Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Glial cells are derived from where?

A

ectoderm (except microglia which are derived from mesoderm)

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2
Q

Function of myelin

A

Increase conduction velocity of transmitted signals via saltatory conduction of action potentials at node of Ranvier

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3
Q

Function of microglia

A

Axtivation in response to tissue damage - releases inflammatory mediators

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4
Q

Function of ependymal cells

A

Cillia produce CSF
Microvilli absorb CSF

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5
Q

Oligodendrocyges vs schwann cell

A

Oligo myelinate cells in CNS, schwann myelinate cells in PNS

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6
Q

Pain and temperature sensory neurones and their speed and senses

A

Adelta - fast
C - slow
ADelta plane is fast but a taxi is slow

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7
Q

Meissner corpusle

A

Fine/light touch
Low frequency vibration

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8
Q

Pacinian corpusles

A

High frequency vibration
Pressure

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9
Q

Merkel discs

A

Pressure
Deep static touch

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10
Q

Ruffini corpuscles

A

Joint angle change
Stretch

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11
Q

Where is Ach synthesised?

A

Basal nucleus or Myenert (forebrain)

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12
Q

Where is dopamine sunthesised?

A

Ventral tegmentum (mid brain)

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13
Q

Where is GABA synthesised?

A

Nucleus accumbens (basal ganglia)

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14
Q

Where is norepinephrine synthesised?

A

Locus ceruleus (pons)

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15
Q

Where is serotonin synthesised?

A

Raphe nuclei (brainstem)

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16
Q

Sleep waves at different stages of sleep

A

Stage 1 - theta
Stage 2 - sleep spindles, K complexes
Stage 3 - delta
Stage 4 - beta

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17
Q

What structure is responsible for the circadian rythm

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus
“SCN - sun censing nucleus”

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18
Q

Part of the hypothalamus responsible for cooling and heating ?

A

Anterior nucleus - cooling (parasympathetic) “A/C cools rooms”

Posterior nucleus - heating (sympathetic) “hot Pot”

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19
Q

Part of the hypothalamus responsible for satiety and hunger?

A

Hunger - lateral nucleus (lateral injury makes u lean)
Satiety - ventrimedial nucleus (ventromedial injury makes u very massive)

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20
Q

What part of the hypothalamus controls sexual behaviour and releases GnRh?

A

Preoptic nucleus

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21
Q

What part of the hypothalamus is responsible for synthesis or oxytoxin and ADH?

A

Supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei

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22
Q

Senes relayed to the ventral posterolateral nucleus of thalamus

A

Vibration
Pressure
Pain
Proprioception
Light touch

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23
Q

Senes relayed to the ventral posterolateral nucleus of thalamus

A

Vibration
Pressure
Pain
Proprioception
Light touch

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24
Q

Senses relayed to the ventral posterior-medial nucleus of the thalamus

A

“Very pretty make up goes on the face”
Face sensation, taste

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25
Q

Senses relayed to the lateral geniculate nucleus of thalamus?

A

Lateral = light
Vision

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26
Q

Senses relayed to the medial geniculate nucleus of thalamus?

A

Medial = music
Hearing

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27
Q

What senses relay to the ventral anterior and ventral lateral nuclei of thalamus?

A

“Venus astraunats vow to love Moving”
Motor

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28
Q

Stroke involving the anterior cerebral artery would affect what part of the body?

A

Lower limbs and trunk

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29
Q

Stroke involving the middle cerebral artery would affect what part of the body?

A

Upper limbs, face, swallowing

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30
Q

What is the primary drive of cerebral perfusion pressure?

A

C02

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31
Q

Afferent and efferent of accomodation relfex?

A

Optic (II)
Oculomotor (III)

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32
Q

Afferent and efferent of corneal relfex?

A

Trigeminal (V)
Facial (VII)

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33
Q

Afferent and efferent of cough relfex?

A

Vagus for both (X)

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34
Q

Afferent and efferent of jaw jerk relfex?

A

Trigeminal (V3)
Trigeminal (V3)

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35
Q

Afferent and efferent of laceimation relfex?

A

Trigeminal (V3)
Facial (VII)

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36
Q

Afferent and efferent of pupillary relfex?

A

Optic (II)
Occulomotor (III)

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37
Q

What nucleus of the vagus nerve is responsible for sensory information?

A

Nucleus tractus solitarus
Solitarius = Sensory

38
Q

What nucleus of the vagus nerve contains for autonomic fibres?

A

Dorsal motor nucleus

39
Q

Presentation and site of lesion of decorticate posturing

A

Flexion of upper limb and extension of lower limb
Above red nucleus (cerebral cortex)

40
Q

Presentation and site of lesion of decerebrate posturing

A

Extension of upper and lower limbs
Between red and vestibular nuclei

41
Q

Histologic features of ischaemic brain injury 12-24 hours

A

Eosinophillic cytoplasm
(Eschemia Neutralises Men and Girls)

42
Q

Histologic features of ischaemic brain injury 24-72 hours

A

Necrosis and neutrophils

43
Q

Histologic features of ischaemic brain injury 3 -5 days

A

Macrophages

44
Q

Histologic features of ischaemic brain injury 1-2 weeks+ vascular proliferation

A

Reactive gliosis

45
Q

Histologic features of ischaemic brain injury > 2 weeks

A

Glial scar

46
Q

Histologic features of ischaemic brain injury > 2 weeks

A

Glial scar

47
Q

Pnemonic for histology changes in brain tissue with ischaemia

A

Escaemia Neutralises Men and Girls
12-24hrs Eosinophilia
24-72hrs neutrophils
3-5 days macrophages
>2 weeks glial scar

48
Q

Area affected in conduction aphasia

A

Arcuate fasciculus

49
Q

Feature of aneurysm of anterio communicating artery

A

Bitemporal hemianopia
(ACom = compression of optic chiasm)

50
Q

Feature of aneurysm of posterior communicating artery

A

Ipsilateral CN III palsy
Prosis, down and out, mydriasis (blown pupil)

51
Q

Feature of aneurysm of posterior communicating artery

A

Ipsilateral CN III palsy
Prosis, down and out, mydriasis (blown pupil)

52
Q

Feature of aneurysm of middle communicating artery

A

Contralateral facial and upper limb palsy, sensory deficits

53
Q

Pathophysiology of huntingtons

A

Repeat expansion of HTT gene on chromosome 4

54
Q

Altered proteins associated with alzheimers

A

ApoE 2 (decreased risk sporadic)
ApoE 4 (increased risk sporadic)
APP, presenilin 1, presennilin 2 (familial)

55
Q

Pnemonic for correcting Na too fast and the complications this causes

A

From low to high your pons will die (osmotic demyelination syndrome)
From high to low your brains will blow (cerebral oedema/herniation)

56
Q

Genetic defect associated with charcot-marie-tooth

A

Most common is CMT1A caused by PMP22 gene duplication

57
Q

Features of uncal herniation

A

Herniation of uncus of temporal love
Ispilateral blown pupil
Contralateral hemiparesis

58
Q

Location of spinal cord lesion in poliomyelitis

A

Poliovirus
- anterior horns

59
Q

Location of spinal cord lesion in spinal muscular atrophy

A

Also called Werdnig-Hoffman disease
- anterior horns

60
Q

Location of spinal cord lesion in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

A

Anterior and lateral horns

61
Q

Location of spinal cord lesion in subacute combined degeneration

A

Spinocerebellar tracts, lateral corticospinal and dorsal colums

62
Q

Location of spinal cord lesion in anterior spinal artery occlusion

A

Spinal cord infarction sparing dorsal colums

63
Q

Mutation associated with spinal musclar dystrophy (wernig-hoffman disease)

A

SMN1 (survival motor neuron)

64
Q

Features of brown sequard syndrome

A

Hemisection of spinal cord
Ipsilateral loss of vibration, proprioception and fine touch
Ipsilateral loss of sensation at the level of lesion
Ipsilateral LMN at level, UMN below level
Contralateral loss of pain and temperature

65
Q

Feature of CN V lesion

A

Jaw deviates away from side of lesion

66
Q

Feature of CN V lesion

A

Jaw deviates away from side of lesion

67
Q

Feature of CN X lesion

A

Uvula deviates away from side of lesion

68
Q

Feature of CN XI lesion

A

Weakness turning head away from lesion, shoulder droop side of lesion

69
Q

Feature of CN XII lesion

A

Tongue deviates toward side of lesion

70
Q

type of tumour: Spindle cells in concentric whorls, calcified psammoma bodies

A

meningioma

71
Q

type of tumour: Pleomorphic tumour cells border necrotic areas

A

GBM

72
Q

type of tumour: Acellular areas surrounded by nuclear palisades

A

vestibular schwannoma

73
Q

type of tumour: perivascular pseudorosettes

A

ependymoma

74
Q

type of tumour: Calcifications with ‘fried-egg’ appearance’. chicken wire appearance.

A

oligodendroglioma

75
Q

pathophysiology of alzheimers

A

extra cellular amyloid plaques and intracellular fibrillary tangles

76
Q

increased glutamate

A

found in patients with cerebral ischaemia or prolonged seizures

77
Q

uses dynein for retrograde transport to the neuronal cell body

A

clostridium, HSV, rabies and polio

78
Q

retrograde transport to the neuronal cell uses what protein

A

dynein
(ReaDy Attack –> Retrograde Dynein, Antegrade Kinesin)

79
Q

uses kinesin for entegrade transport from the neuronal cell body

A

HSV reactivation

80
Q

antegrade transport from the neuronal cell uses what protein

A

Kinesin (ReaDy AttacK)

81
Q

rate limiting step of peripheral nerve regeneration after injury

A

slow anterograde transport from cell body in microtubule

82
Q

area of the brain responsible for skeletal muscle memory

A

cerebellum

83
Q

area of the brain responsible for emotional memory

A

amygdala

84
Q

area of the brain responsible for procedural memory

A

striatum

85
Q

area of the brain responsible for declarative memory

A

medial temporal lobe
(type of long term memory of facts and events)

86
Q

what structures make up the limbic system and what is its functions

A

hippocampus
amygdalae
mammillary bodies
anterior thalamic nuclei
cingulate gyrus

5 F’s - feeding, fleeing, fighting, feeling, sex

87
Q

area of the brain responsible for fear memories

A

lateral amygydala

88
Q

area of the brain responsible for normal recognition memory and spatial memory

A

hippocampus

89
Q

organism responsible for meningitis in close quarters would show like what on gram stain

A

N. meningitidis
gram negative diplococci

90
Q

most causative organisms of meningitis would show like what on gram stain

A

gram positive diplococci

91
Q
A