Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Name alpha 1 globulins

A

alpha1 antitrypsin, HDL, retinol binding globulin, alpha feto protein, Prothrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Causes of hypoalbunemia

A

Liver disease, malnutrition, nephrotic syndrome, GI disease, burns, congenital deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

AAT def

A

bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

HDL def

A

hypercholesterolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

RBG def

A

vit A def = night blindness and skin diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

AFP usage

A

detect if fetus has neural tube defect or down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name alpha 2 globulins

A

alpha2 macroglobulin, haptoglobin, ceruloplasmin, thyroxine binding globulin, cortisol binding globulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ceruloplasmin def

A

Wilson’s disease (copper deposition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name beta globulins

A

LDL, transferrin, hemopexin, C3&C4, CRP, plasminogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

LDL elevation

A

hypercholesterolemia = atherosclerotic plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name gamma globulins with function of each

A

IgM (primary immune response), IgG (secondary immune response), IgA (secreted into mucus, tears, saliva), IgD (B cell receptor), and IgE (allergy and parasitic infections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Multiple Myeloma

A

Increased gamma globulin
Punched out lytic lesions in skull (hypercalcemia)
Kidney damage
Anemia
Bence-jones protein in urine
Defect in light chain
Diagnose by elevated fibrinogen levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What gives RBCs acid-base buffer function

A

Presence of carbonic anhydrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the Hb/Hct ratio

A

3:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List origin of synthesis of RBCs throughout fetal life

A

12 weeks: yolk sac
24 weeks: spleen, liver, LNs
27 weeks-5 years: BM of long and membranous bones
Past 5 years: BM of membranous bones and proximal ends of humerus and tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List the changes occurring in RBC during maturation

A

Small size, annucleated, more cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What happens when body is subjected to hypoxia

A

Hypoxia is sensed by kidney = production of hypoxia inducible factor (HIF-1) = production of erythropoietin (EPO) = stimulates bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do we expect to see in a person living at high altitudes

A

Physiological polycythemia vera

19
Q

Characteristics of microcytic anemia

A

Low serum iron, low ferritin, high TIBC

20
Q

Where can we see normocytic anemia

A

Aplastic anemia (low reticulocyte count) and hemolytic anemia (high reticulocyte count)

21
Q

Where can we see macrocytic anemia

A

b12/b9 def, gastrectomy/gastric bypass

22
Q

at what stage do primary granules appear

A

promyelocyte phase

23
Q

at what stage do specific granules appear

A

myelocyte phase

24
Q

what distinguishes maturation of neutrophils from the rest

A

additional band/stab cell stage

25
Q

neutrophil function

A

bacterial infection

26
Q

Mechanism of neutrophil invasion

A
  • Chemotaxis stimulates Lewis carbohydrate to appear on the outer membrane of neutrophils causing the margination on the endothelial cells
  • Selectins on endothelial cells bind to the Lewis
  • Neutrophils start rolling
  • Integrin receptors appear and bind to intracellular adhesion molecules and vesicular adhesion molecules causing the adherence of neutrophils to endothelial cells
  • PECAMs allow diapedesis = released by endothelial cells
27
Q

where can we find eosinophilia

A

ANAPC (mnemonic)
allergy, neoplasm, asthma, parasitic infections, collagen diseases

28
Q

where can we find basophilia

A

FLAT (mnemonic)
Fe def anemia, lead poisoning, anemia of chronic disease, thalassemia

29
Q

what stimulates all MHSC

A

IL-3

30
Q

List procoags with function

A

Thromboxane A2 (stimulates platelet aggregation) and thrombomodulin (regulates thrombin activity)

31
Q

List anticoags with function

A

Smoothness of endothelial cells and glycocalyx coat
Nitric oxide (vasodilator)
PGI2
Protein C (inactivates factor Va and VIIIa)
Heparin (activates antithrombin III)
Plasmin (lyses fibrin)

32
Q

what are the two receptors involved in platelet plug formation

A

glycoprotein Ib (platelets adhere to vWf)
glycoprotein IIb/IIIa (platelets aggregate)

33
Q

list factors involved in extrinsic pathway

A

tissue factor = factor VIIa = factor Xa = prothrombin activator = thrombin = fibrinogen = fibrin = fibrin stabilizing factor

34
Q

list factors involved in intrinsic pathway

A

factor XIIa = factor XIa = factor IXa = factor Xa and VIIIa = prothrombin activator = thrombin

35
Q

Diagnostic tests for clotting + significance

A

PTT for extrinsic pathway
APTT for intrinsic pathway
One prolonged = hepatic disease
If both prolonged = def factor V,X,I,II

36
Q

what vit is responsible to activate factor II, VII, IX, X, protein C and S

A

Vitamin K

37
Q

patient presents with bleeding tendency with minimal traumas, diagnosis?

A

hemophilia

38
Q

types of hemophilia

A

hemophilia A: def factor VIII
hemophilia B: def factor IX
hemophilia C: def factor X

39
Q

thrombocytopenia is associated with…

A

BM production disorders, autoimmune, increased sequestration, precclampsia

40
Q

You exit the OR room where an Rh- mother and Rh+ positive father are waiting to see the fate of their second baby. He is born jaundiced with abdominal distention likely suggestive of hepatosplenomegaly. What is the name of this condition and how is it treated?

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis
Transfuse Rh- blood

41
Q

what is the most common side effect of blood transfusions

A

acute kidney injury

42
Q

patient A presents with hypotension and o2 sat of 95
patient B presents with hypotension and o2 sat of 80
what is the treatment for each patient

A

patient A: IV fluids
patient B: blood transfusion (packed RBCs)

43
Q

define leukemia and give 3 of its symptoms

A

uncontrolled wbc production
dyspnea, hepatosplenomegaly, petechia, fatigue, muscle aches