Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Coombs test

A

antoglobulin testing

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2
Q

aetiology of positive Coombs test

A

haemolytic anaemia
haemolytic transfusion reactions
haemolytic disease of newborn

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3
Q

indirect antiglobulin testing (IAT)

+ uses

A

detects antibodies present in the patient’s plasma

can be used in cross-matching or to detect maternal anti-D IgG

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4
Q

coagulation

A

formation of a blood clot.
Essential to Haemostasis
Process is characterised by a cascade of events which lead to formation of a blood clot.

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5
Q

Pathways of coagulation

A

Extrinsic: triggered by trauma which causes blood to escape circulation

Intrinsic: triggered by internal damage to vessel all

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6
Q

extrinsic pathway- clotting factors

A
VII, III 
TF-VIIa complex 
X -> Xa
Va 
Thrombin (XIII)
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7
Q

extrinsic pathway of clotting

A

Damage to blood vessel - > Factor VII exits the circulation into surrounding tissues.
Tissue factor (III) is released by damaged cells outside the circulation
Factor VII and III form TF-VIIa complex
TF-VIIa then activates factor X into active Factor Xa
Xa+ Va trigger formation of thrombin

Responsible for initial generation of activated Factor X

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8
Q

intrinsic pathway- clotting factors

A
XII
VIII
IX + VIII -> Enzyme complex 
Factor X activated
Factor Va
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9
Q

intrinsic pathway

A

Factor XII activated when it comes into contact with negatively charge collagen on the damaged endothelium, triggering cascade.
Along with clotting factors, platelets form a cellular ‘Plug’ at site of injury.
Platelets also release mediators that facilitate further clotting, including factor VIII.
Factor IX combines with Factor VIII to form enzyme complex that activates factor X, which along with factor Va, stimulates production of thrombin

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10
Q

Common pathway of clotting

A

intrinsic and extrinsic pathways converge.
Activated factor X -> inactive enzyme prothrombin (II) converted to its active form thrombin (IIa) by prothrombinase

Thrombin then converts soluble fibrinogens into insoluble fibrin strands.

Fibrin strands are further stabilised by factor XIII

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11
Q

regulation of clotting

A

Negative feedback on coagulation cascade

- Protein C and protein S

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12
Q

Antithrombin

A

protease inhibitor that degrades thrombin, factor IXa, factor Xa, factor XIa and factor XIIa
Constantly active, but can be activated further by heparins

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13
Q

protein S

A

activated following contact by thrombomodulin (activated by thrombin)
Along with co-factors (including protein S), activated protein C degrades factor V and factor VIIa, thus slowing rate of clotting.

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14
Q

protein C deficiency

A

Inherited or acquired (sepsis & liver disease)

Due to reduction in protein C, clotting cascade is under less inhibition.
patient care pre-disposed to abnormal and excessive clotting, leading to illnesses including DVT and stroke

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15
Q

fibrinolysis

A

fibrin is dissolved - leading to consequent dissolution of the clot.

Endothelial cells of blood vessel wall secrete tissue plasminogen activators (tPA) which convert precursor plasminogen to plasmin.
Plasmin then cleaves fibrin within the thrombus.

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16
Q

haemophilia

A

inherited bleeding disorder caused by partial or total deficiency in specific clotting factors.

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17
Q

Haemophilia A

A

deficiency in factor VIII

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18
Q

Haemophilia B

A

deficiency in factor IX

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19
Q

Haemophilia C

A

deficiency in factor XI

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20
Q

presentation of haemophilia

A

bruise easily.
Bleed spontaneously
Bleed for longer

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21
Q

haematopoiesis

A

production of cells that circulate in the bloodstream.

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22
Q

erythropoiesis

A

process by which RBCs are produced

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23
Q

sites of erythropoiesis

A

very early foetus: yolk sac
2-5 months gestation: liver and spleen
5 months gestation; bone marrow

Children- bone marrow of most bones
Adults- bone marrow of vertebrae, ribs, sternum, sacrum, pelvic and proximal femur

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24
Q

inadequate erythropoiesis in bone marrow

A

can trigger extra medullary hematopoiesis

commonly seen in haemoglobinopathies (thalassaemia’s and myelofibrosis

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25
Q

stages of erythropoiesis

A

begins with the haemocytoblast.

Some differentiate into common myeloid progenitor cells.
Go onto produce erythrocytes, mast cells , megakaryocytic and myeloblasts

Some differentiate into common lymphoid progenitor.
Go onto produce NKCs and lymphocytes

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26
Q

process of myeloid progenitor cells to fully mature RBCs

A

Myeloid progenitor cells become normoblasts (erythroblasts) Present in bone marrow only.

Lose organelles and nucleus to mature into reticulocytes.
Some reticulocytes released into peripheral circulation.

Nuclear extrusion: mature erythrocytes have no nucleus

Reticulocytes lose remaining organelles as they mature into erythrocytes

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27
Q

Nucleated RBCs present in sample of bone marrow

A

indicates release of incompletely developed cells.

Can occur in pathology such as thalaaemia, severe anaemia, or haematological malignancy

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28
Q

regulation of erythropoiesis

A

Erythropoietin (EPO )

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29
Q

erythropoietin

A

Glycoprotein cytokine
secreted by kidney
constantly secreted at a low level, sufficient for normal regulation of erythropoiesis

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30
Q

EPO feedback loop

A

reduced partial pressure of oxygen in the kidney is detected by renal interstitial peritubular cells.

In response: surge of EPO production, which acts in the bone marrow to stimulate increased RBC production

Causes pO2 to rise and EPO level to fall

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31
Q

CKD related to EPO

A

CKD often cause anaemia.
In damaged kidney, reduced basal level EPO production and a reduced response to hypoxia leading to anaemia.
Counteract with EPO injections as required

32
Q

Underproduction of RBCs

A

Results in anaemia: low Hb concentration
Can be caused by decreased red cell production or increased red cell removal

Reduced RBC production

  • luck of building block: iron, folate, B12 deficiency
  • failure of stimuli: EPO deficiency due to CKD

-Bone marrow failure: aplastic anaemia

33
Q

Overproduction of RBCs

A

Seen in polycythaemia rubra vera

34
Q

polycythaemia rubra vera

A

Myeloproliferative disease which results from dysregulation at the level of the haematopoietic stem cell.
EPO production is switched off, but excess RBCs are continually produced.
JAK-2 mutation
Usually affects patients >60 years
Regular monitoring
Can cause increased risk of thrombin

35
Q

iron absorption

A

occurs in duodenum and upper jejunum.

36
Q

transporter protein DMT1

A

Located on apical surface of erythrocytes.

Facilitates uptake of non-harm ferrous iron from intestinal lumen

Ferric iron must be reduced to ferrous iron by duodenal cytochrome before uptake by DMT1

37
Q

iron with erythrocytes

A

stored as ferritin

transferred into bloodstream via protein ferroportin

38
Q

Bound iron

A

Mostly transported to bone marrow for erythropoiesis.

Some iron is taken up by macrophages in reticuloendothelial system as storage pool

39
Q

regulation of iron absorption

40
Q

hepcidin

A

peptide
primary regulation of absorption of iron
expressed by the liver.
directly binds to ferroportin causing its degradation and preventing iron from leaving the cell.
Inhibits transcription of DMT1 gene.

41
Q

free iron

A

toxic to cells as it acts as a catalyst in formation of free radicals

complex regulatory system to ensure safe absorption, transportation and utilisation of iron

42
Q

iron excretion

A

no specific mechanism for iron excretion.

iron levels balanced by regulating iron absorption to match natural losses.

43
Q

recommended iron dietary intake

A

10-20 mg per day

44
Q

iron recycling

A

occurs within reticuloendothelial system.

Iron is freed from storage and returned to active pool

45
Q

Iron storage

A

Ferritin
Haemosiderin (insoluble derivative)

Highest concentration of stored iron in the liver, spleen and bone marrow

46
Q

hereditary haemochromatosis

A

autosomal recessive condition characterised by excessive absorption of iron.

Most susceptible organs: liver, adrenal glands, heart, joints and pancreas

Patient presentation: Cirrhosis, adrenal insufficiency, heart failure, arthritis and diabetes.

treatment: therapeutic phlebotomy

47
Q

mononuclear phagocyte system

A

Network of phagocytic cells in the blood and lymphatic system.
Also called reticuloendothelial system

48
Q

Function of mononuclear phagocyte system

A

identify foreign antigens and start appropriate immune response.
Antigens re phagocytosed

Also plays a role in destruction of old and dysfunctional cells.

49
Q

Cells of MPS

A

Primary cell: Phagocyte

Common phagocytes: macrophages, dendritic cells and granulocyress

50
Q

Monocytes

A

formed in bone marrow and circulated in blood.
Migrate into surrounding tissues.
In tissues, mature to become histiocytes or macrophages

51
Q

macrophages

A

CNS: microglial cells
Liver: Kupffer cell
Lungss: Alveolar macrophage
Skin and mucosa: Langerhans Cells

52
Q

Organs of mononuclear phagocyte system

A

spleen
lymphatic system
liver

53
Q

Spleen

A

formed from red pulp and white pulp
Also serves as pool for platelets and RBCs

30% of platelet are sequestered within spleen- ready for rapid mobilisation

54
Q

red pulp of spleen

A

contains endothelial macrophages
ensure defective or ageing red blood cells are Phagocytosed
allows any dysfunctional RBCs to be disposed of and the iron within them recycled.

55
Q

white pulp of spleen

A

responsible for immunological function of spleen and contains B and T lymphocytes

56
Q

lymphatic system

A

consists of lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes- filter tissue fluid from blood
Lymph nodes house b and T lymphocytes

57
Q

Liver

A

contains Kupffer cells which reside in sinusoids.
As blood enters the liver via the portal vein and drains into sinusoids, Kupffer cells remove foreign material through phagocytosis.
Also stimulate local inflammatory response using cytokines and oxygen radicals.

Bilirubin conjugated here and secreted in bile

58
Q

Kupffer cells

A

involved in the metabolism of RBC and haemoglobin.

remove foreign material through phagocytosis

Haem portion: further broken down into iron for immediate reuse or for storage.
Globin chains are reused

59
Q

Hyposplenism

A

Damage to spleen predisposes to infection by encapsulated bacteria.
Damage can occur directly following trauma, surgery or sickle cell anaemia.

Splenic macrophages responsible for the clearance of blood borne bacteria.
Encapsulated bacteria can only be phagocytosed following opsonisation, and are poorly cleared otherwise.
C3b is an opsonin which facilitates this clearance and is activated by IgM

if spleen is damaged or dysfunction, splenic macrophages are not present to remove opsonised encapsulated bacteria from circulation
Results in bacteria persisting in bloodstream.

60
Q

structure of platelets

A

originate from megakaryocytes.
Contain 2 types of granules

Have abundant surface receptors, classified into agonist and adhesion receptors

61
Q

granules in platelets

A

Alpha: contain proteins of high molecular weight including vWF, factor V and fibrinogen

Dense: contain low molecular weight molecules such as ATP, ADP, serotonin and calcium ions

62
Q

Platelet: agonist receptors:

A

recognise stimulatory molecules (collagen, thrombin, ADP etc)

63
Q

Platelet adhesion receptors

A

promote adhesion of platelet to other platelets, vessel wall or leukocytes
(vWF, GPIa-IIa collagen, GPIIb-IIIa fibrinogen)

64
Q

function of platelets

A

participation in Haemostasis through formation of blood clots.
Main stages: adhesion , activation and aggregation

65
Q

platelet adhesion

A

injury to vessel wall exposes endothelium and collagen fibres.
Exposed collagen fibres bind to vWF released from damaged endothelium, in turn binds to vWF receptors on platelets to promote adhesion.
Exposed collagen also promotes platelet binding

Exposed collagen triggers clotting cascade which generated thrombin (XIIa).
Thrombin converts fibrinogen (I) into fibrin, creating dense network of fibrin fibres.
Fibrin net meshes circulating platelets to form platelet plug

Factor VII not very stable and rapidly broken down.
vWF stabilises it by binding

66
Q

platelet activation

A

Binding of platelet to collagen, activates glycoprotein IIb/IIIa pathway (controlled by G-protein coupled receptors).
Result: excretion of DP and thromboxane A2 -> activates other platelets.

Platelet activation results in a morphological change on membrane surface of platelet, increasing surface area and preparing it for aggregation.

67
Q

platelet aggregation

A

once activated, platelets express GPIIb/IIIa receptors which can then bind with vWF or fibrinogen.
Fibrinogen facilitates formation of crosslinks between platelets, aiding platelet aggregation to form platelet plug.

68
Q

fibrinolysis

A

breakdown of blood clots

Production of platelet plug- positive feedback

69
Q

plasminogen

A

produced in the liver

activated to form plasmin by factors XI and XII.
Plasmin breaks down fibrin into fibrin degradation products (d-dimers)

70
Q

Antiplatelets

A

Clopidogrel

Aspirin

71
Q

clopidogrel

A

Often used as secondary prevention after stroke or MI

Primary MOA: prevention of clot formation through antagonism of agonistic ADP receptor

72
Q

aspirin

A

irreversibly inhibits cyclo-oxygenase and blocks production of thromboxane, preventing platelet activation and further aggregation.

Management:
Acute coronary syndromes (unstable angina, NSTEMI, STEMI)
Pregnancy women with moderate/ high risk of pre-eclampia

73
Q

von willebrand’s disease

A

Autosomal dominant disease
Very low levels of vWF resulting in reduced platelet adhesion and reduced factor VIII activity
Patient predisposed to bleeding

Presentation: frequent and long-lasting epistaxis, large and easy-bruising, bleeding gums.
Women can have heavy periods and possibly postpartum haemorrhage

74
Q

Management of Von Willebrand’s Disease

A

Desmopressin
- release intrinsic stores of vWF and factor VIII

Tranexamic Acid (antifibrinolytic)

75
Q

thrombocythaemia

A

Increased serum platelet count.

Primary or secondary (bleeding, infection, chronic inflammation from rheumatoid arthritis/ IBD, trauma/surgery or hyposplenism

Increased rusk of thrombosis (arterial and venous

Management: aspirin