Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

KCUMB Review > Physiology > Flashcards

Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not apart of an organism that’s in homeostasis?

a. Optimal temperature
b. Optimal concentrations of gases, nutrients, ions, and water
c. Optimal stress
d. Optimal pressure

A

c. Optimal stress

Stress creates an imbalance in the internal environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which type of transport mechanism can utilize multiporters?

a. Primary active transport
b. Secondary active transport
c. Osmosis
d. Facilitated transport
e. Passive diffusion

A

b. Secondary active transport

i. e. Na+Glucose cotransporter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which ion is mostly concentrated inside of cells?

a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Chloride
d. Calcium
e. Amino acids

A

b. Potassium

Sodium & Chloride highly concentrated outside cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following types of neurons would transmit an action potential the fastest?

a. Small diameter, non-myelinated
b. Small diameter, myelinated
c. Large diameter, myelinated
d. Large diameter, non-myelinated

A

c. Large diameter, myelinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which type of receptor channels are found on the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle cells?

a. v.g. Ca2+ channels
b. DHP channels
c. Ryanodine receptors
d. v.g. Na+ channels

A

c. Ryanodine receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which bands of the sarcomere shorten during contraction?

a. A band
b. I band
c. H band
d. b and c
e. a and c

A

d. B and C

A band is directly related to the physical structure of myosin fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of cardiac muscle fibers?

a. T tubules form triads with the sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. Multinucleated, peripheral nuclei
c. Central, single nucleus per cell
d. Two cisternae per T tubule

A

C. Central, single nucleus per cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of skeletal muscle fibers?

a. Multinucleated, peripheral cell
b. Sarcomeric arrangement
c. Contains DHP channels on T tubules
d. T tubules are found along the Z line

A

D. T-tubules are found along the Z line; characteristics of cardiac muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which muscle type has the characteristic of forming a syncytium?

a. Smooth muscle cells
b. Skeletal muscle cells
c. Cardiac muscle cells
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

C. Cardiac muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which phase of cardiac action potential is the resting potential?

a. Phase 4
b. Phase 0
c. Phase 1
d. Phase 2
e. Phase 3

A

a. Phase 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which phase of cardiac action potential is the plateau/slow decline phase?

a. Phase 4
b. Phase 0
c. Phase 1
d. Phase 2
e. Phase 3

A

d. Phase 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

During cardiac muscle action potential, which ion is responsible for the slow action potential?

a. Na+
b. K+
c. Cl-
d. Ca2+

A

d. Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following can increase stroke volume output?

a. Decreasing EDV, Decreasing ESV
b. Decreasing EDV, Increasing ESV
c. Increasing EDV, Increasing ESV
d. Increasing EDV, Decreasing ESV

A

D. Increasing EDV, decreasing ESV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A blood pressure of 0 results in what pressure drop?

a. 20
b. 40
c. 80
d. 120

A

d. 120 mmHg pressure drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In terms of venous return, when the mean circulatory filling pressure is 0 when blood volume is:

a. 0L
b. 1L
c. 2L
d. 3L
e. 4L

A

e. 4L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In terms of venous return, when the mean circulatory filling pressure is 7 mmHg when blood volume is:

a. 4L
b. 5L
c. 6L
d. 7L
e. 8L

A

b. 5L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the daily GFR?

a. 110 ml/min; 165 L/day
b. 115 ml/min; 170 L/day
c. 120 ml/min; 175 L/day
d. 125 ml/min; 180 L/day

A

d. 125 ml/min; 180 L/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following has the greatest effect on increasing GFR?

a. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure
b. Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure
c. Glomerular capillary colloid osmotic pressure
d. Colloid osmotic pressure of Bowman’s capsule

A

a. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure

Which causes in increase in blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed by renal tubules through which type of transport mechanism?

a. Primary transport
b. Secondary transport
c. Osmosis
d. Facilitated diffusion
e. Passive transport

A

b. Secondary transport

SGLT transporters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the major site of action of aldosterone?

a. PCT
b. DCT
c. Principal cells
d. Intercalated cells

A

c. Principal cells of cortical collecting ducts

Increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion

Na/K ATPase pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of aldosterone?

a. Increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion
b. Increases Na+ reabsorption and decreases K+ secretion
c. Decreases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion
d. Decreases Na+ reabsorption and decreases K+ secretion

A

a. Increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the major function of intercalated cells of the late distal tubule?

a. Increase Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion
b. Decrease Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion
c. Increase K+ reabsorption and H+ secretion
d. Decrease K+ reabsorption and H+ secretion

A

C. Increase K+ reabsorption and H+ secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The buffering of renal tubular fluid is highly influenced by:

a. Phosphate buffer system
b. Bicarbonate buffer system
c. Hydrogen buffer system
d. All of the above

A

A. Phosphate buffer system

Bicarbonate buffer system = blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following is a result of a decrease in bicarbonate ion?

a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis

A

A. Metabolic acidosis; results in lung response = increases ventilation rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following is a result of an increase in carbon dioxide?

a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis

A

C. Respiratory acidosis; results in a kidney response = increases plasma bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Respiratory alkalosis is when there is a decrease in CO2 concentration compensated by reduction in plasma bicarbonate ion [ ] via renal excretion, the main cause of respiratory alkalosis is due to:

a. Hypoventilation
b. Hyperventilation
c. Increased salt intake
d. Decreased salt intake

A

b. Hyperventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the result of alkalosis?

a. Decrease in bicarbonate:hydrogen ion ratio
b. Decrease in hydrogen:bicarbonate ratio
c. Increase in bicarbonate:hydrogen ratio
d. Increase in hydrogen:bicarbonate ratio

A

C. Increase in bicarbonate:hydrogen ratio

Excess bicarbonate excreted in urine allowing hydrogen ion to add to ECM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Metabolic alkalosis is caused by a rise in extracellular fluid [bicarbonate ion], what is the compensatory response?

a. Increased ventilation, Increased renal bicarbonate ion excretion
b. Increased ventilation, decreased renal bicarbonate ion excretion
c. Decreased ventilation, increased renal bicarbonate ion excretion
d. Decreased ventilation, decreased renal bicarbonate ion excretion

A

C. Decreased ventilation; Increased renal bicarbonate ion excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following is the difference between alveolar pressure and pleural pressure?

a. Pleural pressure
b. Alveolar pressure
c. Transpulmonary pressure
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

C. Transpulmonary pressure

Pleural pressure - pressure of fluid b/w parietal pleura & visceral pleura

Alveolar pressure - pressure of the air inside alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In terms of partial pressure, which of the following is the greatest and the least in atmospheric pressure, respectively?

a. Nitrogen;Oxygen
b. Oxygen;Nitrogen
c. Carbon dioxide;Nitrogen
d. Nitrogen;Carbon dioxide

A

D. Nitrogen;Carbon Dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In terms of Va/Q ratio, what is the blood gas constant during an airway obstruction (mucus plug) when Va/Q=0?

a. O2 40; CO2 45
b. O2 100; CO2 40
c. O2 150; CO2 0
d. Unchanged

A

D. Unchanged

Va/Q = infinity = ventilation occurs = pulmonary embolism/vascular obstruction; no blood contact = alveolar gas remains at atm pressure levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How much of carbon dioxide is transported as carbonic acid?

a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 70%
e. 90%

A

D. 70%

Carbonic acid requires carbonic anhydrase

33
Q

Which respiratory center is mainly associated with inspiration and establishes the ramp signal?

a. Ventral respiratory group
b. Dorsal respiratory group
c. Lateral respiratory group
d. Dorsolateral respiratory group
e. Ventrolateral respiratory group

A

B. Dorsal respiratory group

Respiratory centers are principal initiators of phrenic nerve activity

34
Q

The pontine respiratory group contains a pneumotaxic center that mainly controls what?

a. Ventilation rate
b. Respiratory rate
c. Rate and depth of breathing
d. Body temperature

A

C. Rate and depth of breathing

Respiratory centers are principal initiators of phrenic nerve activity

35
Q

What is the primary function of secondary motor areas of the cortex?

a. Directly connected to specific muscles
b. Detect specific sensations
c. Patterns of motor activity
d. Analyze meanings of specific sensory signals

A

C. Provide patterns of motor activity

36
Q

What is the primary function of secondary sensory areas?

a. Directly connected to specific muscles
b. Detect specific sensations
c. Patterns of motor activity
d. Analyze meanings of specific sensory signals

A

D. Analyze meanings of specific sensory signals

37
Q

Which of the following distinguishes tonic receptors from phasic receptors?

a. Tonic are fast adapting
b. Tonic detect discontinuous stimulus strength
c. Tonic transmits impulses as long as stimulus is absent
d. Tonic is slow adapting

A

D. Slow adapting

Tonic receptors - slow adapting, detect continuous stimulus strength, transmit impulses as long as stimulus is present

38
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a tonic receptor?

a. Muscle spindles
b. Golgi tendon organs
c. Macula and vestibular receptors
d. Baroreceptors
e. Type C pain fibers
f. Baroreceptors and chemoreceptors

A

E. Type C pain fibers

Tonic receptors - slow adapting, detects continuous stimulus strength, transmits impulses as long as stimulus is present

39
Q

Which set of neurons of the ascending pathways make up tracts in the spinal cord and brainstem?

a. Primary sensory neurons
b. Secondary neurons
c. Tertiary neurons
d. None of the above

A

B. Secondary neurons

40
Q

Which set of neurons of the ascending pathways are from external receptors?

a. Primary sensory neurons
b. Secondary neurons
c. Tertiary neurons
d. None of the above

A

A. Primary sensory neurons

41
Q

Which set of neurons of the ascending pathways go from the thalamus to the primary sensory cortex and travel through internal capsule?

a. Primary sensory neurons
b. Secondary neurons
c. Tertiary neurons
d. None of the above

A

C. Tertiary neurons

42
Q

Which ascending pathway carries pain and temperature?

a. Dorsal column medial lemniscal pathway
b. Ventral spinothalamic pathway
c. Anterolateral spinothalamic tract
d. Medial Lemniscus system

A

C. Anterolateral spinothalamic tract

Secondary axons decussate through anterior gray and white commissures

43
Q

Which axons of the anterolateral spinothalamic tract decussate through anterior gray and white commissures?

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quaternary

A

B. Secondary; makes up the lateral spinothalamic tract traveling in the lateral column of the spinal cord

44
Q

Which ascending pathway carries sensations for two-point sensation, pressure, and vibration?

a. Dorsal column medial lemniscal pathway
b. Ventral spinothalamic pathway
c. Anterolateral spinothalamic tract
d. Medial Lemniscus system

A

D. Medial lemniscus system

AKA posterior column system; contains fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus

45
Q

Which nerve fibers are from annulospiral endings of muscle spindles?

a. Group Ia (Type Aalpha)
b. Group Ib (Type Aalpha)
c. Group II (Type Abeta, gamma)
d. Group III (Type Adelta)
e. Group IV (Type C)

A

A. Group Ia (Type A-alpha fibers); myelinated

46
Q

Which nerve fibers carry slow chronic pain, itch, temperature, and crude touch?

a. Group Ia (Type Aalpha)
b. Group Ib (Type Aalpha)
c. Group II (Type Abeta, gamma)
d. Group III (Type Adelta)
e. Group IV (Type C)

A

E. Group IV (Type C fibers); non-myelinated

47
Q

In the rhodopsin-retinal visual cycle, what two products arise from rhodopsin?

a. Scotopsin & all-trans retinal
b. Bathorhodopsin & Lumirhodopsin
c. Scotopsin & all-trans retinol
d. Scotopsin & 11-cis retinal
e. Scotopsin & 11-cis retinol

A

A. Scotopsin & all-trans retinal

48
Q

Which set of ganglion cells are small, receive most of their excitation from rods transmitted by way of small bipolar cells and amacrine cells and have broad fields in the peripheral retina and dendrites spread widely in the inner plexiform layer?

a. W Ganglion cells
b. X Ganglion cells
c. Y Ganglion cells
d. Z Ganglion cells
e. All of the above

A

A. W Ganglion cells

49
Q

Which set of ganglion cells make up 55% of all ganglion cells, have a medium diameter, small fields & signals that represent discrete retinal locations and are responsible for color vision?

a. W Ganglion cells
b. X Ganglion cells
c. Y Ganglion cells
d. Z Ganglion cells
e. All of the above

A

B. X Ganglion cells

50
Q

Which set of ganglion cells make up 5% of all ganglion cells, large diameter, respond to rapid changes in visual image and apprise the CNS?

a. W Ganglion cells
b. X Ganglion cells
c. Y Ganglion cells
d. Z Ganglion cells
e. All of the above

A

C. Y Ganglion cells

51
Q

Which ion is associated with the most common cause of congenital deafness, resulting in the ability of the stria vascularis to conduct this ion into the external fluid?

a. Na+
b. Ca2+
c. K+
d. Cl-

A

C. Potassium

52
Q

Which of the following ion in endolymph is related to the resting potential within the hair cells and the generation of an AP?

a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Potassium
d. Chloride

A

C. Potassium

53
Q

Which of the following is made up of intrafusal fibers?

a. Muscle spindles
b. Golgi tendon organs
c. Macula and vestibular receptors
d. Baroreceptors
e. Type C pain fibers
f. Baroreceptors and chemoreceptors

A

A. Muscle spindles; innervated by small gamma motor neurons

54
Q

Which of the following is innervated by small gamma motor neurons?

a. Muscle spindles
b. Golgi tendon organs
c. Macula and vestibular receptors
d. Baroreceptors
e. Type C pain fibers
f. Baroreceptors and chemoreceptors

A

A. Muscle spindle; central region of muscle spindle functions as a sensory receptor

55
Q

Which of the following detects changes in muscle length?

a. Muscle spindles
b. Golgi tendon organs
c. Macula and vestibular receptors
d. Baroreceptors
e. Type C pain fibers
f. Chemoreceptors

A

A. Muscle spindle

56
Q

What type of fiber consists of anterior corticospinal tract and corticobulbar tract?

a. Muscle spindle
b. Golgi tendon organ
c. Pyramidal system
d. Baroreceptors
e. Chemoreceptors

A

C. Pyramidal system

57
Q

Which of the following originates in the motor cortices and forms the lateral corticospinal tracts?

a. Muscle spindle
b. Golgi tendon organ
c. Pyramidal system
d. Baroreceptors
e. Chemoreceptors

A

C. Pyramidal system

58
Q

Lesions in which intracerebellar nuclei results in trunk ataxia?

a. Dentate nuclei
b. Emboliform nuclei
c. Globose nuclei
d. Fastigal nuclei

A

D. Fastigial nuclei; fibers project to reticular formation and vestibular nuclei

Related to postural activity & limb movements

59
Q

Which intracerebellar nuclei has fibers that project to reticular formation and vestibular nuclei?

a. Dentate nuclei
b. Emboliform nuclei
c. Globose nuclei
d. Fastigal nuclei

A

D. Fastigial nuclei

60
Q

Lesions in which intracerebellar nuclei result in extremity ataxia?

a. Dentate nuclei
b. Emboliform nuclei
c. Globose nuclei
d. Fastigal nuclei
e. a and c
f. a, b, and c

A

F. a,b, and c

Project to the red nucleus; related to limb musculature and fine manipulative movement

61
Q

Which cells of the cerebellar cortex are the only output from the cortex?

a. Purkinje cells
b. Basket cells
c. Stellate cells
d. a and b
e. b and c

A

A. Purkinje cells; project to intracerebellar nuclei (-)

62
Q

Which of the following cerebellar cortex cells provide lateral inhibition on adjacent Purkinje cells to provide damping?

a. Purkinje cells
b. Basket cells
c. Stellate cells
d. a and b
e. b and c

A

E. b and c

63
Q

Which functional part of the cerebellum consists of lateral parts of the hemispheres, is associated with premotor, the primary, and association somatosensory areas and involved in coordination of skilled movement and speech?

a. Vestibulocerebellum
b. Spinocerebellum
c. Cerebrocerebellum
d. None of the above

A

c. Cerebrocerebellum

64
Q

Which functional part of the cerebellum consists of flocculonodular lobes and vermis and is associated with equilibrium and postural movements?

a. Vestibulocerebellum
b. Spinocerebellum
c. Cerebrocerebellum
d. None of the above

A

a. Vestibulocerebellum

65
Q

Which functional part of the cerebellum consists mostly of vermis and intermediate zones and is associated with the motor cortex and red nucleus?

a. Vestibulocerebellum
b. Spinocerebellum
c. Cerebrocerebellum
d. None of the above

A

b. Spinocerebellum

66
Q

The primary motor area for shivering is the dorsomedial portion of:

a. Anterior pituitary
b. Posterior pituitary
c. Posterior hypothalamus
d. Cerebral hemispheres

A

c. Posterior hypothalamus; normally inhibited by signals from heat center in anterior hypothalamus preoptic area

67
Q

Which of the following is the best known stimuli for increasing the rate of thyroid releasing hormone secretion?

a. cold
b. heat
c. sweat
d. pain

A

a. cold

68
Q

Which of the following is the physiological mechanism that alters the critical set point of body temperature? Temperature changes in the:

a. GI tract
b. Skin
c. Limbs
d. Muscle

A

b. skin

69
Q

Which type of cells undergo cyclic changes that periodically open and produce pacemaker currents that may generate slow wave activity in the gut?

a. Cells of Leydig
b. Interstitial cells
c. Cells of Cajal
d. Osteoclasts

A

c. Cells of Cajal; slow waves excite the appearance of intermittent spike potentials, which excite muscle contraction

70
Q

Which neurotransmitter is utilized by interneurons of the the myenteric plexus to increase GI motility?

a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Serotonin

A

d. Serotonin; therefore serotonin reuptake inhibitors decrease GI motility

71
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of the gastrointestinal reflexes?

a. Reflexes go from the gut to the prevertebral sympathetic ganglia and back to GI tract
b. cause evacuation of the colon
c. Inhibit stomach motility and secretion
d. Empty ileal contents into the colon

A

a. reflexes that go from the gut to the prevertebral sympathetic ganglia and back to GI tract

72
Q

Which hormone is release by the presence of food in the upper intestine?

a. Gastrin
b. Pepsin
c. Amylase
d. Cholecystokinin
e. Secretin

A

d. Cholecystokinin; increases the secretion of pancreatic enzymes, stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion, inhibits gastric emptying and appetiteW

73
Q

Which hormone is stimulated by the presence of acidic foods in the upper intestine?

a. Gastrin
b. Pepsin
c. Amylase
d. Cholecystokinin
e. Secretin

A

e. Secretin

Stimulates sodium bicarbonate secretion and pancreatic bicarbonate secretion

74
Q

What are the factors that influence metabolic rate

A
  1. arousal vs. sleeping
  2. skeletal muscle
  3. age
  4. thyroid activity
  5. testosterone
  6. growth hormone
  7. fever
  8. sleep
  9. malnutrition
75
Q

Which of the following cells contain receptor proteins for binding PTH?

a. Osteoclasts
b. Osteoclasts and osteocytes
c. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts
d. Osteoblasts and osteocytes

A

d. Osteoblasts and osteocytes

76
Q

Cell bodies of preganglionic neurons of the ANS are located where:

a. CNS
b. Peripheral ganglia
c. Brain and spinal cord
d. a and c
e. None of the above

A

d. a and c; myelinated axons

77
Q

Cell bodies of postganglionic neurons of the ANS are located:

a. CNS
b. Peripheral ganglia
c. Brain and spinal cord
d. a and c
e. None of the above

A

b. Peripheral ganglia; non-myelinated axons

78
Q

Testosterone levels are high during which time of male?

a. Fetal
b. Newborn
c. Newborn & post-puberty
d. Post puberty & adulthood

A

c. Newborn and post-puberty; non-existent during childhood

KCUMB Review (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions