Physiology Flashcards
What is the definition of osmosis?
The diffusion of solvent molecules into a region in which there is a higher concentration of solute to which the membrane is permeable
What is the definition of osmotic pressure?
The excess pressure required to maintain an osmotic equilibrium between a solution and the pure solvent seperated only to the solvent
What does the Van’t Hoff equation describe?
Osmotic Pressure
P = (nRT) / V
P - osmotic pressure
n - number of particles into which the substance dissociates
R - universal gas content, which is 0.082
T - absolute temperature
V - volume
In terms of proportionality, what does the Van’t Hoff equation mean?
Osmotic pressure is directly proportional to it’s absolute temperature, and at a constant temperature, it is directly proportional to the solute concentration
What is osmolarity?
The number of osmoles of solute per litre of solution.
What affects the osmolarity?
It depends on the volume of the solution, and therefore on the temperature and pressure of the solution
What is osmolality?
The number of osmoles of solute per kilogram of solvent
What affects osmolality?
Osmolality depends on the mass of the solvent which is independent of temperature and pressure
What is an osmole?
The amount of substance which must be dissolved in order to produce Avogadro’s number of particles (6.0221 x 10^23)
What is tonicity?
The osmotic pressure between two compartments, and is related to the difference in the concentration of ‘effective’ osmoles between them
What are effective osmoles?
Those substances which are unable to penetrate the membrane between compartments and therefore they are effective in their contribution to osmotic pressure
What are ineffective osmoles?
Substances which are able to equilibrate between compartments, and that are therefore unable to contribute to the osmotic pressure gradient
What is the reflective coefficient?
A measure of how permeable a membrane is to a given solute, where it equals 0 for a perfectly permeable membrane and 1 for a membrane which is perfectively selective
What is an isotonic solution?
Solution separated by a membrane that have equal osmolality on either side so there is no osmotic pressure and they are therefore isotonic
Describe how the movement of fluid between capillaries and tissues is governed by the balance of the hydrostatic pressure and the orthostatic pressure
- If the capillary hydrostatic pressure and blood oncotic pressure are equal, no net fluid movement occurs
- When capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than oncotic pressure, blood is ultrafiltered out of the capillary and into the tissues
- When oncotic pressure is higher than intravascular hydrostatic pressure, tissue oedema fluid should be attracted back into the circulation
What is the Starling principle?
Hydrostatic pressure is higher than oncotic pressure in the post-arteriolar capillary segments, but as the pressure in the capillary decreases along its length, oncotic pressure ‘wins’ and attracts some of the ultrafiltered water back into the capillaries
On a basic general level, how are body water compartments measured?
Using indicator diluting techniques
Following equilibrium of the indicator into the compartment of interest, the blood level of the indicator can be measured
The volume of distribution of the indicator can then be calculated:
Volume of the compartment = dose of marker / concentration of marker
What are the features that make an ideal indictator to measure body water compartments?
- Safe
- Not metabolised or rapidly excreted
- confined to the compartment of interest
- not prone to changing the distribution of fluids within the compartment
What indicators can be used to measure
1. Total body water
2. Extracellular fluid
3. Plasma volume
4. Blood volume
- TBW - radioactive tritium
- ECF - bromine-82 or mannitol
- Plasma - albumin tagged with evans blue
- Blood - 53Cr labelled red cells
What is the volume of total body water and percentage of this of total body mass?
42L (60% of total body mass in men, 50% in women)
How does the total body water change in obesity?
The total body water is larger but the proportion of total body mass in less as adipose tissue is only 10-20% water
What is the volume of intracellular fluid and precentage of total body mass?
23.1L (33% total body mass)
This volume is regulated by the movement of free water
What is the volume of extracellular fluid and percentage of total body mass?
18.9L (27% total body mass)
This volume is regulated by the movement of sodium
What makes up extracellular fluid?
- plasma volume (2.8L)
- interstitial and lymph fluid
- dense connective tissue and bones
- adipose tissue
Intravascular Fluid
1. % of total body mass
2. % of total fluid
3. volume
Intravascular Fluid
* 4.5% total body mass
* 7.5% total fluid
* 3.15L
Blood Volume
1. % of body mass
2. % of total fluid
3. volume
Blood Volume
* 7% of total body mass
* 12% of total fluid
* 5L
Interstitial Fluid
1. % of body mass
2. % of total fluid
3. volume
Interstitial Fluid
* 12% of total body mass
* 20% of total fluid
* 8.4L
What is the volume of transcellular fluid and percentage of total body mass?
1050ml (1.5% total body mass)
Fluid formed by the secretory activity of cells
What makes up transcellular fluid?
- synovial fluid
- CSF
- aqueous humour
- bile
- bowel contents
- peritoneal fluid
- pleural fluid
- urine in the bladder
What is Fick’s Law of Diffusion?
The rate of diffusion is proportional to concentration and surface area
How come water can diffuse across the lipid bilayer despite it being very hydrophobic?
- The surface area of all the cells that interfere with the extracellular fluid is huge
- The concentration of water molecules is very high
- The lipid bilayer in very thin
Why does the thinness of the lipid bilayer affect diffusion?
Because diffusion rate in inversely proportional to the thickness of the membrane
What affects the water permeability of cell membranes?
The presence of embedded proteins and lipids which change the membrane properties (aquaporins)
What is the main mechanism that determines the balance of volume between the intracellular and extracellular compartments?
The equilibrium of osmolality of the compartments, therefore the most important osmotic agent is extracellular sodium, which is under tight regulation
Why is intracellular water important?
- it acts as a solvent
- its presence is essential for enzyme function
- it acts as a reagant itself
How is the volume of intracellular water determined?
- The first Gibbs-Donnan effect (passive), which is established by the equilibration of diffusable and non-diffusable solvents on either side of the cell membrane
- The second Gibbs-Donnan effect (active), which is maintained by the actions of the Na+/K+ATPase
What does the Gibbs-Donnan effect describe?
The unequal distribution of permeant charged ions of either side of a semi-permeable membrane, which occurs in the presence of impermeant charged ions
Equilibrium - both sides of the membrane will have equal charged ions
What is the concentration of total body sodium and how is it distributed?
60mmol/Kg
70kg man - 4200mmol
ECF - 50% total sodium
ICF - 5% total sodium
How does sodium move between the intravascular and interstitial fluid?
Due to the Gibbs-Donnan effect
How is sodium concentration inside the cell kept artificially low?
By the action of the Na+/K+ATPase, which exchanged 3 sodium atoms for every two potassium
What is the concentration of total body potassium and how is it distributed?
40mmol/Kg
70kg man - 2800mmol
ICF - 90%
ECF - 2%
Bone - 8%
How does potassium move between intravascular, interstital and intercellular fluid?
- It moves freely between intravascular and interstitial fluid due to low concentrations
- Na+/K+ATPase exchanges three sodium ions out of the cell and two potassium ions into the cell
What is the concentration of total body calcium and how is it distributed?
360mmol/kg
70kg man - 25mol
>99% is stored in bone
ECF - 30mmol
Intracellular calcium is minimal but it is an important secondary messenger
How does calcium move between intravascular, interstital and intercellular fluid?
- it moves freely between interstital and intravascular fluid
- it is actively transported by ATP-powered pumps, which is important because it is a second messenger
What is the concentration of total body magnesium and how is it distributed?
15mmol/Kg
70kg male - 1050mmol
60% is in bone
39% is intracellular
1% is ECF
How does magnesium move between intravascular, interstital and intercellular fluid?
- magnesium moves freely between ECF
- magnesium enters cells freely
- intracellular magnesium is bound to ATP, cell wall lipids and many various enzymes
What is the resting membrane potential?
The voltage (charge) difference between the extracellular and intracellular fluid when the cell is at rest
What are the mechanisms responsible for the resting membrane potential?
- chemical gradients created by ion transport pumps eg potassium, sodium, calcium
- selective membrane permeability - volatage-gated ion pumps
- electrical gradients - generated because potassium leak (via K2P channels) from the intracellular fluid creates a negative intracellular charge, attracting potassium back into cells (opposite to chemical gradient)
- electrochemical equilibrium develops when chemical and electrical gradients are equal (Nernst equation)
What is the Nernst potential for each ion?
The transmembrane potential difference generated when that ion is at electrochemical equilibrium
What value is the normal resting potential?
The net charge of the intracellular side of the cell is -70 - -90mV
What is the Nernst equation?
If you account the below as constants you will get:
Vk = -60mV log10 x (Kin - Kout)
What is the Nernst potential for:
K+
Cl-
Na+
Ca2+
K+ -94mV
Cl- -80mV
Na+ +60mV
Ca2+ +130mV
What is the Goldman-Hodgkin-Katz equation?
Most things are pretty constant so it basically equals out as the Nernst equation (just potassium)
What is the threshold potential?
The transmembrane potential required to produce depolarisation of the membrane =
-55mV
What is the all-or-nothing effect?
The finding that a subthreshold stimulus will produce no response, whereas a suprathreshold stimuli will produce an identical and maximal response.
What cell process occurs during depolarisation?
Depolarisation occurs as the result of voltage-gated sodium channels opening when the threshold potential is reached
- The result is an influx of sodium ions into the cell
- This rapidly depolarises the membrane (.5-1.0msec)
What cell process occurs during repolarisation?
Repolarisation occurs due to potassium channel opening and sodium channels closing
* Sodium channels enter a refractory period and cannot be activated again
* Potassium channels permit an outward potassium current, repolarising the cell
How does propagation of the action potential along a neuron occur?
Because the current generated locally by depolarization changes the transmembrane potential in adjacent areas of membrane, also depolarizing it
What are the factors which affect neuronal conduction?
- Myelination - myelinated fibres conduct faster
- Thickness of the fibre - thicker fibres conduct faster
- Properties of the membrane - the lower the capacitance and resistance the faster the conduction
- Properties of the extra-axonal environment e.g. electrolyte derangement (hyponatraemia, hypermagneseamia, acidosis and hypothermia all decrease the velocity of nerve conduction
What is ‘undershoot’ or afterhyperpolarisation?
Why does it happen?
It describes the post-spike negative dip in transmembrane potential, which transiently falls below the normal resting membrane potential.
It happens because of persistent calcium-activated potassium channel activity, which are opened by the intracellular influx of calcium during the action potential
What is an axons capacitance?
The ability of the membrane to store charge; the greater the capacitance the more charge needs to be displaced by the local circuit and therefore the greater the current required in that local circuit.
In short, for faster conduction, you want a low-capacitance membrane that carries barely any charge
What is axial resistance?
The resistance to ion flow along the axon, measured between two flat cut ends of the axon.
Ion flow requires substrate to flow through, and therefore more axoplasm usually means better conduction
What is saltatory conduction?
- Most of an axon is covered in myelin sheath, not much action potential propagation happens over the myelinated length
- The sodium channels are concentrated at the unmyelinated regions between myelin segments (nodes of Ranvier)
- The action potential can propagate from one node to another
What is synaptic neurotransmission?
The phenomenon where the action potential of one neuron, through an intermediate signal molecule, facilitates a change in the state of another neuron, to which it is connected by a synapse.
What is a synapse?
A narrow (20-30nm) junction between two neurons
What are neurotransmitters and what are some of their shared properties?
They are molecules used for synaptic signalling. Some shared properties are:
* released from a presynaptic terminal in response to calcium-dependent depolarisation
* received by specific receptors on the postsynaptic neuron
* subsequently reabsorbed into the presynaptic neuron or glia, or metabolised into an inactive form by enzymes to terminate the stimulation
* a single neurotransmitter tends to be dominant in any given neuron (Dale’s principle), although this is not always true
What are some excitatory neurotransmitters?
Glutamate
Dopamine
Noradrenaline
Acetylcholine (nicotinic receptors)
What are some inhibitory neurotransmitters?
GABA
Serotonin
Acetylcholine (muscarinic receptors)
Describe synaptic neurotransmission on a basic level
- A nerve impulse is conducted to the presynaptic endplate of the neuron
- At the endplate, the neurotransmitter substance is stored in vesicles
- The arrival of an action potential and the depolarisation of the presynaptic membrane causes the release of the neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft
- The release is generally mediated by intracellular calcium entry acting as a secondary messenger
- The released neurotransmitters cross the cleft and bind to their receptors
- The either alters the threshold potential or directly produces depolarisation
What are the proteins that calcium targets in synaptic neurotransmission? what are the responsible for?
They are broadly referred to as the SNARE family
* synaptotagmin
* synaptobrevin
* syntaxin
They are responsible for mediating the fusion of vesicles with the presynaptic membrane, and the exocytosis of vesicle contents
What are the two main things neurotransmitters do in the synapse?
- Bind to the post-synaptic receptors, producing some change in the other neuron
- Bind to the pre-synaptic receptors on the same neuron which had just released it, and therefore exerting some soft of feedback effect
How is the neurotransmitter cleared from the synaptic cleft?
Usually, by the action of various reuptake pumps or more rarely by the activity of a high-affinity enzyme that destroys the neuotransmitted molecule, like acetylcholinesterase
What is the mechanism of contraction of skeletal vs smooth vs cardiac muscle?
Skeletal and cardiac muscle
calcium-induced conformational change of tropomyosin and troponin, leading to exposure of actin sites
Smooth muscle
calcium induces calmodulin to activate MLCK, which phosphorylates myosin light chains
What is the mechanism of relaxation of skeletal vs smooth vs cardiac muscle?
Skeletal and cardiac muscle
calcium dissociation away from tropomyosin and troponin
Smooth muscle
dephosphorylation of myosin light chains by myosin light chain phosphatase
What is the role of calmodulin in skeletal vs smooth vs cardiac muscle?
Skeletal muscle
minor
Smooth muscle
central
Cardiac muscle
regulatory
What is a sarcoplasmic reticulum?
A specially organised organelle that mainly plays the role in coordinating calcium traffic
What is a motor unit of muscle?
It consists of a large anterior horn cell, its motor axon, and the skeletal muscle fibres innervated by that axon
How does smooth muscle contract?
- Intracellular calcium binds to calmodulin (there is no troponin)
- Calmodulin activates myosin light chain kinase
- Myosin light chain kinase phosphrylates the head of myosin
- Only phosphorylated myosin heads can participate in cross-bridge cycling
- Contraction then occurs via actin-myosin bridge formation
How does smooth muscle relax?
- When calcium concentration decreases, myosin light chain phosphatase dephosphorylates the myosin light chain kinase and puts an end to the contraction
- Myosin light chain phosphatase is activated by cGMP-dependent protein kinase, and is therefore responsive to nitric oxide
What does the reflex arc consist of?
A sense organ, an afferent neuron, one of more synapses of a central integrating system, an efferent neuron and an effector
Where do the afferent and efferent fibres travel through the spinal cord?
The afferent neurons enter via the dorsal roots or cranial nerves and have their cell bodies in the dorsal root ganglia or in the homologous ganglia of the cranial nerves.
The efferent fibres leave via the ventral route or corresponding motor cranial nerves.
What are the types of potentials created in the reflex arc.
- The sense organ generates a receptor potential whose magnitude is proportional to the strength of the stimulus
- The afferent nerve generates an all or nothing action potential, the number being proportional to the receptor potential
- In the CNS, the responses are graded in terms of excitatory post-synpaptic potentials (EPSPs) and inhibitory post-synaptic potentials (IPSPs) at synaptic juntions
- The efferent nerve is all or nothing potential
What is an adequate stimulus?
The stimulus that triggers a reflex. It is often very precise
What type of neurons are the efferent nerves in the reflex arc?
alpha motor neurons
What is the final common pathway?
All neural influences affecting muscular contraction ultimately funnel through the alpha motor neurons to the muscles, and they are therefore called the final common pathway.
What are monosynaptic and polysynaptic reflexes?
The simplest reflex arc is one with a single synapse between the afferent and efferent neurons, these are called monosynaptic reflexes.
Reflex arcs in which there interneurons are interposed between the afferent and efferent neurons are called polysynaptic reflexes
What is the stretch or myotactic reflex?
When a skeletal muscle with an intact nerve supply is stretched, it contracts. This response is called the stretch reflex.
What is the following in the stretch reflex:
* stimulus
* response
* sense organ
* neurotransmitter
* give an example of the stretch reflex
- Stimulus - stretch of the muscle
- Response - contraction of the muscle
- Sense organ - a small encapsulated spinkle-like structure called the muscle spindle
- Neurotransmitter - glutamate
- Example - knee jerk reflex
What are the three essential parts of a muscle spindle?
- A group of specialised intrafusal muscle fibres with contractile polar ends and a non-contractile centre
- Large diameter myelinated afferent nerves originating in the central portion of the intrafusal fibres
- Small diameter myelinated efferent nerves supplying the polar contractile regions of the intrafusal fibres
How are muscle spindles linked with proprioception?
Changes in muscle length are associated with changes in joint angle; thus muscle spindles provide information on position - proprioception
Where will you find muscle spindles?
The intrafusal muscles fibres are found parallel to the extrafusal muscle fibres (the regular contractile units of the muscle) with the ends of the spindle capsule attached to the tendons at each end of the muscle
What are the two types of intrafusal muscle fibres? Tell me a little bit about them
- Nuclear bag fibre contains many nuclei in a dilated central area. There are two types dynamic and static
- Nuclear chain fibre is thinner and shorter and lacks a definite bag.
Typically a muscle spindle has 2-3 bag fibres and 5 chain fibres
What are the two kinds of sensory endings in each spindle? What do they measure?
- A single primary (Ia) ending, which is very sensitive to the velocity of the change in muscle length during a stretch (dynamic response)
- Up to 8 secondary (II) endings, which provide information on the steady state length of the muscle (static response)
What nerves supply muscle spindles?
Gamma - motor neurons
How do the afferent nerves of the muscle spindles connect to the muscle they move?
Ia fibres end directly on motor neurons supplying the extrafusal fibres of the same muscle
In reflexes, what is the reaction time and the central delay? Give values for both
Reaction time is the time between the application of the stimulus and the response. Knee jerk - 19-24ms
Central delay is the time taken for the reflex activity to traverse the spinal cord. Knee jerk is 0.6-0.9ms
What scenario takes place to stop the muscle spindles from firing?
They stop firing when the muscle is made to contract by electrical stimulation of the alpha motor neurons to the extrafusal fibres because the muscle shortens when the spindle is unloaded.
What is the difference between alpha motor neuron and gamma motor neuron stimulation?
Stimulation of the gamma motor neuron does not lead directly to detectable contraction of the muscles because the intrafusal fibers are not strong enough. However, it does stretch the nucleur bag portion of the spindles, deforming the endings and initiating impulses to the Ia fibres. This can in turn lead to reflex contraction of the muscle.
How are the gamma motor neurons regulated?
From descending tracts from a number of areas of the brain that also control alpha motor neurons
What is reciprocal innervation?
When a stretch reflex occurs, the muscles that antagonise the muscle involved relax. This is called reciprocal innervation
How does reciprocal innervation take place?
Impulses in the Ia fibres from the muscle spindles on the protagonist muscle cause postsynaptic inhibition of the motor neurons to the antagonists.
A collateral from each Ia fibre passes in the spinal cord to an inhibitory interneuron that synapses on a motor neuron supplying the antagonist muscles
What is the inverse stretch reflex?
Up to a point, the harder a muscle is stretched, the stronger the reflex contraction. However, when the tension becomes great enough, contraction suddenly ceases and the muscle relaxes.
What is the receptor for the inverse stretch reflex?
How does it work?
The Golgi tendon organ.
The fibres from the Golgi tendon organ make up the Ib group of myelinated, rapidly conducting sensory nerve fibers. Stimulation of these leads to production of IPSPs on the motor neurons from which the fibres arise. The Ib fibres end on the spinal cord on inhibitory interneurons that in turn directly terminate on the motor neurons. They also make excitatory connection with the antagonist muscle motor neurons.
What is muscle tone?
What does it mean if the muscle is:
* flaccid/hypotonic
* hypertonic
Muscle tone - the resistance of a muscle to stretch
Flaccid/Hypotonic - the muscle offers very little resistance
Hypertonic - the resistance to stretch is high because of hyperactive stretch reflexes
What is the clasp-knife effect, otherwise known as lengthening reaction?
When the muscles are hypertonic, the sequence of moderate stretch -> muscle contraction, strong stretch -> muscle relaxation.
For example, passive flexion of the elbow meets immediate resistance as a result of the stretch receptor in the triceps muscle. Further stretch activates the inverse stretch reflex. The resistance to flexion suddenly stops and the arm flexes. Continued passive flexion stretches the muscle again and the sequence may be repeated
How are polysynaptic reflex different from monosynaptic reflexes?
Because of the synaptic delay at each synapse, activity in the branches with fewer synapses reaches the motor neuron first, followed by activity in the longer pathways. This causes prolonged bombardment of the motor neurons from a single stimulus and consequently prolonged responses.
Furthermore, some of the branch pathways turn back on themselves, permitting activity to reverberate until it becomes unable to propogated transsynaptic response and dies out.
This is a reverberating circuit
What is the withdrawal reaction?
A typical polysynaptic reflex that occurs in response to a noxious stimulus to the skin or the subcutaneous tissue or muscles.
The response is flexor muscle contraction and inhibition of the extensor muscles, so that the body part stimulated is flexed and withdrawn from the stimulus
What is the crossed extensor response?
When a strong stimulus is applied to a limb, the response includes not only flexion and withdrawal of that limb but also extension of the opposite limb.
What is irradiation of the stimulus?
The spread of excitatory impulses up and down the spinal cord to more and more motor neurons
Withdrawal reflexes are prepotent, what does this mean?
They preemt the spinal pathways from any other reflex activity taking place at that moment
What is after-discharge with reflexes?
A weak stimulus generates one quick flexion movement; a strong stimulus causes prolonged flexion and sometimes a series of flexion movements.
This prolonged response is due to prolonged, repeated firing of the motor neurons. This is called after-discharge
What is the sensory pathway of vision?
- The axons of the ganglion cells pass caudally in the optic nerve and optic tract to end in the lateral geniculate body in the thalamus.
- The fibers from each nasal hemiretina decussate in the optic chiasm.
- In the geniculate body, the fibres from the nasal half of one retina and the temporal half of the other synapse on the cells who axons form the geniculocalcarine tract. This tract passes to the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex.
What is the pathway that mediates the pupillary light reflex and eye movements?
Some ganglion cell axons bypass the lateral geniculate to project directly to the pretactal area.
How does the retina transmit information to the lateral geniculate body? How does this link with the structure of the lateral geniculate body?
The axons of retinal ganglion cells project a detailed spatial representation of the retina on the lateral geniculate body.
Each geniculate body has six well-defined layers (layers 1,4,6 from contralateral eye, 2,3,5 from ipsilateral eye). In each layer there is a point for point representation of the retina.
Where does the lateral geniculate nucleus get its information from?
Approx 10-20% from the retina. Major inputs also come from the visual cortex and other brain regions
What are the cell types in the retinal ganglion cells and where do they get their information from?
- M cells - large ganglion cells, which add responses from different kinds of cones and are concerned with movement and stereopsis
- P cells - small ganglion cells, which subtract input of one type of cone from input from another, they are concerned with colour, texture and shape
What are the two pathways from the lateral geniculate pathway to the primary visual cortex? Which P cells and M cells travel in each pathway?
- The M ganglion cells project to the magnocellular portion of the lateral geniculate, whereas the P ganglion cells project to the parvocellular portion.
- The magnocellular pathway, from layers 1 and 2, carries signals for detection of movement, depth and flicker.
- The parvocellular pathway, from layers 3-6. carries signals for colour vision, texture, shape and fine detail
What are the following lesions called and where is the lesion?
- A - A lesion that interrupts one optic nerve causes blindness in that eye
- B - Heteronomous (opposite sides of the visual fields) hemianopia - a lesion in the optic chiasm
- C - Homonomous (same side of the visual fields) hemianopia - a lesion in one optic tract
- D - Occipital lesions may spare the fibers from the macula because of seperation in the brain of these fibres from the other subserving vision
Label where these areas of the occipital region get their sensory nerves from
What does the reticular formation include?
The cell bodies and fibres of many of the serotonergic, noradrenergic, and cholinergic system.
It also contains many of the areas concerned with regulation of heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration.
It plays an important role in determining the level of arousal so is called the ascending reticular activation system
What is the reticular activating system?
A complex polysynaptic pathway arising from the brainstem reticular formation and hypothalamus with projections to the intralaminar and reticular nuclei of the thalamus which, in turn, project diffusely and non-specifically to wide regions of the cortex.
Collaterals funnel into it from the long ascending sensory tracts and the trigeminal, auditory, visual and olfactory systems
Why is the reticular activating system non-specific?
The complexity of the neuron net and the degree of convergence in it abolish modality specificity, and most reticular neurons are activated with equal facility by different sensory stimuli. Therefore the system is non-specific
Are the principal afferent and efferent neural pathways to and from the hypothalamus myelinated or unmyelinated?
Unmyelinated
What are some important connections to and from the hypothalamus?
TO
* Norepinephrine-secreting neurons with their cell bodies in the hindbrain end in different parts of the hypothalamus
* Paraventricular neurons that secrete oxytocin and vasopressin project in turn to the hindbrain and the spinal cord
* Epinephrine-secreting neurons have their cell bodies in the hindbrain and end in the ventral hypothalamus
* Serotonin-secreting neurons project to the hypothalamus from the raphe nuclei
FROM
* An intrahypothalamic system composed of dompine-secreting neurons have their cell bodies in the arcuate nucleus and end on or near the capillaries in the median eminence.
What are the pricipal hypothalamic regulatory mechanisms?
- Temperature regulation
-
Neuroendocrine regulation
* Catecholamines
* Vasopressin
* Oxytocin
* TSH
* ACTH
* FSH and LH
* Prolactin -
Appetitive behaviour
* Thirst
* Hunger
* Sexual behaviour - Defensive reactions - fear and rage
- Control of body rhythms
For temperature regulation, where are the
1) afferents from
2) integrating areas
1) Afferents from temperature receptors in the skin, deep tissues, spinal cord, hypothalamus and other parts of the brain
2) Integrating areas include: Anterior hypothalamus responds to heat. Posterior hypothalamus responds to cold
For catecholamine regulation, where are the
1) afferents from
2) integrating areas
1) Afferents from limbic areas concerned with emotion
2) Integrating areas are dorsal and posterior hypothalamus
For vasopressin regulation, where are the
1) afferents from
2) integrating areas
1) Afferents from osmoreceptors and ‘volume receptors’
2) Integrating areas are supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei
For oxytocin regulation, where are the
1) afferents from
2) integrating areas
1) Afferents from touch receptors in breast, uterus, genitalia
2) Integrating areas are supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei
For TSH regulation, where are the
1) afferents from
2) integrating areas
1) Afferents from temperature receptors in infants and others
2) Integrating areas include paraventricular nuclei and other neighbouring areas
For ACTH regulation, where are the
1) afferents from
2) integrating areas
1) Afferents are from limbic system (emotional stimuli); reticular formation (systemic stimuli); hypothalamic and anterior pituitary cells sensitive to circulating blood cortisol levels; suprachiasmatic nuclei (diurnal rhythm)
2) Integrating areas are paraventricular nuclei
For FSH and LH regulation, where are the
1) afferents from
2) integrating areas
1) Afferents are from hypothalamic cells sensitive to oestrogens, eyes, touch receptors in skin and genitalia of reflex ovulating species
2) Integrating areas are preoptic area and others
For prolactin regulation, where are the
1) afferents from
2) integrating areas
1) Afferents from touch receptors in breasts
2) Integrating areas include arcuate nucleus
For thirst regulation, where are the
1) afferents from
2) integrating areas
1) Afferents are from osmoreceptors and angiotensin II uptake
2) Integrating areas include lateral superior hypothalamus and subfornical organ
For hunger regulation, where are the
1) afferents from
2) integrating areas
1) Afferents from glucostat cells sensitive to rate glucose utilisation; leptin receptors
2) Integrating areas are the ventromedial, arcuate and paravertebral nuclai and the lateral hypothalamus
For sexual behaviour regulation, where are the
1) afferents from
2) integrating areas
1) Afferents from cells sensitive to circulating oestrogen and androgen
2) Integrating areas from anterior ventral hypothalamus plus in the male, piriform cortex
For defense reactions regulation, where are the
1) afferents from
2) integrating areas
1) Afferents from sense organs and neocortex
2) Integrating areas are diffuse, in limbic system and hypothalamus
Where is vasopressin and oxytocin released from?
Posterior pituitary
What are the ascending spinal tracts?
The neural pathways by which sensory information from the peripheral nerves is transmitted to the cerebral cortex.
What sensory modality does the dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway carry?
Fine touch, vibration and proprioception
In the spinal cord it travels in the dorsal column, in the brainstem it is transmitted through the medial lemniscus
There are three types of neuron in the dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway. What are they?
- First order neurons - carry sensory information regarding touch, vibration and proprioception from the peripheral nerves to the medulla oblongata
- Second order neurons begin in the cuneate nucleus or gracilis - they decussate in the medulla oblongata and travel in the contralateral medial lemniscus to reach the thalamus
- Third order neurons transmit the signals from the thalamus to the ipsilateral primary sensory cortex
There are two types of first order neurons in the DCML pathway, what are they?
- Signals from the upper limb (T6 and above) - travel in the fasciculus cuneatus (lateral part of the dorsal column) - they then synapse in the nucleus cuneatus
- Signals from the lower limb (T6 and below) - travel in the fascilulus gracilis (medial part of the dorsal column) - they then synapse in the nucleus gracilis
What are the tracts that make up the anterolateral (or ventrolateral) spinothalamic tracts?
- Anterior spinothalamic tract - crude touch and pressure
- Lateral spinothalamtic tract - pain and temperature
What are the three neurons that make up the anterolateral spinothalamic tract and what are their paths?
- First order neurons arise from sensory receptors in the periphery, enter the spinal cord, ascend 1-2 vertebral levels, and synapse at the tip of the dorsal horn (the substantia gelatinosa)
- Second order neurons then decussate within the spinal cord and split to travel to the thalamus in two different pathways - the anterior and lateral spinothalamic tracts
- Third order neurons carry the signals from the ventral posterolateral nucleus in the thalamus to the ipsilateral primary sensory cortex of the brain
What are the spinocerebellar tracts?
The tracts that carry unconscious proprioceptive.
If there is a lesion in the spinal cord of the dorsal column-medial lamniscus tract, what will the symptoms be?
Loss of proprioception and fine touch on the ipsilateral side as it decussates in the medulla
What is Brown-Sequard syndrome and what are the symptoms?
A hemisection of the spinal cord
DSML pathway - loss of ipsilateral proprioception and find touch
Anterolateral system - contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation
It will also involve the motor tracts, causing a ipsilateral hemiparesis
The descending motor tracts can be functionally split into two groups. What are they and what do they do?
- Pyramidal tracts originate in the cerebral cortex, carrying motor fibres to the spinal cord and brainstem. They are resposible for the voluntary control of the musculature of the body and the face
- Extra-pyramidal tracts originate in the brainstem, carrying motor fibres to the spinal cord. They are responsible for the involuntary and autonomic control of all musculature, such as muscle tone, balance, posture and locomotion
What are upper vs lower motor neurons?
There are no synapses within the descending pathways. At the termination of the descending tracts, the neurons synapse with a lower motor neurone. Thus, all the neurons within the descending tract are called as upper motor neurons. Their cell bodies are found within the cerebral cortex of the brain stem, with their axons remaining in the CNS
What are the two pyramidal tracts?
- Corticospinal tract - supplies the musculature of the body
- Corticobulbar tract - supplies the musculature of the head and neck
Tell me about the journey of the corticospinal tract before it reaches the medulla?
It begins in the cerebral cortex, receiving input from the primary motor cortex, the premotor cortex and the supplementary motor area.
After originating from the cortex, the neurons converge, and descend through the internal capsule, the crus cerebri of the midbrain, the pons and into the medulla
Once the corticospinal tract reaches the medulla, it splits into two branches. What are these and what do they do?
- The lateral corticospinal tract decussates in the medulla, then descends into the spinal cord, terminating at the ventral horn. From the ventral horn, the lower motor neurons go on to supply the muscles of the body
- The medial corticospinal tract remains ipsilateral, descending into the spinal cord. They then decussate and terminate in the ventral horn of the cervical and upper thoracic segmental levels
What is the path of the corticobulbar tract?
The corticobulbar tracts arise from the lateral aspect of the primary motor cortex. They receive the same inputs as the corticospinal tracts. The fibres converge and pass through the internal capsule to the brainstem.
The neurons terminate on the motor nuclei of the cranial nerves. Here, they synapse with lower motor neurons, which carry the signals to the muscles of the face and neck.
Do the corticobulbar tracts innervate the motor neurons ispilaterally, contralaterally or bilaterally?
Bilaterally
Except for upper motor neurons for the facial nerve (CN VII) have contralateral innervation below the eyes and the upper motor neurons for the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) only provide contralateral innervation
What are the extrapyramidal tracts responsible for and what are the four tracts?
They originate in the brainstem, carrying motor fibres to the spinal cord. They are responsible for involuntary and autonomic control of all musculature, such as muscle tone, balance, posture and locomotion.
The four tracts are: vestibulospinal, reticulospinal, rubrospinal and tectospinal
Do all of the four extrapyramidal tracts decussate?
The vestibulospinal and reticulospinal tracts do not decussate, providing ipsilateral innervation.
The rubrospinal and tectospinal tracts decussate, therefore provide contralateral innervation.
Tell me about the vestibulospinal tracts…
How many are there? Where do they come from? What do they control?
There are two vestibulospinal tracts; medial and lateral. They arise from the vestibular nuclei, which receive input from the organs of balance.
The tracts convey this balance information to the spinal cord, where it remains ipsilateral.
Fibres in this pathway control balance and posture by innervating the ‘anti-gravity’ muscles (flexors of the arms, extensors of the legs) via the lower motor neurons
Tell me about the reticulospinal tracts…
How many are there? What are their functions?
There are two:
* The medial reticulospinal tract arises from the pons. It facilitates voluntary movements and increases muscle tone
* The lateral reticulospinal tract arises from the medulla. It inhibits voluntary movements, and reduces muscle tone
What is the path of the rubrospinal tract and what is it’s function?
The rubrospinal tract originates from the red nucleus, a midbrain structure. As the fibres emerge, they decussate and descend into the spinal cord. Thus, they have contralateral innervation.
It’s exact function is unclear, but it is thought to play a role in fine hand movements
What is the pathway of the tectospinal tract and what is it’s function?
The tectospinal tract begins at the superior collilculus of the midbrain. The superior collilculus receives input from the optic nerves. The neurons then quickly decussate and enter the spinal cord. They terminate at the cervical levels of the spinal cord.
It coordinates movements of the head in relation to visual stimuli
If there is a unilateral lesion of the right or left anterior corticospinal tract, symptoms will occur on which side of the body? What would the symptoms be?
Symptoms would occur on the contralateral side of the body.
Symptoms include hypertonia, hyperreflexia, clonus, Babinski’s sign, muscle weakness
What is Babinski’s sign?
Extension of the hallux in response to blunt stimulation of the sole of the foot
A unilateral lesion to the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) will lead to what symptoms in upper motor neuron and lower motor neuron location?
- Upper motor neuron - spastic paralysis of the contralateral genioglossus. Deviation of the tongue to the contralateral side.
- Lower motor neuron - deviation of the tongue towards the damaged side
What is the difference between upper motor neuron and lower motor neuron damage in the facial nerve (CN V)?
- A lesion in the upper motor neuron is forehead sparing
- A lesion in the lower motor neuron includes the forehead
Label the tracts of the spinal cord
Where is the SA and the AV node?
- The SA node is at the junction of the superior vena cava with the right atria
- The AV node is located in the right posterior portion of the interatrial septum.
How many bundles of atrial fibres that contain Purkinje-type fibres and connect the SA and AV node are there? What are they called?
There are three:
* Anterior
* Middle (tract of Wenckebach)
* Posterior (tract of Thorel)
The AV node connects to the Bundle of His. What are the branches of the Bundle of His, where do they come off and where do they go?
- The Bundle of His gives off a left bundle branch at the top of the interventricular septum, and continues as the right bundle branch.
- The left bundle branch divides into an anterior fascicle and a posterior fascicle.
- The branches and fascicles run subendocardially down either side of the septum and come into contact with the Purkinje system, whose fibres spread to all parts of the ventricular myocardium.
What is the histology of Purkinje cells, SA node and AV node?
- Purkinje fibres, specialised conducting cells, are large with fewer mitochondria and striations and distinctly different from a myocyte specialised for contraction.
- Compared with Purkinje fibres, cells within the SA node and, to a lesser extent, the AV nodes are smaller and sparsely striated and are less conductive due to their higher internal resistance.
How does the heart ensure conduction only travels down the Bundle of His rather than directly from the atria to the ventricles?
The atrial muscle fibres are separated from those of the ventricles by a fibrous tissue ring, and normally the only conducting tissue between the atria and the ventricles is the Bundle of His.
Which side vagus nerve stimulates the SA and AV node? Why?
The SA node develops from the structures on the right side of the embryo and the AV node from structures on the left. This is why in the adult the right vagus is distributed mainly to the SA node and the left vagus mainly to the AV node.
Connections exist for reciprocal inhibitory effects of the sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation of the heart on each other. What are they?
Acetylcholine acts presynaptically to reduce noradrenaline release from the sympathetic nerves and conversely, neuropeptide Y released from neuroadrenergic endings may inhibit the release of acetylcholine.
What property allows individual cardiac fibres to spread depolarisation rapidly?
The individual fibres are separated by membranes, but depolarisation spreads rapidly through them as if they were syncytium because of the presence of gap junctions.
What are the stages of the cardiac cycle in terms of repolarisation and ion channels? What happens in each one
- Phase 0 - the transmembrane action potential of single cardiac muscle cells is characterised by rapid depolarisation - rapid influx sodium through open sodium channels
- Phase 1 - an initial rapid repolarisation - inactivation of sodium channels
- Phase 2 - a plateau phase - slow influx of calcium through slower opening calcium channels
- Phase 3 - a slow repolarisation phase - slow potassium efflux
- Phase 4 - return to the resting membrane potential
What is the conduction rate in the following areas of the heart?
* SA node
* atrial pathways
* AV node
* Bundle of His
* Purkinje system
* Ventricular muscle
What is the pre-potential or pacemaker potential of cardiac rhythmically discharging cells?
Rhythmically discharging cells have a membrane potential that after each impulse, declines to the firing level. Thus, this pre-potential triggers the next impulse.
think ion changes and channels
What brings about the pacemaker potentials in rhythmically discharging cells in the heart?
- At the peak of each impulse, Ik begins and brings about repolarisation.
- Ik then declines, and a channel permeable to both sodium and potassium is activated. Because this channel is activated following hyperpolarisation, it is referred to as an ‘h’ channel.
- As Ih increases, the membrane begins to depolarise, forming the first part of the pre-potential.
- Calcium channels then open - the action potentials in the SA and AV node are largely due to calcium, with no contribution of sodium influx.
What are the different types of calcium channels that control the pacemaker potentials in cardiac cells?
There are two types of calcium channels in the heart.
* T (transient) channels - the calcium current (ICa) due to opening of the T channels completes the prepotential.
* L (long-lasting) channels - the calcium current (ICa) due to opening of the L channels produces the impulse
How is the action potential graph of rhythmically discharging cells different from the other parts of the conducting system? and why?
There is no sharp, rapid, depolarising spike before the plataeu, as there is in other parts of the conducting system and in the atrial and ventricular fibres.
In addition, pre-potentials are normally prominent only in the SA or AV nodes, unless the muscle fibres are abnormal or damaged.
What happens to the SA and AV node when the cholinergic vagal fibres to nodal tissues are stimulated?
- The membrane becomes hyperpolarised and the slope of the prepotentials is decreased because the acetylcholine released at the nerve endings increases the K+ conductance of the nodal tissues.
- This action is mediated by M2 muscarinic receptors, which, via the βγ subunit of a G protein, open a special set of K+ channels. The resulting IKAch slows the depolarising effect if Ih.
- In addition, activation of the M2 receptors decreases cAMP in the cells, and this slows the opening of Ca2+ channels.
- The result is a decrease in firing rate.
What happens to the SA and AV node when the sympathetic cardiac nerves are stimulated?
- It speeds the depolarising effect of Ih, and the rate of spontaneous dicharge increases.
- Noradrenaline secreted by the sympathetic endings binds to the β1 receptors and the resulting increase in intracellular cAMP facilitates the opening of the L channels, increasing ICa and the rapidity of the depolarisation phase of the impulse
What is the spread of excitation through the heart?
- Depolarisation initiated in the SA node spreads radially through the atria, then converges on the AV node.
- From the top of the septum, the wave of depolarisation spreads rapidly in the conducting Purkinje fibres to all parts of the ventricles.
- Depolarisation of the the ventricular muscle starts at the left side of the interventricular septum and moves to the right across the mid-portion of the septum
- It then spreads down the septum to the apex of the heart and returns along the ventricular walls to the AV groove, proceeding from the endocardial to epicardial surface
- The last parts of the heart to be depolarised are the posterobasal portion of the left ventricle, the pulmonary conus, and the uppermost part of the septum.
Because conduction of the AV node is slow, there is an AV nodal delay before excitation spreads to the ventricles. How long is this delay?
0.1 seconds
How long does it take for the wave of depolarisation to spread from the top of the septum to all parts of the ventricles through the speedy Purkinje fibres?
0.08 - 0.1 seconds
What are the different types of electrode recordings you can have in an ECG?
The ECG may be recorded by using an active or exploring electrode connected to an indifferent electrode at zero potential (unipolar recording) or by using two active electrodes (bilpolar recording).
What is the Einthoven triangle?
In a volume conductor, the sum of the potentials at the points of an equilateral triangle with a current source in the centre is zero at all times.
A triangle (Einthoven’s), with the heart at the centre can be approximated by placing electrodes on both arms and the left leg. These are the three standard leads of an ECG.
How does depolarisation and repolarisation of each electrode affect an ECG?
Depolarisation moving toward an active electrode in a volume conductor produces a positive deflection, whereas depolarisation moving in the opposite direction produces a negative deflection.
What action creates the following waves in an ECG?
* P wave
* QRS complex
* T wave
* U wave
- P wave - atrial depolarisation
- QRS complex - ventricular depolarisation
- T wave - ventricular repolarisation
- U wave - an inconsistent finding that may be due to ventricular myocytes with long action potentials
What are the bipolar leads of an ECG? What do they represent?
The standard limb leads each measure the differences in potential between two limbs.
* In Lead I, the electrodes are connected so that an upward deflection is inscribed when the left arm becomes positive relative to the right (left arm positive).
* In Lead II, the electrodes are on the right arm and the left leg, with the leg postivity.
* In Lead III, the electrodes are on the left arm and left leg with the leg positive
What are the durations and events that occur during the following intervals in an ECG?
* PR interval
* QRS duration
* QT interval
* ST interval
- PR interval - 0.12-0.20 - AV conduction
- QRS duration - 0.08 - 0.10 - Ventricular depolarisation
- QT interval - 0.40 - 0.43 - Ventricular action potential
- ST interval - 0.32 - plateau portion of the ventricular action potential
What are the unipolar leads of an ECG?
Inclduing what an augmented limb lead is pls
Leads that record the potential difference between an exploring electrode and an indifferent electrode.
* There are six unipolar chest leads V1-V6 and three unipolar limb leads: VR (right arm), VL (left arm) and VF (left foot)
* Augmented limb leads put a before the above things, aVR, aVL and aVF. They are recording between the one, augmented limb and the other two limbs.
Where can unipolar leads be placed apart from the class places
They can be placed at the tips of catheters and inserted into the oesophagus or the heart
What aspects of the heart does aVR look at and therefore what should its normal pattern be?
aVR looks at the cavities of the ventricles and all waves should have negative deflections because all the pathways lead away from it
What aspects of the heart does aVL and aVF look at and therefore what should its normal pattern be?
aVL and aVF look at the ventricles and the deflections are either positive or biphasic because the pathways lead towards them
What aspects of the heart does V1 and V2 look at and therefore what should its normal pattern be?
- V1 and V2 should not have a Q wave and only has a small positive inflection at the start of the QRS, because ventricular depolarisation moves across the septum from left to right toward the exploring electrode.
- The wave of excitation then moves down the septum and into the left ventricle away from the electrode, producing a large S wave.
- Finally, it moves back along the ventricular wall toward the electrode, producing the return to the isoelectric line.
What aspects of the heart does V4-V6 look at and therefore what should its normal pattern be?
In the left ventricular leads, there may be a small Q wave (left to right septal depolarisation) and there is a large R wave (septal and left ventricular depolarisation) followed in V4 and V5 by a moderate S wave (late depolarisation of the ventricular walls moving back towards the AV junction)
What is the cardiac axis?
Because the standard limb leads are records of the potential differences between two points, the deflection in each lead at any instant indicates the magnitude and direction of the electromotive forces generated in the heart in the axis of the lead. This is the cardiac axis.
How can the cardiac axis be calculated from two limb leads?
If it is assumed that the heart lies in the centre of the triangle, an approximate mean QRS vector is often plotted by using the average QRS deflection in each lead.
They can be approximated by measuring the net differences between the positive and negative peaks of the QRS.
What is the normal direction of the mean QRS axis? What is left and right axis deviation?
-30 to +110 degrees is normal.
Left or right axis deviation is said to be present if the axis falls to the left of -30 or to the right of +110
Why does your heart beat faster in inspiration and slower in expiration?
During inspiration, impulses in the vagi from the stretch receptors in the lungs inhibit the cardio-inhibitory area in the medulla oblongata. The tonic vagal discharge that keeps the heart rate slow decreases and the heart rate rises.
What is complete heart block? What are the two areas where there may be disease that causes this?
When conduction from the atria to the ventricles is completely interrupted and the ventricles beat at a slow rate and independently of the atria.
The block may be in the AV node (AV nodal block) or in the conducting system below the node (infranodal block)
What is the average heart rate for patients with 1) AV nodal heart block and 2) Infranodal heart block. Why?
- In patients with AV nodal block, the remaining nodal tissue becomes the pacemaker and the rate of the idioventricular rhythm is approx 45 bpm.
- In patients with infranodal heart block, the ventricular pacemaker is located more peripherally in the conduction system and the ventricular rate is slower, approx 30 bpm but can go down to 15bpm. The resultant cerebral ischaemia causes dizziness and fainting (Stokes-Adams syndrome)
What are the types of incomplete heart block?
- First-degree heart block is where all the atrial impulses reach the ventricles but the PR interval is abnormally long.
- Second-degree heart block is where not all the atrial impulses are conducted to the ventricles.
- Mobitz type 1 is where a ventricular beat may follow every second or third atrial beat (2:1 or 3:1 block)
- Mobitz type 2 - Wenckebach is where there are repeated sequences of beats in which the PR interval lengthens progressively until a ventricular beat is dropped.
What happens in bundle branch block?
Excitation passes normally down the bundle on the intact side and then sweeps back through the muscle to activate the ventricle on the blocked side.
The ventricular rate is therefore normal but the QRS wave looked deformed and prolonged
What are the types of left bundle branch block?
- Block can occur in the anterior or posterior fascicle of the left bundle branch, producing a hemiblock/fascicular block.
- Left anterior hemiblock produces abnormal left axis deviation in the ECG, whereas left posterior hemiblock produces abnormal right axis deviation.
- It is not uncommon to find combinations of fascicular and branch blocks - bifascicular and trifascicular blocks
What is increased automaticity of the heart?
Normally, myocardial cells do not discharge spontaneously, and the possibilty of spontaneous discharge of the His bundle and Purkinje fibres is low because the pacemaker discharge of the SA node is more rapid than their rate of spontaneous discharge.
However, in abnormal conditions, the His-Purkinje fibres or the myocardial fibres may discharge spontaneously.
In these conditions, increased automaticity is said to be present.
What happens if an irritable ectopic focus discharges?
If it discharges once, the result is a beat that occurs before the expected next normal beat and transiently disrupts the cardiac rhythm (atrial, nodal or ventricular extrasystole or premature beat)
If the focus discharges more than repetitively at a rate higher than the that of the SA node, it produces rapid, regular tachycardia (atrial, ventricular, or nodal paroxysmal tachycardia or atrial flutter)
What happens during re-entry pathways?
A defect in conduction that permits a wave of excitation to propagate continuously within a closed circuit.
If the re-entry is in the AV node, the re-entrant activity depolarises the atrium, and the resulting atrial beat is called an echo beat. In addition, the re-entrant activity propogates down to the ventricle, producing paroxysmal nodal tachycardia
What is the atrial rate in atrial flutter? How does it normally happen?
250-300/min
In the most common form, there is a large counterclockwise circus movement in the right atrium.
It is normally associated with at least 2:1 block because the ventricles can’t beat that fast.
What are the consequences of atrial arrhythmias?
In paroxysmal atrial tachycardia and flutter, the ventricular rate may be so high that diastole is too short for adequate filling of ventricles with blood between contractions.
Consequently, cardiac output is reduced and symptoms of heart failure occur.
What changes do you see on an ECG in ventricular arrhythmias?
- Premature beats that originate in an ectopic ventricular focus usually have bizarre shaped prolonged QRS complexes because of the slow spread of the impulse from the focus through the ventricular muscle to the rest of the ventricle.
- They are usually incapable of exciting the bundle of His, and retrograde conduction to the atria therefore does not occur. Meanwhile, the next succeeding normal SA node impulse depolarises the atria. Therefore, the P wave is usually buried in the QRS.
- If the normal impulse reaches the ventricles, they are still in the refractory period.
- However, the second succeeding impulse from the SA node produces a normal beat. Thus, ventricular premature beats are followed by a compensatory pause that is often longer than the pause after an atrial ectopic.
What is Torsades de Pointes?
A form of ventricular tachycardia where the QRS morphology varies
What happens to the electrical activity in the heart in VF?
The ventricular muscles contract in a totally irregular and ineffective way because of the very rapid discharge of multiple ventricular ectopic foci or a circus movement.
What is the vulnerable period for VF?
The vulnerable period coincides in time with the midportion of the T wave; that is, it occurs at a time when some of the ventricular myocardium is depolarised, some is incompletely repolarised and some is completely repolarised.
Why is long QT syndrome important?
An indication of vulnerability of the heart during repolarisation is the fact that in patients in whom the QT interval is prolonged, cardiac repolarisation is irregular and the incidence of ventricular arrhythmias and sudden death increases.
What can cause long QT syndrome? Roughly, how do genetics cause it?
It can be caused by different drugs, electrolyte abnormalities, and myocardial ischaemia.
It can also be genetic, often causing reduced function of the potassium channels by alterations in their structure
What is Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?
It is accelerated AV conduction.
Normally, the only conducting pathway between the atria and the ventricles in the AV node. Individuals with WPW syndrome have an additional aberrant muscular or nodal tissue connection (bundle of Kent) between the atria and ventricles. This conducts quicker than the slowly conducting AV node, and one ventricle is excited early.
What does the ECG look like in WPW?
The manifestations of the Bundle of Kent activation merge with the normal QRS pattern, producing a short PR interval and a prolonged QRS deflection slurred on the upstroke, with a normal interval between the start of the P wave and the end of the QRS complex.
Why do the paroxysmal atrial tachycardias happen in WPW?
They often follow an atrial premature beat.
This beat conducts normally down the AV node but spreads to the ventricular end of the aberrant bundle, and the impulse is transmitted retrograde to the atrium, forming a circus movement
What are the genetic changes that cause WPW?
There is a mutation in a gene that codes for AMP-activated protein kinase
What is Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome?
Individuals with short PR intervals and normal QRS complexes.
In this condition, depolarisation presumably passes from the atria to the ventricles via an aberrant bundle that bypasses the AV node but enters the intraventricular conducting system distal to the node.
What happens in the cardiac cycle in terms of filling, volume and pressure?
- Atrial systole
- Isovolumetric ventricular contraction
- Ventricular ejection
- Isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
- Ventricular filling
What happens late in diastole during ventricular filling?
The mitral and tricuspid valves are open and the aortic and pulmonary valves are closed.
Blood flows into the heart throughout diastole, filling the atria and ventricles. The rate of the filling decreases as the ventricles become distended and, especially when the heart rate is low, the cusps of the AV valve drift toward the closed position.
The pressure in the ventricles remains low.
How much of the ventricular filling occurs during diastole?
Around 70%
What happens during atrial systole?
- Contraction of the atria propels some additional blood into the ventricles
- Contraction of the atrial muscle narrows the orifices of the superior and inferior vena cava and pulmonary veins, and the inertia of the blood moving towards the heart tends to keep blood in it. However, despite these inhibitory influences, there is some regurgitation of blood into the veins.
What happens during isovolumetric ventricular contraction?
- The AV valves close.
- Ventricular muscle initially shortens relatively little, but intra-ventricular pressure rises sharply as the myocardium presses on the blood in the ventricle.
- During isovolumetric contraction, the AV valves bulge into the atria, causing a small but sharp rise in atrial pressure.
- The end of isovolumetric ventricular contracion is when he pressure in the ventricles excees the pressure in the aorta and pulmonary artery and the aortic and pulmonary valves open.
What happens during ventricular ejection?
- Ejection is rapid at first, slowing down as systole progresses.
- The intraventricular pressure rises to a maximum and then declines somewhat before ventricular systole ends.
- Late in systole, pressure in the aorta actually exceeds that in the left ventricle, but for a short period momentum keeps the blood flowing forward.
- The AV valves are pulled down by the contractions of the ventricular muscle, and atrial pressure drops.
How long does isovolumetric ventricular contraction last for?
0.05 seconds
What are the pressures in the aorta and pulmonary veins?
What are the peak pressures in the left and right ventricles?
Aorta - 80mmHg, 10.6kPa
Pulmonary artery - 10mmHg
Left ventricle - 120mmHg
Right ventricle - 25mmHg
What is the volume of blood ejected by each ventricle per stroke at rest?
What is the end-diastolic ventricular volume and therefore the end-systolic ventricular volume.
Volume of blood ejected - 70-90mL
End-diastolic ventricular volume - 130mL
End-systolic ventricular volume - 50ml
What is the ejection fraction?
The percentage of the end-diastolic ventricular volume that is ejected with each stroke, approx 65%
What happens during protodiastole? How long does it last?
- Once the ventricular muscle is fully contracted, the already falling ventricular pressures drop more rapidly.
- It lasts for about 0.04 seconds
- It ends when the momentum of the ejected blood is overcome and the aortic and pulmonary valves close, setting up transient vibrations in the blood and blood vessel walls.
What happens during isovolumetric ventricular relaxation?
After the aortic and pulmonary valves close, pressure continues to drop rapidly during the period of isovolumetric volumetric relaxation.
Isovolumetric relaxation ends when the ventricular pressure falls below the atrial pressure and the AV valves open, permitting the ventricles to fill.
Which side of the heart contracts first?
Although events on two sides of the heart are similar, they are somewhat asynchronous. Right atrial systole precedes left atrial systole, and contraction of the right ventricle starts after that of the left.
However, since the pulmonary artery pressure is lower than aortic pressure, right ventricular ejection begins before that of the left.
How does inspiration and expiration affect the timing of the valve closures?
During expiration, the pulmonary and aortic valves close at the same time; but during inspiration, the aortic valve closes slightly before the pulmonary valve.
The slower closure of the pulmonary valve is due to lower impedence of the pulmonary vascular tree.
How does the length of systole and diastole change during tachycardia?
The duration of systole can decrease from 0.27 seconds at 65bpm to 0.16 seconds at 200 bpm.
However, the duration of systole is much more fixed than diastole, and when the heart rate is increased, diastole is shortened to a much greater degree.
The duration of diastole can decrease from 0.62 seconds and 65bpm to 0.14 seconds at 200bpm
Why is the length of diastole important?
It is during diastole that coronary blood flow to the subendocardial portions of the left ventricle occurs and this is when most of the ventricular filling occurs.
What is the total electromechanical systole (QS2)?
It is the period from the onset of the QRS complex to the closure of the aortic valves, as determined by the second heart sound.
What is the left ventricular ejection time (LVET)?
The period from the beginning of the carotid pressure rise to the dicrotic notch (a small oscillation of the falling phase of the pulse wave caused by vibrations set up when the aortic valve snaps shut, is visible if the pressure wave is recorded but is not palpable at the rest.)
What is the preejection period (PEP)?
PEP is the difference between QS2 and LVET and represents the time for the electrical as well as the mechanical events that precede systolic ejection.
In young adults, what speed does the pulse wave travel through:
* the aorta
* the large arteries
* small arteries
- Aorta - 4m/s
- Large arteries - 8m/s
- Small arteries - 16m/s
What is the Corrigan or water-hammer pulse a sign of? Why does it happen?
When the aortic valve is incompetent (aortic regurgitation), the pulse is particularly strong, and the force of systolic ejection may be sufficient to make the head nod with each heartbeat.
What happens from points a-d in this normal pressure-volume loop of the left ventricle?
- During diastole, the ventricle fills and pressure increases from d to a
- Pressure then rises sharply from a to b during isovolumetric contraction and from b to c during ventricular ejection
- At c, the aortic valves close and pressure falls during isovolumetric relaxation from c back to d.
In recording of jugular pressure, what is the a wave, c wave and v wave?
- The a wave is due to atrial systole - some blood regurgitates back into the great veins and the resultant rise in JVP contributes to the a wave
- The c wave is the transmitted manifestation of the rise in atrial pressure produced by the bulging of the tricuspid valve into the atria during isovolumetric contraction
- The v wave mirrors the rise in atrial pressure before the tricuspid valve opens during diastole
What happens to the JVP during inspiration?
Venous pressure falls during inspiration as a result of the increased negative intrathoracic pressure and rises again during expiration.
What causes the first, second, third and fourth(!) heart sound?
- The first sound is caused by vibrations set up by the sudden closure of the AV valves at the start of ventricular systole
- The second sound is caused by vibrations associated with the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves just after the end of ventricular systole.
- The third sound coincides with the period of rapid ventricular filling and is probably due to vibrations set up by the inrush of the blood - occurs in about 1/3 of young people through diastole.
- A fourth sound can sometimes be heard immediately before the first sound when atrial pressure is high or the ventricle is stiff in conditions such as ventricular hypertrophy. It is due to ventricular fillings and is largely pathological.
What is the length and frequency of the first, second and third heart sounds?
- First sound - duration 0.15 seconds, 25-45Hz - it is soft in bradycardia
- Second sound - duration 0.12 seconds, 50Hz - it is loud and sharp when the diastolic pressure in the aorta or pulmonary artery is elevated
- Third sound - when present duration 0.1 seconds
When would you hear a murmur in aortic stenosis or pulmonary regurgitation?
Systolic murmurs occur in aortic stenosis and pulmonary regurgitation
When would you hear a murmur in aortic regurgitation or pulmonary stenosis?
During diastole
How do you calculate flow? How is this related to the vascular system and the effective perfusion pressure?
Flow = Pressure/Resistance
Therefore, flow in any portion of the vascular system is therefore equal to the effective perfusion pressure/resistance.
What is the effective perfusion pressure?
The mean intraluminal pressure at the arterial end minus the mean pressure at the venous end
What are the units of resistance?
Pressure/flow = dyne.s/cm^5.
To avoid dealing with such complex units, resistance in the CVS is sometimes expressed in R unit, which are obtained by dividing pressure in mmHg by flow in mL/s
For exampled, when the mean aortic pressure is 90mmHg and the left ventricular output is 90mL/s, the total peripheral resistance is 1 R unit.
How can you measure blood flow?
Usually with Doppler flow meters
What is laminar blood flow?
The flow of blood in straight blood vessels, is normally laminar. Within the blood vessels, an infinitely thin layer of blood in contact with the wall of the vessel does not move.
The next layer within the vessel has a low velocity, the next a higher velocity and so forth, velocity being greatest in the centre of the stream. Laminar flow occurs at velocities up to a certain critical velocity. At or above this velocity, blood flow is turbulent
What is Reynold’s number?
The probability of turbulent blood flow is related to velocity of blood flow but also the diameter of the vessel and the viscosity of the blood. This probability can be expressed by the ratio of inertial to viscous forces as follows:
Re = pDV/n.
p is the Density of the fluid; D is the diameter of the tube; V is the velocity of the flow and n is the viscosity of the fluid
Above what Reynolds number is blood flow usually turbulent?
Flow is usually not turbulent if Re is less than 2000.
When Re is more than 3000, turbulence is almost always present
What is the difference between velocity and flow? and what is their relationship between each other and the area of a conduit?
Velocity is displacement per unit time
Flow is volume per unit time
Velocity (V) is proportional to flow (Q) divided by the area of the conduit (A).
Therefore Q = A x V so if flow stays constant then velocity increases in direct proportion to any decrease in A.
The average velocity of fluid movement at any point in a system of tubes in parallel is inversely proportional to the total cross-sectional area at that point.
What is the Poiseuille-Hagen Formula?
The relationship between the flow in a long narrow tube, the viscosity of the fluid and the radius of the tube is expressed mathematically in the Poiseuille-Hagen formula:
How does flow vary with the radius of a vessel? How does the radius need to change to double flow
Flow varies directly with the fourth power of the radius.
Flow through a vessel is doubled by an increase of only 19% in it’s radius
How does resistance vary with resistance? What happens to the resistance when the radius is doubled?
Resistance is inversely proportional with the fourth power of the radius.
When the radius is doubled, resistance is reduced to 6% of its previous value
How does the viscosity of plasma and whole blood compare to water?
Plasma is about 1.8 times as viscous as water, whereas whole blood is 3-4 times as viscous as water.
Thus, viscosity depends for the most part on the haematocrit
What is the Fahraeus-Lindqvist effect?
In large vessels, increases in haematocrit causes appreciable increases in viscosity. However, in vessels smaller than 100μm in diameter the viscosity change per unit change in haematocrit is muss less than it is in large-bore vessels. This is due to a difference in the nature of flow though the small vessels, known as the Fahraeus-Lindqvist effect.
Why does the Fahraeus-Lindqvist effect work?
In small vessels, erythrocytes move to the center of the vessel, leaving cell-free plasma at the vessel wall.
Therefore, the net change in viscosity per unit change in haematocrit is considerably smaller in the body than it is in vitro. This is why haematocrit changes have relatively little effect on the peripheral resistance except when the changes are large.
What is the critical closing pressure?
When the pressure in a small blood vessel is reduced, a point is reached at which no blood flows, even though the pressure is not zero, the intralumincal pressure falls below the pressure exerted by neighbouring tissues.
The pressure at which flow ceases if called the critical closing pressure.
What is Laplace’s Law?
The law states than tension in the wall of a cylinder (T) is equal to the product of the transmural pressure (P) and the radius (r) divided by the wall thickness (w)
How does Laplace’s law effect blood vessels?
In a cylinder such as a blood vessel, one radius is infinite to P = T/r.
Consequently, the smaller the radius of a blood vessel, the lower the tension in the wall necessary to balance the distending pressure.
How is Laplace’s law linked with aneurysms and dilated cardiomyopathy?
Aneuryms - the increased radius means at the same pressure there will be a higher tension and more stress therefore a higher risk of perforation
Dilated cardiomyopathy - the increased radius of the cardiac chamber means a greater tension must be develpoed in the myocardium to produce any given pressure
Why are veins capitance vessels?
A large amount of blood can be added to the venous sytem before the veins become distended to the point where further increments in volume produce a large rise in venous pressure
What is autoregulation?
The capacity of tissues to regular their own blood flow is referred to as autoregulation
At rest, what percentage of the circulating blood volume is in:
* the systemic veins
* the heart cavities
* low-pressure pulmonary circulation
* the aorta
* the arteries
* arterioles
* capillaries
Systemic veins - 50%
Heart cavities - 12%
Low pressure pulmonary circulation - 18%
Aorta - 2%
Arteries - 8%
Arterioles - 1%
Capillaries - 5%
What is the myogenic theory of autoregulation?
The intrinsic contractile response of smooth muscle to stretch. As the pressure rises, the blood vesses are distended and the vascular smooth muscle fibers that surround the vessels contract.
Possibly, the muscle could response to the tension in the vessel wall, so as the pressure increased, the radius would need to decrease in order to keep the same tension
What is the metabolic theory of autoregulation?
Vasodilator substances tend to accumulate in active tissues, and these ‘metabolites’ also contribute to autoregulation.
When blood flow decreases, they accumulate and the vessels dilate; when blood flow increases, they tend to be washed away
What are the metabolic changes that produce vasodilation?
In most tissues, decreases in O2 tension and pH.
These changes cause relaxation of the arterioles and precapillary sphincters
How does a fall in O2 tension produce vasodilation?
It can initiate a program of vasodilatory gene expression secondary to production of hypoxia-inducible factor-1α (HIF-1α), a transcription factor with multiple targets
How do increases in temperature dilate the vessels?
It exerts a direct vasodilator effect, and the temperature rise in active tissues (due to the heat of metabolism) may contribute to vasodilation
How does hyperkalaemia cuase vasodilation?
It accumulates locally, and has demonstrated dilator activity secondary to the hyperpolarisation of vascular smoot muscle cells.
How is NO synthesised?
From argnine in a reaction catalysed by nitric oxide synthase (NOS)
What are the three isoforms of NO synthase (NOS) and where are they found?
NOS 1 in the nervous system
NOS 2 in macrophages and other immune cells
NOS 3 found in endothelial cells
What activates NOS 1, NOS 2 and NOS 3?
NOS 1 and NOS 3 are activated by agents that increase intracellular calcium concentrations, including the vasodilators acetylcholine and bradykinin.
NOS 2 is not activated by calcium but is induced by cytokines
What local factors act independently and dependently on the epithelium to cause vasodilation?
Independently
* Adenosine
* ANP
* Histamine via H2 receptors
Act on endothelium
* Acetylcholine
* Histamine via H1 receptors
* Bradykini
* Vasoative intestinal peptide (VIP)
* Substance P
What causes the release of NO for physiological vasodilation?
- When flow to a tissue is suddenly increased by arteriolar dilation, the large arteries to the tissue also dilate. The flow-induced dilation is due to local release of NO.
- Products of platelet aggregation also cause release of NO, and the resulting vasodilation helps keep bloods with an intact endothelium patent.
What is the function of Endothelin-1?
It is a potent vasoconstrictor.
What are the two related kinins and how are they related?
Kallidin can be converted to bradykinin by aminopeptidase.
How are both kinins metabolised and inactivated?
Both peptides are metabolised to forms that are active at the type 1 bradykinin receptor by kininase 1, a carboxypeptidase that removed the carboxyl terminal arginine (Arg).
In addition, the dipeptidycarboxypeptidase kininase II inactivates bradykinin and kallidin by removing from (Phe-Arg) from the carboxyl termal.
Kininase II is the same enzyme as angiotensin-converting enzyme
What precursor proteins are the kinins formed from? Which proteases cause this happen?
- Proteases called kallikreins release the kinins from their precursors - high-molecular-weight-kininogen and low-molecular-weight-kininogen
- Plasma kallikrien, circulates in an inactive form that, when activated by active factor XII in the clotting cascade, acts on HMW-kininogen to form bradykinin
- Tissue kallikrien forms bradykinin from HMW-kininogen and kallidin from LMW-kininogen
- HMW-kininogen and activated plasma kallikrien activate factor XII in a positive feedback loop, which is kept in check by the C1-esterase inhibitor (C1INH)
Where are the baroreceptors that monitor the arterial circulation?
The carotid sinus and the adventitia of the aortic arch
What and where is the carotid sinus?
It is a small dilatation of the internal carotid artery just above the bifurcation of the common carotid into external and internal carotid branches
Where do the afferent nerve fibers from the carotid sinus and the aortic arch go?
- The afferent nerve fibres from the carotid sinus form a distinct branch of the glossopharangeal nerve, the carotid sinus nerve.
- The afferent nerve fibres from the aortic arch form a branch of the vagus nerve, the aortic depressor nerve
What stimulates baroreceptors and what is the path of the nerves once they’re stimulated?
They are stimulated by distention of the structures in which they are located, and so they discharge at an increased rate when the pressure rises.
* Their afferent fibres pass via the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves to the medulla.
* Most of them end in the nucleus of the tractus solitarius (NTS).
* The excitatory transmitter they secrete is glutamate.
* Excitatory (glutamate) projections extend from the NTS to teh caudal ventrolateral medulla (CVLM), where they stimulate GABA-secreting inhibitory neurons that project to the RVLM.
* Excitatory projections also extend from the NTS to the vagal motor neurons in the nucleus anbiguus and dorsal motor nucleus.
At normal BP levels, how does baroreceptor firing change during systole and diastole?
During systole, a burst of action potentials appear in a single baroreceptor fibre
There are few action potentials in early diastole
How does baroreceptor firing change at lower blood pressures?
The overall firing rate is considerably reduced.
What is the threshold for eliciting baroreceptor activity in the carotid sinus nerve? At what pressure does maximal activity of baroreceptors occur?
The threshold for eliciting activity in the carotid sinus nerve is approx 50mmHg
Maximal activity occurs at approximately 200mmHg
What happens to the blood pressure and baroreceptors during a Valsalva maneuvre?
- The blood pressure rises at the onset of straining because the increase in intrathoracic pressure is added to the pressure of the blood in the aorta.
- It then falls because the high intrathoracic pressure compresses the veins, decreasing venous return and cardiac output.
- The decreases in arterial pressure and pulse pressure inhibit the baroreceptors, causing tachycardia and a rise in peripheral resistance.
- When the glottis is opened and the intrathoracic pressure returns to normal, cardiac output is restored but the peripheral vessels are constricted.
- The blood pressure therefore rises above normal, and this stimulates the baroreceptors, causing bradycardia and a drop in pressure to normal levels.
What is renin? What is it’s action?
An acid protease secreted by the kidney into the bloodstream.
The enzyme acts in concert with ACE to form angiotenin II
What increases the circulating angiotensinogen level?
Glucocorticoids
Thyroid hormones
Oestrogens
Several cytokines
Angiotensin II
What is angiotensin converting enzyme and what does it do?
- It is a dipeptidyl carboxypeptidase that splits off histidyl-leucine from the physiologically inactive angiotensin I, forming the octapeptide angiotensin II.
- It also inactivates bradykinin, with kinins causing the cough associated with ACE-inhibitors
Where is ACE found and where does the conversion from angiotensin I to angiotensin II take place?
- Most of the ICE in the circulation is located in endothelial cells.
- Much of the conversion occurs as the blood passes through the lungs, but conversion also occurs in many other parts of the body.
What is the function of angiotensin I?
It appears only to function solely as the precursor of angiotensin II and does not have any other established action
The renin in the kidney extracts and the bloodstream is produced by what cells? Where are they? and where is renin found inside them?
- The renin in kidney extracts and the bloodstream is produced by the juxtaglomerular cells.
- These epitheliod cells are located in the media of the afferent arterioles as they enter the glomeruli.
- The membrane-lined secretory granules in them have been shown to contain renin.
- Renin is also found in agranular lacis cells that are located in the junction between the afferent and efferent arteriooles
Where is the macula densa in the kidney? What is it and what does it mark?
At the point where the afferent arteriole enters the glomerulus and the efferent arteriole leaves it, the tubule of the nephron touches the arterioles of the glomerulus from which it arose. At this location which marks the start of the distal convolution, is called teh macula densa
What constitutes the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
The lacis cells, the JG cells and the macula densa consistute the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
What is the Fick’s principle in relation to cardiac output? How can we use it to work out the output?
The amount of a substance taken up by an organ per unit of time is equal to the arterial level of the substance minus the venous level times the blood flow.
Arterial O2 content can be measured at any point because it has the same content in all parts of the body. A sample of venous blood in the pulmonary artery is obtained by means of a cardiac catheter
How can the indicator dilution technique be used to measure cardiac output?
A known amount of a substance such as a dye, or a radioactive isotope is injected into an arm vein and the concentration of the indicator in serial samples of arterial blood is determined.
The output of the heart is equal to the amount of indicator injected divided by its average concentration in arterial blood after a single circulation through the heart.
Predictably, changes in cardiac output that are called for by physiologic condition can be produced by changes in cardiac rate, or stroke volume, or both. What are these things primarily controlled by?
- The cardiac rate is controlled primarily by the autonomic nerves, with sympathetic stimulation increasing it and parasympathetic stimulation decreasing it.
- Stroke volume is also determined in part by neural input, with sympathietic stimuli making the myocardial muscle fibres contract with greater strength and parasympathetic stimuli having the opposite effect, with more and less blood being pumped respectively.
The force of contraction of cardiac muscles depends on its preloading and afterloading. Explain why?
- The initial phase of the contraction is isometric; the elastic component in series with the contractile element is stretched, and tension increases until it is sufficient to life the load.
- The tension at which the load is lifted is the afterload.
- The muscle then contracts isotonically without developing further tension.
- In vivo, the preload is the degree to which the myocardium is stretched before it contracts and the afterload is the resistance against which blood is expelled
The length-tension relationship in cardiac muscle is similar to that in skeletal muscle. What is this?
When the muscle is stretched, the developed tension increases to a maximum and then declines as stretch becomes more extreme. For the heart, the length of the muscle fibres (extent of the preload) is proportional to the end-diastolic volume.
What is Starling’s law of the heart and the Frank-Starling curve?
‘The energy of contraction is proportional to the initial length of the cardiac muscle fiber.’
The relation between ventricular stroke volume and end-diastolic volume is called the Frank-Starling curve
How does the Frank-Straling curve shift when the sympathetic nerves to the heart are stimulated?
Upwards and to the left
The principal arterial inflow to the brain is via four arteries. What are they?
Two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries.
The two vertebral arteries unite to form what?
The basilar artery
What arteries form the circle of Willis? Where is it?
The basilar artery and the carotids form the circle of Willis below the hypothalamus
Where are the endfeet of astrocytes and what do they do?
The brain capillaries are surrounded by the endfeet of astrocytes.
These endfeet are closely applied to the basal lamina of the capillaries, but they do not cover the entire capillay wall, and gaps of about 20nm occur between endfeet.
Thowever, the endfeet induce the tight junctions in the capillaries
How are CSF pressure and absorption related?
What are some important pressures to remember and why?
- Up to pressures well above 70-180 mm H2O, the rate of CSF formation is independent of intraventricular pressure
- Absorption is proportional to the pressure.
- At a pressure of 112 H2O (which is the average normal CSF pressure), filtration and absorption are equal
- Below a pressure of approx 68 mm H2O, absorption stops.
What makes up the blood-brain barrier?
The tight junctions between the capillary endothelial cells in the brain and between the epithelial cells in the choroid plexus effectively prevent proteins from entering the brain and slow the penetration of some smaller molecules.
This uniquely limited exchange of substances into the brain is referred to as the blood-brain barrier, which also referrs to the barrier in the choroid epithelium between blood and CSF
Glucose is the major ultimate source of energy for nerve cells. How does it cross the blood-brain barrier?
Its diffusion across the blood-brain barrier would be very slowly, but the rate of transport into the CSF is markedly enhanced by the presence of specific transporters, including the glucose transporter 1 (GLUT1)
What four small areas in or near the brainstem are outside the blood brain barrier? What are there referred to collectively?
1) The posterior pituitary and the adjacent ventral part of the median eminence of the hypothalamus
2) The area postrema
3) The organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis (OVLT, supraoptic crest
4) The subfornical organ
They are collectively referred to as the circumventricular organs
What does Kety’s method measure? How? and what principle does it use?
According to Fick’s principle, the blood flow of any organ can be measured by determining the amount of a given substant (Q) removed from the bloodstream by the organ by unit of time and dividing that value by the difference between the concentration of the substance in arterial blood and the concentration in the venous blood.
This can be applied clinically using inhaled nitrous oxide (Kety method)
What are the factors involved in regulating overall cerebral circulation?
- ICP
- Local constriction and dilation of cerebral arterioles
- Mean arterial pressure at brain level
- Viscosity of blood
- Mean venous pressure at brain level
In the brain, autoregulation maintains a normal cerebral blood at what arterial pressures?
65-140 mm Hg
What is the role of vasomotor and sensory nerves in the innervation of large cerebral blood bessles?
- Noradrenergic discharge occurs when the blood pressure is markedly elevated. This reduces the resultant passive increase in blood flow and helps protects the blood-brain barrier. Thus, vasomotor discharges affect autoregulation
- With sympathetic stimulation, the constant-flow, or plateau, part of the pressure-flow curve is extended to the right; that is, greater increases of pressure can occur without an increase in flow.
- On the other hand, the vasodialter hydralazine and the ACE inhibitor captopril reduce the length of the plateau
Where do the two coronary arteries supplying the myocardium arise from?
From the sinuses behind two of the cusps of the aortic valve at the root of the aorta.
Where does most of the coronary venous blood return to the heart?
- Through the coronary sinus and anterior cardiac veins.
- In addition, there are other vessels that empty directly into the heart chambers. There include arteriosinusoidal vessles, sinusoidal capillary-like vessels that connect to the chambers; thesbian veins that connect capillaries to the chambers; and a few arterioluminal vessels that are small arteries draining directly into the chambers
When does blood flow occur in the arteries supplying the subendocardial portion of the left ventricle and why?
- The pressure inside the left ventricle is slightly high than in the aorta during systole.
- Consequently, flow occurs in the arteries supplying the subendocardial portion of the left ventricle only during diastole, although the force is suffieciently dissipated in the more superficial portions of the left ventricular myocardium to permit some flow in this region throughout the cardiac cycle.
How is coronary flow in the right ventricle and both atria effected by systole and why?
The pressure differntial between the aorta and the right ventricle, and the differential between the aorta and the atria, are somewhat greater during systole than during diatsole. Consequently, coronary flow in these parts of the heart is not appreciable reduced during systole
What is the pressure in the aorta, left ventricle and right ventricle during systole and diastole?
What causes the triple reaction in skin?
- It is an axon reflex, a response in which impulses initiated in sensory nerves by the injury are relayed antidromically down other branches of the sensory nerve fibres.
- The transmitter released at the central termination of the sensory C fiber neurons is substance P, and substance P and CGRP are present in all parts of the neurons.
- Both dilate arterioles and, in addition, substance P causes extravasation of fluid
What is used to measure the effective renal plasma flow? How does this happen? What is its usual value?
- RPF can be measured by infusing p-aminohippuric acid (PAH) and determing its urina and plasma concentrations.
- PAH is filtered by the glomeruli and secreted by the tubular cells, so that its extraction ratio (arterial concentration minus renal venous concentration divided by arterial concentration) is high.
- It has therefore become commonplace to calcular the ‘RPF’ by dividing the amount of PAH in the urine by the plasma PAH level.
- Peripheral venous plasma can be used because its PAH concentration is essentially identical to that in the arterial plasma reaching the kidney.
- The value obtained should be called the effective renal plasma flow.
- ERPF averages about 652mL/min.
From the renal plasma flow, how can you calculate the renal blood flow?
Renal blood flow is the renal plasma flow divided by 1 minus the haematocrit
How does renal blood flow stay relatively constnant?
When the kidney is perfused at moderate pressures, the renal vascular resistance varies with the pressure so that renal blood flow is relatively constant
How does Hb get oxygenated? How quickly does it happen?
- Heme is a porphyrin ring complex that includes one atom of ferrous iron. Each of the four iron atoms in Hb can reversibly bind one O2 molecules.
- The iron stays in the ferrous state, so that the reaction is oxygenation.
- The reaction is rapid, requiring less than 0.01 seconds.
What does the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve show?
- It relates percentage saturation of the O2 carrying power of haemoglobin (abbreviated as SaO2) to the PO2.
- This curve has a characteristic sigmoid shape due to the T-R configuration interconversion.
- Combination of the first heme in the Hb molecule with O2 increases the affinity of the second heme for O2, and oxygenation of the second increases the affinity of the third etc.
- Especially note that small changes at low PO2 lead to large changes in SaO2.
How is the dissolved O2 concentration related to the PO2 and the oxygen saturation? What are the values at 100% O2. How does it change?
- When blood is equilibrated with 100% O2, the normal haemoglobin becomes 100% saturated. When fully saturated, each gram of normal haemoglobin contains 1.39mL of O2.
- However, blood normally contains small quantites of inactivate haemoglobin, and the measured value is slightly lower.
- Using the traditional estimate of saturated Hb in vivo, 1.34mL of O2, the Hb concentration in normal blood is about 15g/dL. Therefore 1dL of blood contains 20.1mL (1.34mL x 15) of O2 bound to Hb when the Hb is 100% saturated.
- The amount of dissolved O2 is a linear function of the PO2. - 0.0003mL/dL blood/ mmHgPO2
How saturated is the Hb is systemic arterial blood? How much oxygen does it carry? How much is bound to Hb?
- Systemic arterial blood - 97% saturated
- 19.8mL of O2 per dL: 0.29mL in solution and 19.5mL bound to Hb.
How saturated is the Hb is systemic venous blood? How much oxygen does it carry? How much is bound to Hb?
- Hb is 75% saturated
- Total O2 content is about 15.2 mL/dL: 0.12mL in solution and 15.1mL bound to Hb
Three important conditions affect the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve. What are they and how do they affect it?
- The pH, temperature and the concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (DPG; 2,3-DPG).
- A rise in temperature or a fall in pH shifts the curve to the right. When the curve is shifted in this direction, a higher PO2 is required for Hb to bind a given amount of O2.
- Conversely, a fall in temperature or a rise in pH shifts the curve to the left, and a lower PO2 is required to bind a given amount of O2.
What is the P50 of the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve?
- A convenient index for comparison of shifts of the curve is P50.
- The PO2 at which Hb is half-saturated with O2.
- The higher the P50, the lower the affinity of Hb for O2.
What is 2,3-DPG? How is it formed? How does it effect oxygen?
- It is formed from 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde, which is a product of glycolysis via the Embden-Meyerhof pathway
- It is a highly charged anion that bind to the β changes of deoxyhaemoglobin.
- One mole of deoxyhaemoglobin binds 1 mol of 2,3-DPG.
- In this equilibrium, an increase in the concentration of 2,3-DPG shifts the reaction to the right, causing more O2 to be liberated.
The conducting airway is made up of a variety of specialised cells that provid more than simply a conduit for air to reach the lung. What are they?
- The mucosal epithelium is attached to a thin basement membrane, and beneath this, the lamina propria. Collectively, these are referred to as the “airway mucosa”
- Smooth muscle cells are found beneath the epithelium and an enveloping connective tissue is likewise interspersed with cartilage that is more predominant in the portions of the conducting airway of greater caliber.
How do type II alveolar cells produce surfactant?
- Typical lamellar bodies, membrane-bound organelles containing whorls of phospholipid, are formed in these cells and secreted into the alveolar lumen by exocytosis.
- Tubes of lipid called tubular myelin form from the extruded bodies, and the tubular myelin in turn forms a phospolipid film
- Following secretion, the phospholipids of surfactant line up in the alevoli with their hydrophobic fatty acid tails facing the alveolar lumen.
The alveoli are surrounded by pulmonary capillaries. What separates the air and the blood?
In most area, air and blood are separated only by the alveolar and the capillary endothelium, so they are about 0.5μm apart.
What is the purpose of the pleural cavity?
The pleural cavity and its infoldings serve as a lubricating fluid/area that allows for lung movement within the thoracic cavity
How does the intrapleural pressure relate to atmospheric pressure? How does this help with breathing?
It is subatmospheric.
* The lungs are stretched when they expand at birth, at the end of quiet expiration their tendency to recoil from the chest wall is just balances by the tendency of the chest wall to recoil in the opposite direction.
* If the chest wall is opened, the lungs collapse; and if the lungs lose their elasticicty, the chest expands and becomes barrel-shaped
Is inspiration an active or passive process? How does it happen? What are the pressures?
- It is an active process.
- The contraction of the inspiratory muscles increases intrathoracic volume.
- The intrapleural pressure at the base of the lungs, which is normally about -2.5mmHg at the start of inspiration, decreases to about -6mmHg.
- The lungs are pulled into a more expanded position. The pressure in the airway becomes slightly negative, and air flows into the lungs.
At the end of inspiration, what happens to teh lungs and the pressure? Passive or active?
- At the end of inspiration, the lung recoil begins to pull the chest back to the expiratory position, where the recoil rpessures of the lungs and chets wall balance.
- The pressure in the airway becomes slightly positive, and air flows out of the lungs.
- Expiration during quiet breathing is passive. However, some contraction of the inspiratory muscles occurs in the early part of expiration. This contraction exerts a braking action on the recoil forces and slows expiration.
What is the tidal volume? What is its typical value?
Tidal volume - the amount of air that moves into the ungs with each inspiration (or the amount that moves out with each expiration) during quiet breathing
Typical values for TV are on the order of 500-750mL
What is the inspiratory reserve volume? What is its typical values?
The air inspired with a maximal inspiratory effect in excess of the TV is the inspiratory reserve volume.
Typically around 2L
What is the expiratory reserve volume? Typical values?
The volume expelled by an active expiratory effort after passive expiration is the expiratory reserve volume - around 1L
What is the residual volume? Typical value?
The air left in the lungs after a maximal expiratory effort if the residual volume
Typical value around 1.3L
What is the total lung capacity? Typical value?
The inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume + residual volume
Typical value around 5L
What is the vital lung capacity? Typical value?
It refers to the macimum amount of air expired from the fully inflated lung, or maximum inspiratory level.
TV + IRV + ERV
Typically around 3.5L
What is the inspiratory capacity? Typical value?
The maximum amount of air inspired from the end-expiratory level (IRV + TV).
Typically around 2.5L
What is the functional residual capacity? Typical value
The volume of air remaining after expiration of a normal breath (RV + ERV)
Typically around 2.5L
What is the forced vital capacity?
The largest amount of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiratory effort. It is frequently measured clinically as an index of pulmonary function
What is the FEV1?
The fraction of the viral capacity expired during the first second of forced expiration
How is the FEV1/FVC ratio used clinically?
To classify the type of airway disease.
* Patients with obstructive or restrictive diseases can have reduced FVC.
* Patients with obstructive disease tend to show a slow, steady slope to the FVC, resulting in a small FEV1
* Patients with restrictive disease tnd to be fast at first then quickly level out to approach FVC.
* Obstructive disorders result in a marked decrease in both FVC and FEV1/FVC, whereas restrictive disorders result in a loss of FVC without loss in FEV1/FVC.
What is alveolar ventilation and how is it related to anatomical dead space and resp rate?
The alveolar ventilation, i.e., the amount of air reaching the alveoli per minute, is less than the RMV.
Note that because of the dead space, rapid shallow breathing produces much less alveolar ventilation than slow deep breathing at the RMV
How can you physically measure the anatomic dead space?
- The anatomic dead space can be measured by analysis of the single-breath N2 curves.
- From mid-inspiration, the patient takes as deep a breath as possible of pure O2, then exhales steadily while the N2 content of the expired gas is continuously measured.
What are the four phases of the single-breath N2 curves when measuring anatomic dead space? What do the points of the curve mean?
- Phase I - the initial gas exhaled is the gas that filled the dead space and that consequently contains no N2.
- This is following by a mixture of dead space and alveolar gas (phase II) and then by alveolar gas (phase III).
- The volume of the dead space is the volume of gas expired from inspiration to the midpoint of Phase II
- Phase III terminates at the closing volume (CV) and is followed by phase IV, during which the N2 content of the expired has is increased;
What is the Bohr equation? What does it calculate?
The total dead space can be calculated from the PCO2 of expired air, the PCO2 of arterial blood and the tidal volume.
* Vt - tidal volume
* PECO2 - PCOs of the expired gas
* PaCO2 - artieral PCO2
* Vd - dead space
* PICO2 - PCO2 of inspired air.
PICO2 x Vd is so small that it can often be ignored…. so Vd = Vt - (PECO2 x Vt)/(PaCO2)
What is the pressure of a gas proportional to?
Its temperature and number of moles occupying a certain volume
What do gases diffuse through from the alveoli to the blood in the pulmonary capillaries?
Across the thin alvelocapillary membrane made up of the pulmonary epithelium, the capillary endothelium, and their fused basement membranaes
Whether or not substances passing from the alveoli to the capillary blood reach equilibrium in the 0.75 seconds that blood takes to travers the pulmonary capillaries at rest depends on what? Give some examples and what type of limits them?
Their reaction with substances in the blood.
* Nitrous oxide does not react and reaches equilirbium in about 0.1 seconds. The amount of N2O taken up is not limited by diffusion but by the amount of blood flowing through the capillaries; it is flow-limited
* CO is taken up by Hb at such a high rate that the PCO in the capillaries stays very low and equilibrium is not reached in the 0.75 seconds - it is diffusion-limited
* O2 is an intermediate between N2O and CO; it is taken up by Hb but much less avidly than CO, and reaches equilibrium in about 0.3 seconds. Thus, its uptake is perfusion-limited.
How is the diffusing capacity of the lungs for CO (DLCO) measured? Why?
- An an index of diffusing capacity because its uptake is diffusion-limited.
- DLCO is proportional to the amount of CO entering the blood (VCO) divided by the partial pressure of CO minus the partial pressure of CO in the blood entering the pulmonary capillaries (which in healthy people in zero)
When sampling alveolar air, which portion of air do you collect?
- Theoretically, all but the first 150mL expired from a healthy 150lb man (ie, the dead space) with each expiration is the gas that was in the alveoli (alveolar air), but some mixing always occurs at the interface between the dead space gas and the alveolar air. A later portion of expired air is therefore the portion taken for analysis.
- Using modern apparatus, it is possible the collect the last 10mL expired during quiet breathing.
- The composition of alveolar gas is compared with that of inspired and expired gas.
What are the effects of decreased barometric pressure on hypoxaemia? Why? How does it change at different levels?
- The composition of air stays the same, but the total barometric pressure falls with increasing altitude, and thus, the PO2 also falls.
- At 3000m above sea level, the alveolar PO2 is about 60mmHg and there is enough hypoxic stimulation of the chemoreceptors under normal breathing to cause increase ventilation
- As one ascends higher, the alveolar PO2 falls less rapidly and the alveolar PCO2 declines because of the hyperventilation.
- The resulting fall in arterial PCO2 produces respiratory alkalosis.
How are the partial pressures of water vapor in the alveolar air and CO2 linked to barometric pressure and altitude?
The partial pressure of water vapour in the alveolar air is constant at 47mmHg, and that of CO2 is normally 40mmHg, so that the lowest abrometric pressure at which a normal alveolar PO2 lowers the alveolar PCO2 somewhat, but the maximum alveolar PO2 that can be attained when breathing 100% O2 at the ambeint barometric pressure of 100 mmHg at 13,700m is approx 40 mmHg.
What happens over time during acclimitisation?
- The initial ventilatory response to increased altitude is relatively small, because the alkalosis tends to counteract the stimuating effect of hypoxia.
- However, ventilation steadily increases over the next 4 days because the active transport of H+ into CSF or possibly a developing lactic acidosis in the brain, causes a fall in CSF pH that increases the response to hypoxia.
- After 4 days, the ventilatory response begins to decline slowly, but it takes years of residence at higher altitudes for it to decline to the initial level, if it is reached at all.
How do disease processes that prevent ventilation of some of the alveoli create a ventilation-perfusion mismatch? What is the effect of this?
- The ventilation-blood flow ratios in different parts of the lung determine the extent to which systemic arterial PO2 declines.
- If non-ventilated alveoli are perfused, the non-ventilated but perfused potion of the lung is in effect a right-to-left shunt, dumping unoxygenated blood into the left side of the heart.
- Lesser degrees of ventilation-perfusion imbalance are more common.
- When ventilation is not in balance with perfusion, O2 exchange is compromised. Note, that underventilated alveoli (B) have a low alveolar PO2, whereas the overventilated alveoli (A) have a high alveolar PO2, which both have the same blood flow.
- Consequently, the arterial blood is unsaturated.
In what situations does anaemia cause hypoxia?
- Hypoxia due to anaemia is not severe at rest unless the Hb deficiency is marked, because 2,3-DPG increases in the red blood cells.
- However, anaemic patients may have considerable difficulty during exercise because of a limited ability to increase O2 delivery to the active tissues.
Which is carbon monoxide toxic?
- Because it reacts with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin (COHb), and COHb does not take up O2.
- The affinity of Hb for CO is 210 times its affinity for O2 and COHb liberates CO very slowly.
- An additional difficulty is that when COHb is present, the dissociation curve of the remaining HBO2 shifts to the elft, decreasing the amount of O2 released.
How is compliance measured? What curve does this create?
- The interaction between the recoil of the lungs and the recoil of the chest can be measured through a spirometer that has a valve just beyond the mouthpiece.
- The mouthpiece contains a pressure-measuring device. After the person inhales a given amount, the valve is shut, closing off the airway.
- The respiratory muscles are then relaxed while the pressure in the airway is recorded.
- The procedure is repeated after inhaling or activaly exhaling various volumes.
- The curve of airway pressure obtained in this way, plotted against volume, is the pressure-volume curve of the total respiratory system.
Describe the pressure-volume curve of the lungs?
- The pressure is 0 at a lung volume that corresponds to the volume of gas in the lungs at the FRC (relaxation volume).
- This relaxation pressure is the sum of slightly negative pressure component from the chest wall (PW) and a slightly positive pressure from the lungs (PL)
- The pressure in the total respiratory system (PTR) is positive at greater volumes and negative at smaller volumes.
How can you measure compliance from the pressure-volume curve?
- Compliance of the lung and chest wall is measured as the slope of the PTR curve, or , as a change in lung volume per unit change in airway pressure (ΔV/ΔP).
- It is normally measured in the pressure range where the relaxation pressure curve is steepest, and normal values are ~0.2L/cm H2O in a healthy adult man.
What does compliance depend on and how does it vary due to this?
- Compliance depends on lung volume and thus can vary.
- In an extreme example, an individual with only one lung has approximately half the ΔV for a given ΔP.
- Compliance is also slightly greater when measured during deflation then when measured during inflation. Consequently, it is more informative to examine the whole pressure-volume curve.
What diseases shift the pressure volume curve? How do they effect compliance?
- The curve is shifted downward and to the right (compliance is decreased) by pulmonary edema and interstitial pulmonary fibrosis.
- The curve is shifted upward and to the left (compliance in increased) in emphysema
How can you work out the work of breathing from the pressure volume curve?
- Work is performed by the respiratory muscles in stretching the elastic tissues of the chest wall and lungs (65%), moving inelastic tissues (7%) and moving air through the respiratory passages (28%).
- Because the dimensions of pressure x volume (g/cm2 x cm3 = g x cm) has the same dimensions as work (force x distance ; g x cm), the work of breathing can be calculated from the pressure-volume curve.
- The amount of elastic work required to inflate the whole respiratory system is less than the amount required to inflate the lungs alone because part of the work comes from elastic energy stored in the thorax.
The magnitude of surfactant at various lung volumes has been measured by distending lungs with saline and air while measuring the intrapulmonary pressure. What do the curves measure? Why?
- Because saline reduces the surface tension to nearly zero, the pressure-volume curve obtained with saline measures only the tissue elasticity
- Whereas the curve obtained with air measures both tissue elasticity and surface tension.
When are the differences between the saline and air curves in the pressure volume curves of a cat? What is the term used to describe this?
- Differences are also obvious in the curves generated during inflation and deflation. This difference is termed hysteresis, and is notably not present in the saline generated curves.
- the alveolar environment, and specifically the secreted factors that help reduce surface tension and keep alveoli from collapsing, contribute to hysteresis.
The difference between the saline and air curves is much smaller when lung volumes are small. Why?
The low surface tension when the alveoli are small is due to the presence of surfactant in the fluid lining the alveoli.
What is the pressure gradient in the pulmonary system? How does it differ from the systemic circulation?
The pressure gradient in the pulmonary system is about 7 mmHg, compared with a gradient of about 90 mmHg in the systemic circulation
What is the pulmonary capillary pressure and oncotic pressure? What does this make the pressure gradient? How does this differ in disease?
- Pulmonary capillary pressure is about 10 mmHg, whereas the oncotic pressure is about 25 mmHg
- An inward-directed pressure gradient of about 15 mmHg keeps the alveoli free of all but a thin film of fluid
- When the capillary pressure is more than 25 mmHg, pulmonary congestion and oedema result.
Gravity has a relatively marked effect on the pulmonary circulation. How?
- In the upright position, the upper portions of the lungs are well above the level of the heart, and the bases are at or below it.
- Consequently, in the upper part of the lungs, the blood flow is less, the alveoli are larger, and ventilation is less than at the base.
What is the pressure in the capillaries at lung apex? How does the pressure in the respiratory circulation change affect capillaries? When do they collapse?
- The pressure in the capillaries at the top of the lungs is close to the atmospheric pressure in the alveoli.
- Pulmonary arterial pressure is normally just sufficient to maintain perfusion, but if it is reduced or if alveolar pressure is increased, some of the capillaries collapse.
The compression of vessels produced by alveolar pressure decreases and pulmonary blood flow increases as the arterial pressure increases toward the base of the lung. How is blood flow determined in the lower portions of the lung?
In the lower portions of the lungs, alveolar pressure is lower than the pressure in all parts of the pulmonary circulation and blood flow is determined by the arterial-venous pressure difference.
How does the myoglobin dissociation curve differ from the Hb dissociation curve? What does this mean clinically?
- The lack of cooperative binding is reflected in the myoglobin dissociation curve, a rectangular hyperbola rather than the sigmoid curve oberved for haemoglobin
- The leftward shift of the myoglobin O2 binding curve when compared with HB demonstrated a higher affinity for O2, and thus promoted a favourable transfer of O2 from Hb in the blood.
When is O2 released from myoglobin? How does the curve represent this? How is this functionally relevant?
- The steepness of the myoglobin curve also shows that O2 is released only at low PO2 values (eg, during exercise).
- The myoglobin content is greatest in muscles specialised for sustained contraction.
- The muscle blood supply is compressed during such contractions, and myoglobin can continue to provide O2 under reduced blood flow and/or reduced PO2 in the blood
What happens to the CO2 that diffuses into red blood cells?
- The CO2 that diffuses into red blood cells is rapidly hydrated to H2CO3 because of the presence of carbonic anhydrase.
- The H2CO3 dissociates to H+ and HCO3- and the H+ is buffered, primarily by haemoglobin, while the HCO3- enters the plasma
Some of the CO2 in the red cells reacts with the amino groups of haemoglobin. What do they form? How does this effect O2 binding?
- Some of the CO2 in the red cells reacts with the amino groups of Hb and other proteins, forming carbamino compounds
- Because deoxyhaemoglobin binds more H+ than oxyhaemoglobin and forms carbamino compounds more readily, binding of O2 to haemoglobin reduces its affinity for CO2.
What is the Haldane effect?
- The Haldane effect refers to the increased capacity of deoxygenated Hb to bind and carry CO2.
- Consequently, venous blood carries more CO2 than arterial blood, CO2 uptake is facilitated in the tissues and CO2 release is facilitated in the lungs.
Because the rise in the HCO3- content of red cells is much greater than in plasma as the blood passes through the capillaries, about 70% of the HCO3- formed in the red cells enters the plasma. What happens to the remaining 30%? How does this happen? What is the outcome of this? How quickly does it happen
- The excess HCO3- leaves the red cells in exchange for Cl-.
- This process is mediated by anion exchanger 1 (AE1), a major membrane protein in the red blood cell.
- Because of this chloride shift, the Cl- content of the red cells in venous blood is significantly greater than that in arterial blood.
- The chloride shift occurs rapidly and is essentially complete within 1 second.
For each CO2 molecule added to a red cell, there is an increase of one osmotically active particle in the cell - either an HCO3- or a Cl-. What are the consequences of this? How are they removed?
- Consequently, the red cells take up water and increase in size.
- For this reason, plus the fact that a small amount of fluid in the arterial blood returns via the lymphatics rather than the veins, the haematocrit of venous blood is normally 3% greater than that of the arterial blood.
- In the lungs, the Cl- moves back out of the cells and they shrink.
What are the different fates of CO2 in plasma and in red blood cells?
Plasma
1) dissolved
2) formation of carbamino compounds with plasma protein
3) hydration, H+ buffered, HCO3- in plasma
In red blood cells
1) dissolved
2) formation of carbamino-Hb
3) Hydration, H+ buffered, 70% of HCO3- enters the plasma
4) Cl- shifts into cells; mOsm in cells increases
How are plasma proteins effective buffers?
They are effective buffers because both their free carboxyl and their free amino groups dissociate:
How does the haemoglobin buffer system work? How does it compare to the plasma protein system? Why?
- It is provided by the dissociation of the imidazole groups of the histidine residues in Hb
- In the pH 7.0-7.7 range, the free carboxyl and amino groups of Hb contribute relatively little to its buffering capacity.
- However, the Hb contains 38 histidine residues, and this basis - plus the fact that Hb is present in large amounts - the Hb in blood has six times the buffering capacity of the plasma proteins.
How does the action if imidazole groups of deoxyhaemoglobin differ to those of oxyhaemoglobin?
- The imidazole groups of deoxyhaemoglobin (Hb) dissociate less than those of oxyhaemoglobin (HbO2), making Hb a weaker acid and therefore a better buffer than HbO2.
- The titration curves for Hb and HbO2 illustrate the differences in H+ buffering capacity.
What is the major buffer system in the blood?
The carbonic acid-bicarbonate system.
What is the clinically relevant form of the Henderson-Hasselbach equation for the carbonic acid-bicarb system?
How is a respiratory acidosis caused?
- Any short-term rise in arterial PCO2 (ie, above 40mmHg, due to hypoventilation results in respiratory acidosis.
- CO2 that is retained is in equilibrium with H2CO3, which in turn is in equilibrium with HCO3-. The effective rise in plasma HCO3- means that a new equilibrium is reached at a lower pH.
How is a respiratory alkalosis caused?
- Any short-term lowering of PCO2 below what is needed for proper CO2 exchange results in respiratory alkalosis.
- The decreased CO2 shifts the equilibrium of the carbonic acid-bicarbonate system to effectively lower H+ and increase pH.
How is a metabolic acidosis caused?
Metabolic acidosis occurs when strong acids are added to blood. The H2CO3 that is formed is converted to H2O and CO2 and the CO2 is rapidly excreted via the lungs.
Note that in contrast to respiratory acidosis, metabolic acidosis does not include a change in PCO2; the shift toward metabolis acidosis occurs along an isobar line
How is a metabolic alkalosis caused?
When the free H+ level falls as result of addition on alkali, or more commonly, the removal of large amounts of acid (following vomiting), metabolic alkalosis results.
In response to metabolic acidosis and alkalosis, how does the respiratory system compensate?
Metabolic acidosis - Ventilation is increased, resulting in a decrease of PCO2 and a subsequent increase in pH toward normal
Metabolic alkalosis - Ventilation is decreased, PCO2 is increased, and a subsequent decrease in pH occurs
Renal tubule cells in the kidney have active carbonic anhydrase. How does this affect their ability to compensate acidosis and alkalosis?
- This can produce H+ and HCO3- from CO2.
- In response to acidosis, these cells secrete H+ into the tubular fluid in exchange for Na+ while the HCO3- is actively reabsorbed into the peritubular capillary; for each H+ secreted, one Na+ and one HCO3- are added to the blood.
- In response to alkalosis, the kidney decreases H+ secretion and depresses HCO3- reabsorption
Where are the main components of the respiratory control pattern generator responsible for automatic respiration?
- They are located in the medulla
- Rhythmic respiration is initiated by a small group of synaptically coupled pacemaker cells in the pre-Bötzinger complex on either side of the medulla between the nucleus ambiguous and the lateral reticular nucleus.
How do the pacemaker cells in the pre-Bötzinger complex control respiration?
These neurons discharge rhythmically and the produce rhythmic discharges in phrenic motor neurons that are abolished by sections between the pre-Bötzinger complex and these motor neurons.
They also contact the hypoglossal nuclei, and the tongue is involved in the regulation of airway resistance
Dorsal and ventral groups of respiratory neurons are present in the medulla. What do these do and not do?
Lesions of these neurons do not abolish respiratory activity, and, they apparently project to the pre-Bötzinger complex pacemaker neurons.
How does stretching of the lungs effect the regulation is respiration?
- Stretching of the lungs during inspiration initiates impulses in afferent pulmonary vagal fibres.
- These impulses inhibit inspiratory discharge.
- Vagal feedback activity does not alter the rate of rise of the neural activity in respiratory motor neurons
Each carotid and aortic body (glomus) contains islands of two types of cells surrounded by fenestrated sinusoidal capillaries. What are the cell-types and what do they do?
- Type I or glomus cells - are closely associated with cupcake endings of the afferent nerves. They resemble adrenal chromaffin cells and have dense-core granules containing catecholamines that are released upon exposure to hypoxia and cyanide. The cells are excited by hypoxia, and the principal transmitter appears to be dopamine, which excites the nerve endings by way of D2 receptors.
- The type II cells are glia-like and each surrounds four-to-six type I cells. Their function is not fully defined
Where are the afferent nerve fibres from the chemoreceptors? Where do they go to? What is their diameter and speed?
- Outside the capsule of each body, the nerve fibres acquire a myelin sheath; however, they are only 2-5μm in diameter and conduct at the relatively low rate of 7-12m/s.
- Afferents from the carotid bodies ascend to the medulla via the carotid sinus and glossopharyngeal nerves
- Afferents from the aortic bodies ascend in the vagi.
Is there a graded increase in afferent impulses from the chemoreceptors depending on levels of arterial PO2?
Yes, there is a graded increase in impulse traffic in the afferent fibres from the carotid and aortic bodies as the PO2 of the perfusing blood is lowered to the PCO2 is raised.
The chemoreceptors that mediate the hyperventilation produced by increases in arterial PCO2 after the carotid and aortic bodies are denervated are located in the medulla oblongata. Where in the medulla are they and what do they do?
- They are separate from the dorsal and ventral respiratory neurons and are located on the ventral surface of the medulla.
- The chemoreceptors monitor the H+ concentration of CSF. CO2 readily penetrates membranes, including the blood-brain barrier, whereas H+ and HCO3- penetrate slowly.
- The CO2 that enters the brain and CSF is promptly hydrated. The H2CO3 dissociates, so that the local H+ concentration rises.
- The H+ concentration in brain interstitial fluid parallels the arterial PCO2.
What is the linear relationship between respiratory minute volume and the alveolar PCO2? Why?
- When a gas mixture containing CO2 is inhaled, the alveolar PCO2 rises, elevating the arterial PCO2 and stimulating ventilation as soon as the blood contains more OC2 reaches the medulla.
- CO2 elimination is increased and the alveolar PCO2 drops toward normal.
- However, the PCO2 does not drop to normal, and a new equilibrium is reached at which the alveolar PCO2 is slightly elevated and the hyperventilation persists as long as CO2 is inhaled.
- The essentially linear relationship between respiratory minute volume and the alveolar PCO2 is shown in this graph.
The essentially linear relationship between respiratory minute volume and the alveolar PCO2 in this graph naturally has an upper limit. How does your body respond if there is too much CO2? What level is this?
- When the PCO2 of the inspired has is close to the alveolar PCO2, elimination of CO2 becomes difficult.
- When the CO2 content of the inspired gas is more than 7%, the alveolar and arterial PCO2 begin to rise abruptly despite hyperventilation.
- The resultant accumulation of CO2 in the body (hypercapnia) depressed the CNS, including the respiratory center, and produces headache, confusion, and eventually coma (CO2 narcosis)
What is the ventilatory response to oxygen deficiency? At what level does it happen?
- When the O2 content of the inspired air is decreased, respiratory minute volume is increased.
- The stimulation is slight when the PO2 of the inspired air is more than 60mmHg, and marked stimulation occurs only at lower PO2 values.
- However, any decline in arterial PO2 below 100mmHg produces increased discharge in the nerves from the carotid and aortic chemoreceptors
What are the effects of hypoxia on the CO2 response curve?
- When the CO2 response is tested at different fixed PO2 values, the slope of the response curve changes, with the slope increased when alveolar PO2 is decreased.
- In other worse, hypoxia makes the individual more sensitive to an increase in arterial PCO2.
- However, the alveolar PCO2 level at which the curves in the graph intersect is unaffected.
- In the normal individual, this threshold value is just below the normal alveolar PCO2, indicating that normally there is a very slight but definite “CO2 drive” of the respiratory area.
What are the effects on ventilation with decreasing the alveolar PO2 while holding the alveolar PCO2 constant?
- When the alveolar PCO2 is stabilised at a level 2-3 mmHg above normal, there is an inverse relationship between ventilation and the alveolar PO2 even in the 90-110 mmHg range
- But when the alveolar PCO2 is fixed at lower than normal values, there is no stimulation of ventilation by hypoxia until the alveolar PO2 falls below 60 mmHg
What are the Hering-Breuer reflexes?
- The shortening of inspiration produced by vagal afferent activity is mediated by slowly adapting receptors, as are the Hering-Breuer reflexes.
- The Hering-Breuer inflation reflex is an increase in the duration of expiration produced by steady lung inflation
- The Hering-Breuer deflation reflex is a decrease in the duration of expiration produced by marked deflation of the lung.
Why does periodic breathing happen?
- The apnea apparently is due to a lack of CO2 because it does not occur following hyperventilation with gas mixtures containing 5% CO2 .
- During the apnea, the alveolar PO2 falls and PCO2 rises.
- Breathing resumes because of hypoxic stimulation of the carotid and aortic chemoreceptors before the CO2 level has returned to normal.
- A few breaths eliminate the hypoxic stimulus, and breathing stops until the alveolar PO2 falls again.
- Gradually, however, the PCO2 returns to normal, and normal breathing resumes.
Why might blood lactate start to rise during exercise?
- The increase in O2 uptake is proportional to work load, up to a maximum.
- Above this maximum, O2 consumption levels off and the blood lactate level continues to rise.
- The lactate comes from muscles in which aerobic resynthesis of energy stores cannot keep pace with their utilisation, and an oxygen debt is being incurred
How does ventilation change during exercise?
- Ventilation increases abruptly with the onset of exercise which is followed after a brief pause by a further, more gradual increase.
- With moderate exercise, the increase is due mostly to an increase in the depth of respiration. This is accompanied by an increase in the rest rate when the exercise is more strenuous.
- Ventilation abruptly decreases when exercise ceases, which is followed after a brief pause by a more gradual decline to preexercise values.
Why does ventilation follow this pattern when starting to exercise?
- The abrupt increase at the start of exercise is presumably due to psychic stimuli and afferent impulses from proprioceptors in muscles, tendons, and joints.
- The more gradual increase is presumably humeral, even though arterial pH, PCO2 and PO2 remain constant during moderate exercise.
The response to graded exercise is shown in this figure. Talk me through it.
- With increased production of acid, the increases in ventilation and CO2 remain proportional, so alveolar and arterial CO2 change relatively little (isocapnic buffering).
- Because of the hyperventilation, the alveolar PO2 increases.
- With further accumulation of lactic acid, the increase in ventilation outstrips CO2 production and alveolar PCO2 falls, as does PCO2.
- The decline in arterial PCO2 provides respiratory compensation for the metabolic acidosis produced by the additional lactic acid.
- The additional increase in ventilation produced by the acidosis depends on the carotid bodies and does not occur if they are removed.
