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MedPhysio > Physio Handout > Flashcards

Physio Handout Flashcards

1
Q

Powerhouse of the cell.

A

Mitochondria

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2
Q

Organelle for Protein synthesis.

A

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

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3
Q

Organelle for synthesis of lipids; contains oxidades, catalases; for detoxification.

A

Smooth Endoplastic Reticulum

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4
Q

Contains lysozyme, lysoferritin, and acud hydrolase.

A

Lysosomes

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5
Q

Only substance modified in the RER, not in the Golgi.

A

Collagen

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6
Q

Moves substances from center to periphery of the cell; involved in Anterograde axonal transport.

A

Kinesin

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7
Q

Moves substance from the periphery to the cebter of the cell; involved in Retrograde axonal transport.

A

Dynein

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8
Q

Provides structural support component for the cell movement.

A

F-actin

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9
Q

Substances that passes throught the water clefts/pores in the membranes.

A

Water
Glucose
Amino acids

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10
Q

Junctional complex that is disk-shaped for firm intercellular adhesions.

A

Macula adherens a.k.a. Desmosomes

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11
Q

Junctional complex for communication that serve as regulated cytoplasmic bridge for sharing of small molecules between cells.

A

Gap junctions

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12
Q

Ring shaped junctional complex that increases surface area contact, in epithelial cells & endothelial cells; intercalated disks of cardiac muscles.

A

Zonula Adherens

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13
Q

Functional unit of a gap junction.

A

Connexon

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14
Q

Subunit of connexon.

A

Connexin

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15
Q

Connexin disorder involving Cx32.

A

Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

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16
Q

Main cation in ECF.

A

Na

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17
Q

Main cation in ICF.

A

K+

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18
Q

Hallmark of carrier mediated transport.

A

✔Stereospecificity
✔Saturation
✔Competetion

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19
Q

Passive, Downhill, Non carrier mediated transport.

A

Simple diffusion

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20
Q

Passive, Downhill, Carrier mediated

A

Facilitated diffusion

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21
Q

Active, Uphill, Carrier mediated, uses atp

A

Primary Active Transport

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22
Q

Active, Uphill, Carrier mediated, uses Na gradient

A

Secondary Active Transport

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23
Q

Gases, Alcohol, Steroid hormones transport.

A

Simple diffusion

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24
Q

Transport process of GLUT-1,2,3,4,5

A

Facilitated diffusion

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25
Q

Transport process of SGLT-1, SGLT-2, Na-K-2Cl

A

Secondary Active Transport

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26
Q

Transport Na-K-ATPase Pump, Proton Pump

A

Primary Active Transport

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27
Q

Exhibited only by excitable cells (neurons, muscle cells).

A

Action potential

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28
Q

Cells that produces CSF

A

Ependymal cells

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29
Q

Macrophage of the brain

A

Microglia

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30
Q

Regulates ECF ions and NTs; gives mechanical support; forms BBB

A

Astrocytes

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31
Q

Creates myelin in the CNS

A

Oligodendrocytes

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32
Q

Creates myelin in the PNS

A

Schwann cells

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33
Q

Brain tumors from non-mature neurons

A

Neuroblastoma

Retinoblastoma

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34
Q

“Receiving” portion of the neuron for NTs

A

Dendrites

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35
Q

Where action potential in a neuron actually starts

A

Axon hillock

initial segment

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36
Q

Function of myelin sheath

A

Insulator

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37
Q

Unmyelinated portion of the axon with highest concentration of Na channels

A

Node of Ranvier

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38
Q

Branches of the axons

A

Neural fibrils

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39
Q

Terminal portion of a neural fibril that contains NT-containing vesicles

A

Axon Terminal / Boutons / End-Feet

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40
Q

Space between 2 neurons

A

Synaps

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41
Q

Opening of Na-ACtivation Gates (Na influx)

A

Depolarization

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42
Q

Closure of Na-Inactivation Gates + Opening of K Channels (K Efflux)

A

Repolarization

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43
Q

Membrane potential where AP is inevitable

A

Threshold

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44
Q

Portion of AP where MP is Positive

A

Overshoot

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45
Q

Portion of AP where MP is

A

Undershoot

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46
Q

No AP can be elicited despite increased stimulus

A

Absolute Refractory Period

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47
Q

More inward current needed to generate AP

A

Relative Refractory Period

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48
Q

Causes activation of Synaptic vesicles

A

Ca Voltage Gated Channels

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49
Q

Death of Axon Distal to the site of injury

A

Anterograde degeneration

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50
Q

Changes to soma after axon is transected

A

Axonal reaction / Chromatolysis

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51
Q

Principle that in spinal cord the dorsal roots are sensory and ventral roots are motor.

A

Bell-Magendie law

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52
Q

Found in NMJ, Sympa and Para preganglionic neurons; Para and some Sympa Post-ganglionic neurons

A

Acetylcholine

  • Decreased in Alzheimer’s and Huntington
  • Found in basal ganglia, large pyramidal cells of motor cortex, giganto cellular neurons of the REA
  • maybe excitatory or inhibitory
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53
Q

Triggers REM sleep

A

Acetylcholine

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54
Q

Found in locus ceruleus of pons, pre ganglionic of sympa; for arousal/wakefulness

A

Norepinephrine

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55
Q

Secreted mainly by the adrenal medulla

A

Epinephrine

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56
Q

Found in substantia nigra, known as PIF in the hypothalamus; for fine tuning movements

A

Dopamine

D1 receptors: activates adenylate cyclase using Gs proteins;
D2 receptors: inhibits adenlylate cyclase using Gi protein

  • decreased in Parkinson
  • increased in Schizoprenia
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57
Q

Found in the median raphe of the brainstem, from tryptophan, converted to melatonin; low levels association with depression

A

Serotonin

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58
Q

From Arginine, not pre-formed; inhibitory NT

A

Nitric oxide

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59
Q

Found in spinal interneurons; main inhibitory NT

A

Glycine

  • Increase Cl influx
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60
Q

Found in the brain (e.g. spiny neurons of the striatum, Purkinje cells of the cerebellum)

A

GABA

  • main inhibitory NT, from glutamate
  • inc Cl influx (GABA-A) or K Efflux (GABA-B)
  • responsible for coordinated movements
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61
Q

Excitatory NT in the CNS; activate NMDA receptors

A

Glutamate

  • involved in fast pain
  • activate Kainate, AMPA receptors
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62
Q

Inhibits neurons in the brain involved in pain receptors

A

Opioid peptides

*enkephalins, endorphins, dynorphins

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63
Q

Involved in slow pain

A

Substance P

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64
Q

Originates in te superior colliculus of the midbrain, projects to the contralateral cervical spinal cord to control the head and eye movements

A

Tectospinal Tract

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65
Q

Corticospinal tract neurons that innervates spinal motor neurons, but they can also include brainstem neurons that control spinal motor neurons

A

Upper motor neuron

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66
Q

Area in the brain for hearing and balance

A

Temporal lobe

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67
Q

Area in the brain for vision

A

Occipital lobe

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68
Q

Area in the brain for judgement, calculation, personality

A

Frontal lobe

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69
Q

Area in the brain for motor

A

Frontal lobe

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70
Q

Area in the brain for somatosensory

A

Parietal lobe

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71
Q

Area in the brain for Sex, Thirst, Appetite, Body clock, Temperature

A

Hypothalamus

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72
Q

Area in the brain for Coughing, Vomiting, Swallowing; Respiratory and Vasomotor center

A

Medulla

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73
Q

Area where Apneustic and Pneumotaxic center is located

A

Pons

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74
Q

Micturition center is located

A

Pons

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75
Q

Area in the brain for Behavior, Emotions, Motivation

A

Limbic system

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76
Q

Location: Broca’s Area?

A

Opercular / Triangular part of the Inferior Frontal lobe

BA 45

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77
Q

Location: Wernicke’s Area?

A

Superior temporal lobe

BA 21, 22

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78
Q

Contributes to balance; Silent area of the brain

A

Cerebellum

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79
Q

Communication between corresponding areas of the cerebral hemispheres.

A

Corpus callosum

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80
Q

Where memory is stored

A

Throughout the brain

esp TEMPORAL lobe

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81
Q

Conversion of short term memory to long term memory.

A

Consolidation

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82
Q

Cerebral cortex order neurons.

A

1st order: Initiation
2nd order: Interpretation
3rd order: Integration

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83
Q

Output pathway from reward and punishment centers; Lesions here will produce ANTEROGRADE amnesia

A

Hippocampus

  • create memory based on experience
  • processor
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84
Q

Help search memory storehouses; lesions will produce RETROGRADE amnesia

A

Thalamus

*relay station for almost all sensations

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85
Q

Can see words but readily grasp meaning despite normal intelligence.

A

Dyslexia

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86
Q

Site of Pathology of Dyslexia

A

Dominant Temporoparietal area

*secondary visual area

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87
Q

Disease caused by a lesion on the arcuate fasciculus connecting the broca’s and wernicke’s area.

A

Conduction aphasia

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88
Q

Sympathectomy effect

A

Orthostatic hypotension

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89
Q

Person punched in the epigastric area developing hypotension, bradycardia, weak pulses, what reflex is seen?

A

Vasovagal reflex

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90
Q

Decrease in HR upon compression of the eyeballs due to connection between CN VI and CN X.

A

Oculocardic reflex

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91
Q

EEG wave: alert; REM

A

Beta wave

  • active dreaming
  • 1st 90 minutes of sleeps
  • difficult to arouse
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92
Q

EEG wave: relaxed

A

Alpha wave

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93
Q

EEG wave: deep sleep

A

Delta wave

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94
Q

Substance suspected to induce sleep

A

Muramyl peptide

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95
Q

Percentage of REM sleep in newborns

A

50%

  • 25% in adults
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96
Q

Master clock

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

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97
Q

Regulates master clock

A

Pineal gland

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98
Q

Superior cervical ganglia, Tryptophan, Epinephrine, Pineal Hydroxyidole-O-methyltransferase would increase

A

Melatonin secretion

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99
Q

Bilateral synchronous symmetric “spike-and-wave” discharge on EEG.

A

Absence seizure

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100
Q

Lesion on this area of the brain will result to Narcolepsy.

A

Hippocampus

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101
Q

Hypothalamic nucleus associated with temperature regulation.

A

Anterior nucleus

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102
Q

Synthesizes Vasopressin

A

Supraoptic nuclei in Hypothalamus

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103
Q

Synthesizes Oxytocin

A

Paraventricular nuclei (Magnocellular cells)

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104
Q

Responsible for Appetite

A

Lateral nuclei

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105
Q

Responsible for Satiety

A

Ventromedial nuclei

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106
Q

Responsible for Dissipation of heat

A

Anterior nuclei

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107
Q

Responsible for Conservation of heat

A

Posterior nuclei

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108
Q

Reward center

A

Medial Forebrain Bundle

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109
Q

Punishment center

A

Central Gray Area or Aqueduct of Sylvius

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110
Q

Responsible for social inhibition

A

Amygdala

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111
Q

CSF produced per day

A

500 mL

*150 mL in the brain

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112
Q

Acute effect of hypoxia begin at ___ ft.

A

12, 000 feet

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113
Q

Seizures begin at ____ ft.

A

18, 000 feet

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114
Q

Death at ____ ft.

A

23, 000 feet

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115
Q

5 Mechanism of Acclimatization of Low PO2.

A

1) Increased RR-> RAL->Renal compensation-> normal pH
2) Polycythemia via EPO-> Inc 2,3 BPG-> shift to R of O2-Hgb dissociation curve
3) Inc diffusing capacity for O2
4) Angiogenesis via VEGF
5) inc mitochondria

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116
Q

What is the cardiac reserve?

A

400% - 600%

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117
Q

Effects of testosterone on athletic performance.

A
  • increase muscle size
  • muscle strength
  • muscle aggression
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118
Q

Maximum allowable negative G force

A
  • 20G

* positive: +6G to +10G

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119
Q

Most common symptom of decompression sickness.

A

“Bends”

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120
Q

First symptom at 120 feet below sea level.

A

Joviality

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121
Q

Capillary network in Cortical nephrons

A

Peritubular arteries

*contains interstitial cells that produce EPO

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122
Q

Capillary network in Juxtamedullary nephrons

A

Vasa recta

  • counter-current exchanger
  • maintain the gradient
  • remove waste
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123
Q

Normal capacity of urinary bladder

A

600 mL

Urge to urinates: >150 mL (25% filled)
Reflex contraction: >300 mL (50% filled)
Detrussor muscle: responsible for contraction, triggered by distention

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124
Q

Two major parts of nephron

A

1) Renal or Malphigian Corpuscle

2) Renal tubular system: PCT, LH, DT, CD

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125
Q

Modified cells capable of phagocytosis in between glomerulus.

A

Mesangial cells

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126
Q

“Counter current multiplier”

A

Loop of Henle

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127
Q

Directly proportional to pressure difference between renal artery and renal vein; inversely proportional to resistance of renal vasculature.

A

Renal blood flow

*22% of CO

vasodilation: Increase RBF
vasoconstriction: Decrease RBF

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128
Q

Estimated by PAH clearance

A

Renal plasma flow

RPF= [RBF x (1-Hemtocrit)]

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129
Q

Normal GFR

A

125 ml/min or 180L/day

GFR= Filtration fraction x RPF
GFR= Filtration fraction x [RBF x (1-Hemtocrit)]
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130
Q

Filtered; NOT reabsorbed; secreted
Highest clearance
Estimates RPF & RBF

A

Paraamino-hippuric acid (PAH)

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131
Q

Filtered; NOT reabsorbed; NOT secreted

Estimates GFR

A

Inulin

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132
Q

Filtered; Reabsorbed; NOT secreted

A

Glucose

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133
Q

Activated before RAAS

A

Baroreceptor reflex

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134
Q

Sense BP changes

A

Macula densa

*detects changes in sodium concentration

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135
Q

JG (granular cells) cells secrete

A

Renin

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136
Q

Maintains (preserves) normal GFR

A

Angiotensin II

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137
Q

Inc Na reabsorption
Inc K secretion
Inc H secretion

A

Aldosterone

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138
Q

Side effects of High aldosterone levels.

A
  • HPN
  • Hypokalemia
  • Metabolic alkalosis

(Conn syndrome)

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139
Q

Substances start to appear in the urine.

A

Renal threshold

  • some nephrons exhibit saturation
  • 200mg/dL for glucose
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140
Q

All excess substance appear in the urine.

A

Renal Transport Maximum

  • all nephrons exhibit saturation
  • 375 mg/dl for glucose
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141
Q

3 urinary buffers

A

NaHCO3
NaHPO4
NH4

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142
Q

Location of Thirst center

A

ANteroventral wall of the 3rd Ventricle and Pre-optic nuclei

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143
Q

Causes 0.5F increase in temp during ovulation

A

Progesterone

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144
Q

Reabsorb Na; Secrete K

A

Principal cells in late DT

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145
Q

Reabsorb K; Secrete H

A

Intercalated cells in late DT

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146
Q

First step in urine formation

A

Glomerular filtration

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147
Q

Effect on GFR: Afferent Vasodilation

A

Increase

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148
Q

Effect on GFR: Efferent Vasodilation

A

Decrease

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149
Q

Effect on GFR: Afferent Vasoconstriction

A

Decrease GFR

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150
Q

Effect on GFR: Moderate Efferent Vasoconstriction

A

Increase

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151
Q

Effect on GFR: Severe Efferent Vasoconstriction

A

Decrease

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152
Q

Detects movement of objects and low frequency vibration; found in glabrous skin

A

Meissner’s corpuscle

Fast adapting Type 1

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153
Q

For continuous touch; grouped into Iggo dome receptors

A

Merkel’s disk

Slow adapting Type 1

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154
Q

Detects movement of object in skin

A

Hair-end organ

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155
Q

For pressure; for heavy and prolonged touch; found in deep skin, internal tissues and joint capsules

A

Ruffini’s end organs

Slow adapting Type 2

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156
Q

For high frequency vibration; onion-like structure

A

Pacinian corpuscle

Fast adapting Type 2

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157
Q

2 point discrimination

A

Merkel’s disk (SA 1): stationary

Meissner’s corpuscle (FA1): moving

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158
Q

Order neuron of sensory pathways location

A

1st: dorsal root / cranial nerve ganglia
2nd: spinal cord / brainstem
3rd: thalamus
4th: sensory cortex

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159
Q

Action potential in retina is due to:

A

Hyper-polarization

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160
Q

How is color blindness transmitted?

A

X-linked recessive

20x more common in males

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161
Q

Substance that directly stimulates the rods

A

Metarhodopsin II

162
Q

Receptors connected to bipolar cells

A

Center of Receptive field

163
Q

Receptors connected to horizontal cells

A

Surround of Receptive field

164
Q

Respond to Bars of Light with correct position & orientation

A

Simple Cells

165
Q

Respond to moving bars or edges of light

A

Complex cells

166
Q

Respond to lines with particular length and curves/angles

A

Hypercomplex cells

167
Q

Absorb stray light and prevent them from scattering;

Site for Macular Degeneration & Retinal Detachment

A

Pigment epithelium

168
Q

Retinal Glial cells that maintain internal geometry

A

Mueller cells

169
Q

Interneurons that connects rods & cones;

Contrast Detectors

A

Bipolar cells

170
Q

Retinal output cells whose axons from the optic nerve

A

Ganglion cells

P cells: Color, Form, Fine details
M cells: Illumination, Movement
W cells: Unknown function

171
Q

Cutting of this structure causes ipsilateral total blindness.

A

optic nerve

172
Q

Cutting of this structure causes bitemporal hemianopsia.

A

optic chiasm

173
Q

Cutting of this structure causes contralateral homonymous hemianopsia.

A

optic tract

geniculocalcarine tract

174
Q

Cutting of this structure causes contralateral superior homonymous quadrantinopsia.

A

Meyer’s loop (temporal lobe);

Inferior calcarine fissure (with macular sparing)

175
Q

Cutting of this structure causes contralateral inferior homonymous quadrantinopsia.

A

Parietal lobe

Superior calcarine fissure (with macular sparing)

176
Q

Most common occupational related disease

A

Occupational Hearing loss

*85dB-maximum tolerable loudness

177
Q

Causes pain, and triggers attenuation reflex

A

> 120dB

*stapedius and tensor tympani contract respectively

178
Q

Respond to high-frequency sounds;

A

Hair cells near BASE (oval and round windows)

179
Q

Respond to low-frequency sounds;

A

Hair cells near APEX (helicotrema)

180
Q

Frequency analyzer;

Membrane that separates scala tympani and media.

A

Basilar membrane

*where Organ of Corti is

181
Q

Function of Pinna

A

Sound collection & localization

182
Q

Function of Middle ear

A

Impedance matching

183
Q

Connects Outer ear and Middle ear that equalizes pressure.

A

Eustachian tube

184
Q

For linear & sometimes Angular acceleration/Deceleration

A

Utricle & Saccule

185
Q

For Angular acceleration/Deceleration alone

A

Semicircular canals

186
Q

For Vertical Acceleration

A

Saccule

*tip links in hair cell: involved in regulation of disotrition-activated ion channels

187
Q

For Horizontal Acceleration

A

Utricle

188
Q

Caused by continued movement of endolymph in the semicircular canals, with consequent bending of the cupula and stimulation of hair cells.

A

Post rotatory Nystagmus

189
Q

Masks Background noise

A

Attenuation / Auditory reflex

190
Q

Max allowable workplace loudness x 8hours

A

85-90 dB

191
Q

Loudness causing pain

A

120 dB

192
Q

Location: Sweet

A

Tip of the Tongue

193
Q

Location: Umami

A

Tip of the Tongue

194
Q

Location: Bitter

A

Back of the Tongue

195
Q

Location: Salty, Sour

A

Sides of the Tongue

196
Q

Nerve fiber used by Smell

A

Typa C (slow)

197
Q

Taste with lowest stimulation threshold

A

Bitter

198
Q

Unpleasant perception of taste (metallic, salty, foul, rancid).

A

Dysgeusia / Parageusia

199
Q

Produces ptyalin

A

Parotid gland (serous)

200
Q

Sites of production of RBCs in order.

A

1) Yolk sac / AGM (3rd week): 1st trimester
2) Liver (3rd month), Spleen: 2nd-3rd
3) Bone marrow: after birth

Main site: liver

201
Q

Condition when liver still produce RBCs even after birth.

A

Extramedullary hematopoiesis

202
Q

Derived from megkaryocytes that lasts for 7-10 days;

forms initial thrombus

A

Platelets

203
Q

Lasts for 120 days; relies on ANAEROBIC glycolysis.

A

RBC

*biconcave due to spectrin

204
Q

Derived from B-cells, secrete Ig

A

Plasma cells

205
Q

Cells involved in INNATE Immunity (“security of the cell”).

A 
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Dendritic cells
Natural Killer cells
Complement proteins: C3b, C3a, C5a, C5b-C9
206
Q

Involved in ADAPTIVE Immunity; specific

A

T-cells
B-cells
Antibodies
Complement proteins: C3b, C3a, C5a, C5b-C9

207
Q

Most common blood cell;

Highly lobulated nucleus;

A

Neutrophils

208
Q

Least common blood cell;

Bilobulated/trilobulated, blue

A

Basophils

209
Q

Cell that is bilobulated, pink

A

Eosinophils

210
Q

Largest blood cell;

Eccentricaly placed nucleus

A

Monocytes

211
Q

Involved in adaptive immunity;

round, densely stained nucleus with a pale basophilic, non-granular cytoplasm

A

Lymphocytes

212
Q

Most abundant immunoglobulin;
Predominant antibody in secondary responses;
only able to cross the placenta

A

IgG

  • dimeric
  • smallest
213
Q

Main immunoglobulin concerned with primary immune response; present in uncommitted B cells

A

IgM

  • pentameric
  • largest, with 10 binding sites
214
Q

Main immunoglobulin in secretions including EXOCRINE secretions

A

IgA

215
Q

Antibody mediated allergies and hypersensitivity

A

IgE

216
Q

Acts as an antigen receptor when present on the surface of certain B lymphocytes

A

IgD

217
Q

Complement protein that acts as “molecular vetsin” (Opsonization).

A

C3b

218
Q

Complement protein that induces inflammation (Anaphylatoxin).

A

C3a, C4a, C5a

219
Q

Complement protein chemotactic to WBCs

A

C5a

220
Q

Complement protein in membrane attack complex (form holes in the cell membranes)

A

C5b-C9

221
Q

Causes increased bone marrow RBC production in response to hypoxia.

A

EPO

222
Q

Last cell capable of mitosis

A

Polychromatic erythroblast / Pro rubricyte

223
Q

Sign due to reduced hemoglobin concentration of the blood in the capillaries >5g/dL.

A

Cyanosis

224
Q

Lifespan of:

  • Reticulocyte
  • Adult RBC
  • Fetal RBC
A
  • Reticulocyte: 2 days
  • Adult RBC: 120 days
  • Fetal RBC: 90 days
225
Q

Lifespan of

  • Granulocytes
  • Monocytes
  • Lymphocytes
A
  • Granulocytes: 4-8 hrs in blood; 4-5 days in tissues
  • Monocytes: 10-20 hrs in blood; months in tissues
  • Lymphocytes: weeks to months
226
Q

Movement of neutrophils and macrophages towards a CHEMICAL signal.

A

Chemotaxis

227
Q

Movement out of the circulatory system and into the site of injury.

A

Diapedesis

228
Q

Most common type of Graft.

A

Allograft

Autograft: same person = 0% risk of rejection
Isograft / Syngeneic: among identical twins = 0% risk of rejection
Allograft: same species; imminent risk of rejection
Xenograft: between species

229
Q

Endothelial molecule for Rolling.

A

P Selectin: Neutrophils, Monocytes, T-lymphocytes

Glycam-1: Neutrophils, Monocytes

230
Q

Endothelial molecule for Adhesion.

A

VCAM-1: Eosinophils, Monocytes, Lymphocytes

231
Q

Endothelial molecule for Rolling & Adhesion.

A

E Selectin: Neutrophils, Monocytes, Lymphocytes

232
Q

Endothelial molecule for Adhesion, Arrest, and Transmigration.

A

ICAM-1: Neutrophils, Monocytes, Lymphocytes

233
Q

Mediated by local myogenic spasm and endothelin 1.

A

Vascular constriction

234
Q

Primary Hemostasis / Formation of Loose Platelet Plug

A

Platelet ADHESION: mediated by vWF (bv) and Gpb1 (platelets)

Platelet ACTIVATION: change shape

Platelet AGGREGATION: mediated by fibrinogen and Gp2b-3a of platelets

235
Q

Vasodilate in response to hypoxia to provide O2.

A

Systemic arterioles

236
Q

Lowest pressure; 0-4 mmHg

A

Right Atrium

237
Q

Shunts in Fetus

A

Ductus venosus: liver
Ductus arteriosus: PA and aorta
Foramen ovale: RA & LA

238
Q

Control conduits; main determinant of TPR

A

Arterioles

  • may rapidly dilate or constrict
  • (+) greatest resistance
    a1: constriction
    b2: dilation (relax)
  • predominant contributor of TPR
239
Q

Highest pressure individual basis; stressed volume

A

Arteries

240
Q

Highest total cross sectional area in the body; endothelial cell only

A

Capillaries

241
Q

A.k.a. Capacitance vessels;with one way valves;

reservoir of blood

A

Veins

242
Q

Reynold’s number for Laminar flow

A

<2000

Laminar flow: streamlined; highest at the center, lower at the walls

243
Q

Reynold’s number for Turbulent flow

A

> 2000

Turbulent flow: disorderly; vessel narrowing, anemia

244
Q

Marker for Cardiac function

A

Ejection Fraction

EF= SV/EDV

245
Q

Amount of blood per heart beat

A

Stroke volume

246
Q

Pressure at the level of arterioles and arteries that opposes blood coming out of the heart.

A

Total peripheral resistance

*predominant component of diastolic pressure

247
Q

Amount of blood in the ventricle immediately before systole.

A

End Diastolic Volume (EDV)

248
Q

Amount of blood in the ventricle immediately before diastole.

A

End Systolic Volume (ESV)

249
Q

Ventricular Contraction

A

Systole

250
Q

Ventricular Relaxation

A

Diastole

251
Q

LVEDV

A

Cardiac Preload

252
Q

Aortic Pressure

A

Cardiac Afterload

253
Q

Stroke volume/Arterial Compliance

A

Pulse pressure

254
Q

Used to estimate L atrial Pressure

A

Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure

255
Q

Prolonged QT interval

A

Hypocalcemia

256
Q

Prolonged PR interval

A

Heart blocks

257
Q

Peak or Tall T waves, reduction of size of P waves, widened QRS, evolution to sinusoidal shape

A

Hyperkalemia

258
Q

Isoelectric portion of ECG where ventricles are completely depolarized.

A

ST segment

259
Q

ECG: Atrial Depolarization

A

P wave

260
Q

ECG: Ventricular Depolarization

A

QRS

261
Q

ECG: Ventricular Repolarization

A

T wave

262
Q

ECG: Initial Repolarization of Ventricles

A

P-R interval

263
Q

ECG: Intraventricular Conduction Time

A

QRS duration

264
Q

ECG: Duration of Ventricular Action Potential

A

Q-T interval

265
Q

Reflex: An increase in venous return will increase HEART RATE.

A

Bainbridge reflex

*volume receptors of atria

266
Q

An increase in venous return will increase STROKE VOLUME.

A

Frank-Starling Mechanism

267
Q

Set point of MAP in Vasomotor center

A

100 mmHG

268
Q

Respond in low BP

A

Carotid Sinus

  • low and high
  • 50 mmHg - 180 mmHg
269
Q

Respond in high BP >80mmHg

A

Aortic Arch

270
Q

Branch of CN IX that carries signals from carotid sinus to NTS.

A

Hering’s nerve

271
Q

Volume equilibrium between brain tissue, blood, and CSF.

A

Monroe-Kelly Doctrine

272
Q

Triad: HPN, Irregular respiration and Bradycardia

A

Cushing Reflex

increased ICP

273
Q

Phase of cardiac cycle where Aortic pressure is highest.

A

Reduced Ventricular Ejection

274
Q

Phase of cardiac cycle where Ventricular pressure is lowest.

A

Isovolumic Relaxation

  • closure of SL valves
  • v wave (atrial filling)
275
Q

Closure of aortic valve in aortic pressure curve

A

Dicrotic notch

276
Q

The aortic valve closure marks the beginning of which phase in cardiac cycle?

A

Isovolumic Relaxation

277
Q

Closure of AV valves

A

S1

Isovolumic contraction

278
Q

Closure of SL valves

A

S2 (split during inspiration)

Isovolumic relaxation

279
Q

S3

A

Rapid ventricular filling

280
Q

S4

A

Stiff ventricles

Atrial Contraction/Systole

281
Q

Where blood velocity is fastest

A

Aorta

282
Q

Main fuel of the Heart

A

fatty acids

283
Q

Disappearance of Korotkoff sounds at the level above diastolic pressure

A

Auscultatory gap

284
Q

Prolonged PR interval (>200ms);

Conduction is slow but not completely interrupted

A

1st degree AV Block

285
Q

Ventricular rate lower than atrial rate;
PR interval increases then ventricular beat is dropped;
Wenckeback phenomenon)

A

2nd degree AV Block

286
Q

Conduction to ventricles completely interrupted and ventricles beat at low rate;
idioventricular rhythm

A

3rd degree (Complete) AV Block

287
Q

Describes fluid movement into (absorption) or out (filtration) the capillary

A

Starling Forces

288
Q

Normal net filtration

A

2mL/min

289
Q

Most potent vasoconstrictor

A

Vasopressin

290
Q

Most important controller of coronary blood flow.

A

Adenosine

291
Q

Favors filtration;

Determined by pressure & resistance in arteries & veins

A

Capillary Hydrostatic Pressure

NV: 25 mmHg

292
Q 
Opposes filtration (favors absorption);
Slightly negative due to lymphatic pump
A

Interstitial Hydrostatic Pressure

NV: -3 mmHg

293
Q

Favors filtration;

Increased by increases in plasma protein concentration

A

Capillary Oncotic Pressure

NV: 28 mmHg

294
Q

Favors filtration;

Determined by interstitial protein concentration

A

Interstitial Oncotic Pressure

NV: 8 mmHg

295
Q

Hydraulic conductance of capillary wall.

A

Filtration coefficient

296
Q

Counteracts TXA2

A

Prostacyclin (PGI2)

297
Q

Most important factor in the closure of Ductus arteriosus.

A

Increased O2 tension

298
Q

Organ with greatest blood flow per 100g of tissue

A

Kidneys

299
Q

Functional anatomic unit of the Lung

A

Segmental Bronchi to Alveoli

300
Q

Respiratory unit of the Lung

A

Respiratory bronchiole
Alveolar ducts
Alveoli

301
Q

Anatomic deadspace

A

Nose to Terminal Bronchiole

302
Q

Produces mucus

A

Goblet cell

303
Q

May secrete protective GAGS and metabolize air-borne toxins

A

Clara cells

club cells

304
Q

Largest circumference in the tracheobronchial tree.

A

Trachea

305
Q

Law implying that an increase in Lung Volume will decrease pressure.

A

Boyle’s Law

306
Q

Law for transfer of gases through simple diffusion in cell membranes or capillary walls.

A

Fick’s Law of Diffusion

307
Q

Maintains oxygenation in between breaths;
Prevents lung collapse after max exhalation;
Cannot be measured directly by spirometry.

A

Residual volume

308
Q

Amount of air inspired/expired during quiet breathing.

A

Tidal volume

309
Q

Marker for Lung function;

Equilibrium/Resting volume of the Lung

A

Functional Residual Capacity

*air left in the lungs after a regular exhalation

310
Q

Directly measured in spirometry.

A

Vital capacity

311
Q

Anatomic Dead Space + Alveolar Dead Space

A

Physiologic Dead SPace

312
Q

Minute ventilation corrected for physiologic dead space.

A

Alveolar Ventilation

313
Q

Total rate of air movement in/out of the lungs.

A

Minute Ventilation

314
Q

Connects alveoli to another alveoli; enable stability of alveoli

A

Pores of Kohn

315
Q

Ability of the respiratory membrane to exchange gas between alveoli & pulmonary blood.

A

Diffusing capacity

316
Q

Percentage of dissolved O2

A

2%

317
Q

Percentage of O2 bound to Hgb

A

98%

318
Q

Hgb with attached O2

A

Oxyhemoglobin

319
Q

Hgb without attached O2

A

Deoxyhemoglobin

320
Q

Hgb with Fe+3, doesnt bind O2

A

Methemoglobin

321
Q

a2y2, higher affinity for O2

A

Fetal hemoglobin

322
Q

sickled RBCs, less affinity to O2

A

Hemoglobin S

323
Q

% of blood that gives up to its O2 as it passes through the tissues

A

Utilization coefficient

324
Q

O2 affecting affinity of CO2/H+ to Hgb

A

Chloride shift

325
Q

O2/H+ affecting affinity of O2 to Hgb

A

Haldane effect

326
Q

V/Q = infinity

A

Dead space

327
Q

V/Q = zero

A

Shunt

328
Q

Zone with no blood flow

A

Zone 1

329
Q

Zone with Intermittent blood flow

A

Zone 2

330
Q

Zone with complete blood flow

A

Zone 3

  • Lungs in supine position
  • Lung during exercise
331
Q

For normal inspiration; Main center that sends inspiratory ramp signal

A

DRG (medulla)

332
Q

For Forced inspiration and passive expiration; overdrive mechanism in exercise

A

VRG

supplements

333
Q

Located in upper pons that modify the DRG;

Limits duration of inspiration and increases RR

A

Pneumotaxic Center

334
Q

Located in lower pons;

Prolongs duration of inspiration and decreases RR

A

Apneustic Center

335
Q

Located in ventral medulla;

excited by CSF H+ from plasma CO2

A

Central Chemoreceptor

*adapt within 1-2 days

336
Q

Stimulated by Lung distention;

Initiated Hering-Breuer reflex

A

Lung Stretch receptors

337
Q

Stimulated by noxious chemicals

A

Irritant receptor

338
Q

Strongest layer of the esophagus.

A

Submucosa

339
Q

Periodic contractions due to spike potentials (ture AP).

A

Phasic Contraction

340
Q

Constant level of contraction without regular rest due to sub threshold slow waves.

A

Tonic Contractions

341
Q

Source of CCK in duodenum.

A

I cells

342
Q

Secretes Mucus in GIT.

A

Mucous Neck Cell

343
Q

Secretes HCl in GIT.

A

Parietal / Oxyntic Cell

344
Q

Secretes Pepsinogen in GIT.

A

Chief / Peptic Cell

345
Q

Secretes IF in GIT.

A

Parietal / Oxyntic Cell

346
Q

Secretes Serotonin in GIT.

A

Enterochromaffin

347
Q

Secretes Bicarbonate in GIT.

A

Mucous Neck Cell

348
Q

Secretes Gastrin in GIT.

A

G Cells

349
Q

Secretes Histmine in GIT.

A

ECL cells

350
Q

Inhibits appetite

A

Satiety Center

351
Q

Stimulates appetite

A

Hunger Center

352
Q

Releases POMC to decrease appetite

A

Anorixegenic Neurons

353
Q

Releases Neuropeptide Y to increase appetite

A

Orexigenic Neurons

354
Q

Stimulates Anorexigenic neurons

A

Leptin (Fat cells)

Insulin , GLP-1

355
Q

Inhibits Anorexigenic neurons

A

Ghrelin

356
Q

Inhibits Ghrelin

A

Peptide YY

357
Q

Substance responsible for activation of zymogen secretion.

A

Gastrin

358
Q

Inhibits pancreatic HCO3- & enzymes.

A

Pancreatic Polypeptide

359
Q

Secreted by intestinal cells in response to hypoglycemia.

A

Enteroglucagon

360
Q

Secreted by L cells; stimulates insulin secretion

A

GLP-1

361
Q

Inhibits all GI hormones

A

Somatostatin

362
Q

Potentiates gastrin & ACh action on the parietal cells.

A

Histamine

363
Q

Hunger pangs are strongest when?

A

3rd to 4th day

364
Q

Myenteric Reflex + Anal Direction of Peristalsis

A

Law of the GUT

365
Q

Causes receptive relaxation of the stomach.

A

VIP

366
Q

Storage capacity of the stomach.

A

1.5L

367
Q

Gastric emptying is faster in which condition?

A

Food is isotonic & liquid

368
Q

Deactivated by Gastric pH

A

Salivary amylase

369
Q

3 structures found in the Large intestines but not in the Small intestine

A

Haustra
Appedices epiplocae
Taenia coli

370
Q

Defecation following a meal among infants is due to?

A

Gastrocolic reflex

371
Q

Stimulates HCl secretion

A

Histamine (paracrine): H2 receptors
Ach (neurocrine): M3 recepetors
Gastrin (GI hormone): CCKb receptors

372
Q

Inhibits HCl secretion

A

Low pH (<3.0) of the stomach
Somatostatin
Prostaglandins

373
Q

Type of CHO absorbed

A

Monosaccharides

*gluc, galac, fruc

374
Q

Activates Trypsinogen

A

Enterokinase

375
Q

Glu, Gal absorption from Lumen to SI

A

SGLT-1

376
Q

Fru absorption form lumen to SI

A

GLUT-5

377
Q

Glu, Gal, Fru absorption form SI to blood

A

GLUT-2

378
Q

Lingual lipase, Gastric Lipase

A

Acid-Stable

379
Q

Pancreatic lipase

A

Acid-Labile

380
Q

Fat absorption from lumen to SI

A

Micelles

381
Q

Fat absorption from SI to LActeals

A

Chylomicrons

382
Q

Tether Myosin to Z lines;

Binds Z lines to M lines

A

Titin

383
Q

Stabilizes Sarcolemma and prevents contraction-induced rupture

A

Dystrophin

384
Q

Binds Actin to Z lines

A

Actinin and CapZ protein

385
Q

Binds Z lines to Sarcolemma

A

Desmin

386
Q

Molecular ruler, sets actin length

A

Nebulin

387
Q

Type of muscle with slow onset, low energy expenditure. greater and prolonged force of contraction.

A

Smooth muscle

  • 4-6 kg/cm2
388
Q

Blocks release of ACh from presynaptic terminals.

A

Botulinum toxin

389
Q

Competes with ACh for receptors on motor end plate

A

Curare

390
Q

Inhibits acetylcholinesterase

A

Neostigmine

391
Q

Blocks reuptake of choline into presynaptic terminal

A

Hemicholinium

392
Q

Ab directed against the ACh receptor

A

Myasthenia gravis

393
Q

Ach binds to ____ in the motor end plate

A

Nm Rceptor/Ligand-Gated Ion Channel

394
Q

Activated at the T-Tubules

A

DHPR

395
Q

Calcium channels in the SR activated by DHPR

A

Ryanodine receptors

396
Q

Binds to Trop C

A

Calcium

397
Q

Happens when Ca binds with Trop C

A

Displaced Tropomyosin –> Exposure of binding sites in Actin

398
Q

Happens when ATP binds with Myosin

A

Myosin detaches from Actin

399
Q

Partial ATP hydrolysis

A

Recocking of Myosin heads

400
Q

Complete ATP hydrolysis

A

Powerstroke

MedPhysio (6 decks)

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