Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 Hematology/Oncology-First Aid 2017 > Physiology > Flashcards

Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is a deficiency in GpIb called?

A

Bernard-Soulier syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a deficiency in vWF called?

A

von Willebrand disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Failure of aggregation with ristocetin assay occurs in what diseases?

A

von Willebrand disease and Bernard-Soulier syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What activates vWF to bind GpIb

A

Ristocetin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What drugs inhibit GpIIb/IIIa directly

A

Tirofiban, Eptifibatide, Abciximab (TEA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What drugs inhibit ADP-induced expression of GpIIb/IIIa via P2Y12 receptor?

A

Prasugrel, Clopidogrel, Ticlopidine (PCT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What drug inhibits TXA2 synthesis?

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the steps of primary hemostasis?

A

Injury, exposure, adhesion, activation, aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What anti-aggregation factor is released by endothelial cells?

A

Nitrous oxide (NO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What binds GpIIb/IIIa allowing linking of platelets?

A

Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What induces GpIIb/IIIa expression at platelet surface?

A

ADP binding to P2Y12 receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What helps platelets adhere to endothelium?

A

ADP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What mediates vasoconstriction in a damaged endothelial cell?

A

Endothelin and neural stimulation reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is released from damaged endothelial cell that causes vasoconstriction?

A

Endothelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What initiates platelet plug formation?

A

Endothelial cell injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What causes a conformational change in platelets to release ADP, calcium and TXA2?

A

Binding of GpIb to vWF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does vWF bind to on the platelet?

A

GpIb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does vWF bind to on the endothelial cell?

A

Exposed collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is used clinically as a thrombolytic?

A

tPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function of Protein C and S?

A

Cleave factors Va and VIIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is factor V Leiden?

A

Factor V resistant to protein C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the principle targets of antithrombin?

A

Factors Xa and thrombin (IIa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does heparin enhance the activity of?

A

Antithrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What factors are inhibited by antithrombin?

A

Activated factors II, VII, IX, X, XI, XII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What enzyme converts factors II, VII, IX, X, proteins C and S into their active forms?

A

y-glutamyl carboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What enzyme reduces vitamin K?

A

Epoxide reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What factor carries or protects factor VIII

A

vWF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What coagulation factors will be low in vitamin K deficiency?

A

Factors II, VII, IX, X, protein C and S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What inhibits vitamin K and its enzyme, epoxide reductase?

A

Warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of hemophilia C?

A

Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of hemophilia A and B?

A

X-linked recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a deficiency in factor XI called?

A

Hemophilia C

33
Q

What is a deficiency in factor IX called?

A

Hemophilia B

34
Q

What is a deficiency in factor VIII called?

A

Hemophilia A

35
Q

What is the function of plasmin?

A

Degrade the fibrin mesh and destroy coagulation factors

36
Q

What is the action of thrombolytics like alteplase, reteplase, streptokinase, and tenecteplase?

A

Promotes conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

37
Q

Which coagulation factors are part of the common pathway?

A

Factors I, II, V, X

38
Q

Which coagulation factors are part of the intrinsic pathway?

A

Factors XII, XI, IX, VIII

39
Q

Which coagulation factors are part of the extrinsic pathway?

A

Factor VII

40
Q

What inactivates bradykinin?

A

ACE

41
Q

What activates bradykinin?

A

Kallikrein

42
Q

What converts plasminogen to plasmin?

A

tPA

43
Q

Aminocaproic acid targets what part of the coagulation pathway?

A

tPA (fibrinolytic system)

44
Q

What is the target of Fondaparinux?

A

Factor Xa in the common pathway

45
Q

Apixaban and rivaroxaban target which part of the coagulation pathway?

A

Common pathway (Xa)

46
Q

Which anticoagulant has the greatest efficacy on factor Xa?

A

LMWH

47
Q

What is the function of bradykinin in the coagulation cascade?

A

Increase pain, permeability and vasodilation

48
Q

Why does the HbS molecule not migrate as far as an HbA molecule on gel electrophoresis?

A

The negative glutamic acid is replaced by neutral valine

49
Q

Why does the HbC molecule migrate the least on gel electrophoresis?

A

The negative glutamic acid is replaced by positive lysine

50
Q

On a gel electrophoresis, which Hb molecule migrates the least?

A

HbC

51
Q

On a gel electrophoresis, which Hb molecule migrates the furthest?

A

HbA

52
Q

On a gel electrophoresis, in which direction does Hb migrate?

A

Negative cathode to positive anode

53
Q

What is the presentation of ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Mild jaundice within 24 hours of birth

54
Q

What is the treatment for ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Phototherapy or exchange transfusion

55
Q

Who is usually susceptible to ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Type A or B fetuses born to type O mothers

56
Q

What type of immunoglobulin is anti-D seen in Rh negative mothers?

A

IgG

57
Q

Rh type considered universal recipient of RBCs

A

Rh positive

58
Q

What type of immunoglobulins are anti-B and anti-A?

A

IgM

59
Q

Why are O blood types considered universal recipients of plasma?

A

They have both anti-A and anti-B

60
Q

Blood type considered universal recipient of plasma

A

O

61
Q

Why are O blood types considered universal donors of RBCs?

A

They do not express any A or B receptors

62
Q

Blood type that is the universal donor of RBCs

A

O

63
Q

Why are AB blood types considered universal donors of plasma?

A

Their plasma does not contain any anti-A or anti-B antibodies

64
Q

Why are AB blood types considered universal recipients of RBCs?

A

They have receptors for both A and B blood

65
Q

Blood type that is the universal recipient of RBCs

A

AB

66
Q

Blood type that is the universal donor of plasma

A

AB

67
Q

When is RhoGAM given?

A

3rd trimester and early postpartum period

68
Q

Who is given RhoGAM?

A

Rh negative mothers with an Rh positive fetus

69
Q

When do Rh negative mothers develop anti-D IgG antibodies?

A

If exposed to Rh positive blood

70
Q

What chains make up HbA2?

A

2-alpha and 2-delta chains

71
Q

Small form of adult hemoglobin present in small amounts?

A

HbA2

72
Q

Chains that make up adult Hb?

A

2-alpha and 2-beta

73
Q

Chains that make up fetal Hb?

A

2-alpha and 2-gamma chains

74
Q

Chains that make up embryonic Hb?

A

2-zeta and 2-epsilon chains

75
Q

Site of fetal erythropoiesis which occurs in 18 weeks to adult and lifelong

A

Bone marrow

76
Q

Site of fetal erythropoiesis which occurs in 10-28 weeks

A

Spleen

77
Q

Site of fetal erythropoiesis which occurs in 6 weeks to birth

A

Liver

78
Q

Site of fetal erythropoiesis which occurs in 3-8 weeks

A

Yolk sac

Step 1 Hematology/Oncology-First Aid 2017 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions