolic pressure + 1/3 systolic pressure

42
Q

Resistance is directly proportional to…

A

Viscosity and length of the vessel

43
Q

Resistance is inversely proportional to…

A

Radius to the exponential 4

44
Q

Period of highest oxygen consumption of the cardiac cycle

A

Isovolumetric contraction

45
Q

Where are aortic and pulmonic regurgitation auscultated better

A

Left sternal border

46
Q

Where do mitral regurgitation radiates to

A

Axilla

47
Q

Characteristic murmur of mitral valve prolapse (MVP)

A

Late systolic crescendo murmur with midsystolic click

48
Q

The Austin Flint murmur is seen in which pathology

A

Aortic regurgitation

49
Q

The Graham Steell mumur is seen in which pathology

A

Pulmonic regurgitation

50
Q

State the order of conduction velocity in the heart

A

Purkinje - Atria - Ventricles - AV node

51
Q

ECG characteristics of Brugada syndrome

A

Pseudo-right bundle Branch block and ST elevations in V1-V3

52
Q

Antiarrhythmic that blocks the bundle of Kent

A

Procainamide

53
Q

Infection that can cause a third degree block

A

Lyme disease

54
Q

Second Messenger associated to atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

A

cGMP

55
Q

Effect of ANP on glomerular arterioles that contributes to the “aldosterone escape” mechanism

A

Dilation of afferent renal arterioles and constriction of efferent renal arterioles

56
Q

Recombinant form of B-type natriuretic peptide used in the treatment of HF

A

Nesiritide

57
Q

Cushing triad in response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP)

A
  • Hypertension
  • Bradycardia
  • Respiratory depression
58
Q

Formula for arterial and venous oxygen (to use in Fick principle equation)

A

Hgb x 1.34 x arterial or venous oxygen saturation

*Then multiply by 10 to get the correct units

59
Q

Where is the SA node located

A

In the interatrial septum, right next to the opnening of the coronary sinus

60
Q

What happens if the glossopharyngeal afferent fibers of the carotid sinus are suddenly severed

A

This sends a false signal to the medulla, telling this control center that the BP has dropped to 0, leading to increased activation of the SNS and inactivation of the PSNS

61
Q

Primary determinators of SBP

A

Stroke volumen and arterial compliance

62
Q

Primary determinator of DBP

A

Total peripheral resistance (TPR)

63
Q

Equation for Flow (Q)

A

Q = change in pressure/resistance

64
Q

Equation for total resistance of vessels in PARALLEL

A

1/Rt = 1/R1 + 1/R2 …

65
Q

The decrease in tissue oxygenation that occurs within muscles during exercise is a stimulus for the production of what substance

A

Vascular endotelial growth factor

66
Q

Commonly used index of left ventricle (LV) contractility

A

Rate of pressure development (dP/dT)

67
Q

Equation for pulse pressure

A
  1. SBP - DBP

2. SV/compliance

68
Q

Frank-Starling variable that is increased in non-pitting edema

A

Tissue oncotic pressure

69
Q

The cardiac apex is formed by which chamber of the heart

A

Left ventricle

70
Q

The anterior Surface of the heart is formed by which chamber

A

Right ventricle

71
Q

Common site of origin of aberrant electrical impulses in atrial fibrillation

A

Pulmonary veins

72
Q

Stenosis of the proximal subclavian artery can lead to what pathology

A

Subclavian steal syndrome

73
Q

Pathogenesis of subclavian steal syndrome

A

Stenosis of the proximal subclavian artery leads to reversal of blood flow from the contralateral vertebral artery to the ipsilateral vertebral artery

74
Q

Rate of the AV node

A

45 to 55 beats per minute

75
Q

Formula for velocity

A

Velocity = Flow/Cross-sectional area

76
Q

Factors that determine vasodilation in the heart

A

Adenosine, NO, CO2, decreased oxygen

77
Q

Effect of increased pCO2 in blood vessels of the brain

A

Vasodilation

78
Q

Factors that determine vasodilation in skeletal muscle

A
  • Lactate
  • Adenosine
  • Potassium
  • Hydrogen
  • CO2
79
Q

Artery that supplies the right ventricle

A

Right (acute) marginal artery

80
Q

Heart tissue is developed from which embryologic structure

A

Lateral plate mesoderm

81
Q

What are innocent/flow murmurs in the aortic area

A

Murmurs that appear during high flow states (eg, anemia, pregnancy)

Cardiology Kaplan (3 decks)

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