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Neuro videos > Physio IBook > Flashcards

Physio IBook Flashcards

1
Q

The sympathetic preganglionic cell body is where?

A

CNS

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2
Q

The sympathetic postganglionic is activated by?

A

Ach at nicotinic receptors

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3
Q

The synapse between sympathetic pre and post ganglion is where?

A

In the ganglion

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4
Q

The parasympathetic postganglionic is releases?

A

Ach which binds muscarinic receptors

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5
Q

In the parasympathetic nervous system, what receptor deals with salivation and smooth muscle?

A

M1R

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6
Q

In the parasympathetic nervous system, what receptor deals with sweating and exocrine gland secretion?

A

M3R

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7
Q

In the parasympathetic nervous system, what receptor is found in SA node and decreases HR?

A

M2R

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8
Q

In the sympathetic nervous system, postganglionic release?

A

NE which binds adrenergic receptors

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9
Q

In the sympathetic nervous system, what receptor deals with smooth muscle contraction?

A

Alpha-adrenergic

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10
Q

In the sympathetic nervous system, what receptor deals with smooth muscle relaxation?

A

Beta-adrenergic

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11
Q

In the sympathetic nervous system, what receptor increases HR?

A

B1

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12
Q

In the sympathetic nervous system, what receptor deals with adipose and increases heat production?

A

B3

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13
Q

BP is carefully regulated by carotid and aortic baroreceptors (stretch receptors), if BP increases what ensues? If BP decreases?

A

1) Increase in stretch and AP

2) Decrease

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14
Q

Where do carotid and aortic baroreceptors (stretch receptors) synapse?

A

Solitary nucleus

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15
Q

The absorption of CSF is within what space?

A

Subarachnoid

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16
Q

What causes bulk flow of CSF into veins?

A

Arachnoid villi that extend into venous sinus

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17
Q

An increase in CSF pressure leads to?

A

Increase in absorption

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18
Q

What happens when you have an increase in pressure but a decrease in absorptive capacity of arachnoid villi?

A

Hydrocephalus

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19
Q

What causes blood flow to be blocked and the brain to use ANS to increase BP in order to drive blood through vessels?

A

An increase of intracranial pressure

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20
Q

What transporter is not insulin dependent, moves glucose from blood to CSF, and is located in endothelial cells of capillaries, astroglia, and podcytes?

A

Glut 1

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21
Q

What transporter is found on neurons and is insulin dependent?

A

Glut 2

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22
Q

What transporter is found on microglia?

A

Glut 5

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23
Q

The movement of 1 Na/ 1 K/ 2 Cl from CSF to blood is stimulated by?

A

Endothelin 1 and 3

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24
Q

What limits brain exposure to systemically delivered drugs?

A

P-Glycoprotein

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25
Q

What maintains ionic composition, protects from exo/endogenous poison and prevents escape of NT?

A

BBB

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26
Q

What are the parts of brain without good BBB?

A

Circumventricular organs

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27
Q

What does the circumventricular organ, posterior pituitary not have a BBB?

A

Due to hormone release

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28
Q

What does the circumventricular organ, Area Postrema not have a BBB?

A

So it can detect blood-born chemicals and induces vomit

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29
Q

What does the circumventricular organ, organum vasculosum of Lamina Terminalis (OVLT) not have a BBB?

A

Bc it’s an osmoreceptor for ADH

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30
Q

What does the circumventricular organ, subfornical organ not have a BBB?

A

Due to angiotensin and it activates thirst

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31
Q

When systemic BP increases this causes an increase in sympathetic activation, which increases NE, and causes vasoconstriction. Why is all this done?

A

Protect BBB

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32
Q

If perfusion pressure decreases, what will brainstem centers do?

A

Increase BP

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33
Q

A sign of increased ICP is?

A

Increased BP

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34
Q

What type of potential is excitatory, localized depolarization, and makes cell excitable more likely for AP to happen?

A

EPSP

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35
Q

What type of potential is inhibitory, localized hyperolaration, and less likelihood of AP?

A

IPSP

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36
Q

What receptor activates adenylate cyclase which increases CAMP and PKA?

A

Gs

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37
Q

What receptor inhibits adenylate cyclase which decreases CAMP and PKA?

A

Gi

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38
Q

What receptor activates PLC which activates IP3/PIP and DAG leading to an increase in Ca2+ release and the activation of PKC?

A

Gq

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39
Q

Of the four major pathways for dopamine, which one controls voluntary motion?

A

Substantia Nigra

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40
Q

Of the four major pathways for dopamine, which one goes from VTA to Nucleus Accumbens and is involved in pleasure/reward?

A

Mesolimbic

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41
Q

Of the four major pathways for dopamine, which one goes from VTA to cortex and is involved in attention and higher level of consciousness?

A

Mesocortical

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42
Q

Of the four major pathways for dopamine, which one goes from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary and in involved in decrease of prolactin release?

A

Tuberoinfundibular

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43
Q

What is found in locus coeruleus and is involved in wake-up and awareness?

A

NE

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44
Q

What is the hormone released by adrenal medulla?

A

Epi

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45
Q

What stores catecholamines and is found in adrenal medulla?

A

VMAT1

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46
Q

What stores catecholamines and is found in neuronal cells?

A

VMAT2

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47
Q

What inhibits VMAT1/2?

A

Reserpine

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48
Q

What NT is found in midline Raphe Nuclei, is derived from tryptophan, and is involved with attention and mood?

A

Serotonin

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49
Q

What serotonin receptor is only ionotropic and causes vomiting?

A

5HT3

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50
Q

What serotonin receptor is associated with Gi?

A

5HT1

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51
Q

What serotonin receptor is associated with Gq?

A

5TH2

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52
Q

What serotonin receptor has a high affinity for several anti-depressants?

A

5TH6

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53
Q

What serotonin receptor controls normal body weight and prevents seizures?

A

5HT2c

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54
Q

What degrades serotonin in order to remove it from the cleft?

A

MAO

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55
Q

What is found in tuberomammillary body and is involved in wakefulness?

A

Histamine

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56
Q

What Histamine receptor is located presynaptically and activation decreases histamine release?

A

H3

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57
Q

What Histamine receptor mediates neuronal effects of histamine?

A

H1 and H2

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58
Q

What degrades histamine in order to remove it from the cleft?

A

Diamine oxidase

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59
Q

What moves Ach to clear vesicles in order to control its release?

A

VAchT

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60
Q

What degrades Ach into choline (taken back up) and Acetate (diffuse away) in order to remove it from the cleft?

A

Acetylcholinesterase

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61
Q

What is found on smooth muscles and glands, activated by muscarine, and blocked by Atropine?

A

Muscarinic receptors

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62
Q

What muscarinic receptor is post-ganglionic ANS and CNS and is Gq?

A

M1

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63
Q

What muscarinic receptor is involved in cardiac and is Gi?

A

M2

64
Q

What muscarinic receptor is found on smooth muscles of bronchi and vasculature and is Gq?

A

M3

65
Q

What muscarinic receptor is found in presynaptic autoreceptor and striatum and is Gi?

A

M4

66
Q

What muscarinic receptor is found in cerebral vasculature and basal ganglia and is Gq?

A

M5

67
Q

Autoimmunity to GAD which converts glutamate to GABA causes what syndrome?

A

Stiff man syndrome

68
Q

What GABA receptor is ionotropic, lots of variability, has CL- channels (IPSP) and benzos binds alpha subunit to increase Cl?

A

GABA (A)

69
Q

What GABA receptor is metabotropic, decreases adenylate cyclase, interacts with Gq to decrease IP3/DAG and Ca2+?

A

GABA (B)

70
Q

What GABA receptor is ionotropic and is found in the retina?

A

GABA (C)

71
Q

What has receptors that have alpha and beta subunits, is ionotropic, and is blocked by strychnine?

A

Glycine

72
Q

What degrades Adenosine into inosine in order to remove it from the cleft?

A

Adenosine deaminase

73
Q

What adenosine receptor is metabotropic and can increase or decrease cAMP?

A

P1

74
Q

What ATP receptor is ionotropic, has Na or Ca or both?

A

P2X

75
Q

What ATP/ADP receptor is metabotropic and is Gq/Gi?

A

P2Y

76
Q

What induces sleep and has feedback inhibition of ATP release?

A

Adenosine

77
Q

What Opioid receptor increases K+ efflux and hyperpolarizes leading to analgesia, respiratory depression, constipation, euphora, sedation, increases GH/prolactin secretion, and miosis?

A

Mu

78
Q

What Opioid receptor decreases Ca2+ influx leading to analgesia, miosis. diuresis, sedation, and dysphoria?

A

Kappa

79
Q

What Opioid receptor decreases Ca2+ influx leading to analgesia?

A

Delta

80
Q

What has a role in pain modulation, neuroprotection, and mood/appetite control?

A

Endocannabinoids

81
Q

What endocannabinoid receptor is most abundant GPCR in brain, is Gi, decreases adenylate cyclase, binds 2AG and AEA equally, and decreases NT release/

A

CB1

82
Q

What CB1 modifies nociception?

A

Spinal cord CB1

83
Q

What CB1 is involved in neuroprotection against excitotoxicity?

A

Neocortical CB1

84
Q

What CB1 is involved in changes in affect and has some mortar effects?

A

Hippocampal and Basal ganglia CB1

85
Q

What endocannabinoid receptor binds 2AG better than AEA?

A

CB2

86
Q

What does ischemia do?

A

Disrupts intracellular Ca2+

87
Q

What receptor when activated increases Ca2+, has glycine binding sites, and has Mg2+ binding inside channel moved to let Ca2+ into cell?

A

NMDA

88
Q

What receptor when activated increases sodium and is the modulation site for Benzos?

A

AMPA

89
Q

What receptor may allow Ca2+ in but mostly NA+

A

Kainate

90
Q

What causes severe intractable seizure that lead to brain damage to one hemisphere of brain and the only treatment is to remove affected hemisphere?

A

Rasmussen’s Encephalopathy

91
Q

Arousal and awareness define what?

A

Concsiouness

92
Q

The absence of arousal/awareness along with no sleep/wake cycle signifies?

A

Coma

93
Q

Having a sleep/wake cycle on EEG but no awareness signifies?

A

Persistent vegetative state

94
Q

Having a sleep/wake cycle, awareness to simple commands but no communication signifies?

A

Minimally conscious state

95
Q

What creates background excitation but is not sufficient for full consciousness?

A

RAS

96
Q

What has parabrachial nuclei in rostral pons?

A

EAA

97
Q

EAA + Cholinergic produce?

A

Arousal

98
Q

What has pedunculopontine and lateral dorsal tegmental nuclei?

A

Cholinergic system (Ach)

99
Q

Adrenergic and serotonergic systems create?

A

Wakefulness and awareness

100
Q

What system is in the VTA and causes awareness leading to focused alertness?

A

Dopaminergic system

101
Q

RAS -> Thalamus synapse on non-specific nuclei, intralaminar nuclei of thalamus -> Glutamate release -> Thalamocortical neurons -> Cortex and release glutamate is what output pathway of RAS?

A

Dorsal path

102
Q

RAS -> Basal Forebrain and hypothalamus -> synapse in cortex release glutamate is what output pathway of RAS?

A

Ventral path

103
Q

Parabrachial nuclei uses what pathway?

A

Ventral path

104
Q

Cholinergic uses what pathway?

A

Ventral and Dorsal path

105
Q

Noradrenergic uses what pathway?

A

Ventral and dorsal path

106
Q

Serotonergic uses what pathway?

A

Ventral path

107
Q

Dopaminergic uses what pathway?

A

Ventral and dorsal path

108
Q

For the dopaminergic system, neurons are hyperpolarized and cuts cortex off form arousal system during what?

A

Sleep

109
Q

For the dopaminergic system, thalamic discharge becomes constant during what?

A

Wakefulness

110
Q

Afferent fibers synapse directly on alpha motor neurons for what reflex?

A

Monosynaptic reflex (stretch)

111
Q

Afferent fiber synapse onto interenour and the interneuron synapses onto another internor or alpha motor neuron for what reflex?

A

Polysynaptic reflex (Golgi Tendon Reflex)

112
Q

Myotactic, Golgi Tendon, and crossed extensor reflexes are at what level of CNS

A

SC

113
Q

Vestibular and righting synapse are at what level of CNS?

A

Brainstem/midbrain

114
Q

Placing response, hopping response are at what level of CNS?

A

Cortical

115
Q

What reflex is elicited by muscle spindle and activated by stretch/lengthening of muscle?

A

Myotatic reflex

116
Q

What part of muscle spindle is the one that makes the muscle move?

A

Extrafusal fibers

117
Q

Skeletal muscle in series with sensory component and is innervated by gamma motor neurons are what type of fibers?

A

Intrafusal fibers

118
Q

What are large, myelinated, rapid fibers that innervated bag and chain, and is sensitive to length of muscle along with how fast length is changing?

A

Ia fibers

119
Q

What fibers are myelinated, smaller, not as fast, innervate chain, only sensitive to length?

A

II fibers

120
Q

Ia fibers activates interneuron in SC that inhibits alpha motor neurons innervating antagonist muscle is what phenomenon?

A

Reciprocal inhibiton

121
Q

What is the abrupt relaxation of contracted muscle, is located in the tendons and innervated by Ib fibers?

A

Golgi Tendon Reflex

122
Q

In the GTR, the number of AP ___ as tension ___.

A

Increases for both

123
Q

What is the period of areflexia immediately after transection of SC?

A

Spinal shock

124
Q

In spinal shock, if input from brain is re-established what occurs?
If no innervation?

A

1) Motor recovery

2) Muscle dies

125
Q

What is loss of rostral pons, tonic reflex against gravity uncovered, and has extensor rigidity along with spasticity (clonus)?

A

Decerebrate posturing

126
Q

What is called when stroke damages internal capsule input from cortex leading to motor path disruption and posture dependent on head position?

A

Decorticat posturing

127
Q

In decorticate posturing with bilateral damage, when the head is neutral what happens?

A

Arms both slightly flexed

128
Q

In decorticate posturing with bilateral damage, when the head is turned what happens?

A

Arm on side of turn flexes more while other arm extends

129
Q

In decorticate posturing with unilateral damage what happens?

A

Arm on affected side flexes with head turning

130
Q

What are collection of neurons whose output creates a motor act that needs to be repeated over and over to be effective?

A

Central pattern generators

131
Q

In the absence of sensory input central pattern generators what happens?

A

Slows down walking pace

132
Q

What is strongly activated producing movements that bring arms/hands to face or chest?

A

Primary motor cortex

133
Q

What is Brodmann’s Area 6 and controls axial along with proximal muscle groups (posture)?

A

Supplemental motor cortex

134
Q

What is the area for production of complex motor acts as part of planning process and timing of motion?

A

Pre-Supplemental motor cortex

135
Q

What area ID’s goal of motion, determines if appropriate to move, and puts body in proper posture?

A

Pre-motor area

136
Q

What area relays for dorsal visual path and participates in integrating visual info and ID of objects that can be acted on?

A

Parietal cortex

137
Q

What tract affects the muscle ton of limb flexors and influences ongoing motion?

A

Rubrospinal tract

138
Q

What tract controls gamma-motor neuron and is sensitive to stretch?

A

Reticulospinal

139
Q

What functions in sequential complex motion, corrects direction/force of movement, balance movements, and learning motor patterns?

A

Cerebellum

140
Q

What is involved in postural control in the cerebellum?

A

Vermis of spinocerebellum

141
Q

What part of cerebellum functions in force and direction of movement?

A

Outer part of spinocerebellum

142
Q

What plans complex movement and is involved in sequence motion?

A

Cerebrocerebellum

143
Q

What is involved in balance and eye movement along with planning for future?

A

Vestibulocerebellum

144
Q

What are the outputs from cerebellum?

A

Deep cerebellar nuclei (FDEG)

145
Q

An input to cerebellum that function in proprioception of the entire body and is excitatory to purkinje cell and deep cerebellar nuclei are?

A

Climbing fibers

146
Q

An input to cerebellum that function in proprioception to entire body and cortex and are excitorar to deep nuclear neuron and granule cells are?

A

Mossy fibers

147
Q

An input to cerebellum that are activated by mossy fibers, have axons that branch to form parallel fibers, and it’s parallel fibers are excitatory to purkinje cells are?

A

Granule cells

148
Q

What initiates/reinforces muscle activation?

What turns off motion?

A

1) Climbing fibers

2) GABA

149
Q

In the Basal Ganglia, what does the striatum consist of?

A

Caudate and putamen

150
Q

What does the putamen function in?

A

Motor control

151
Q

In the Basal Ganglia, what part is GPi?

A

Internal (medial)

152
Q

In the Basal Ganglia, what part is GPe?

A

External (lateral)

153
Q

In the Basal Ganglia, what part is SNPC?

A

Pars compacta

154
Q

In the Basal Ganglia, what part is SNPR?

A

Pars reticularis

155
Q

In the Nigrostriatal Dopaminergic system, what do D1 cells do? D2?

A

D1: Excite
D2: Inhibit

156
Q

The direct pathway utilizes what?

A

D1 (Excitatory)

157
Q

The indirect pathway utilizes what?

A

D2 (Inhibitory)

Neuro videos (8 decks)

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