flashcards

1
Q

The active binding sites to which myosin cross bridges attach during muscle contraction are found on the

A

Actin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When a muscle fiber is stimulated by a motor nerve, the muscle fiber either will contact maximally or it will not contract at all.

A

All or none principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The structure within skeletal muscle that spreads the nerve impulses rapidly throughout individual myofibrils

A

T tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The muscle that provides most of the force required for a movement

A

agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The specialized network of membranous tubules that stores calcium ions in a muscle fiber

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The thick filaments of a myofibril are composed mainly of

A

Myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The muscle fiber that constitutes for approximately 50% of the total muscle fibers in most muscles of the body, in the normal, non athletic population.

A

Type I fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A muscle action in which the muscle generates force but does not change in length

A

Isometric contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

low oxidative capacity, high glycolytic capacity, fast contraction speed, and a low level of fatigue resistance are characteristics of

A

Type II fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The striated appearance of skeletal muscle fiber is mainly due to the arrangement of

The A-band of a sarcomere contains

A

Actin and Myosin myofilaments

primary contractile proteins in muscles are

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The muscle lengthens as contractile force is generated

A

Acentric contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

During a progressive increase in exercise intensity, motor units

A

with small motor neurons are recruited first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The smallest functional unit of a muscle

A

Sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The process by which free fatty acids are broken down to yield multiple molecules of acetyl COA

A

Beta oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The major source of energy for running a 440 yard race

A

Carbohydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The primary source of energy during a marathon is

A

Oxidative system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The two enzymes most commonly measured in order to assess the oxidative capacity of muscle tissues are

A

Succinate dehydrogenase

Citrate synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Anaerobic glycolysis begins with either glucose or glycogen and ends with

A

Lactic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The major metabolic waste product that causes the muscles and blood to have a lower ph during exercise of increasing intensity is

A

Lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

represents depolarization of the atria

A

P wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The volume of blood ejected from the heart with each contraction is called

A

Stroke volume

SV= ESV-EDV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what phase of the cardiac cycle does the diastolic pressure reflect

A

Relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Skeletal muscles receive approximately ___% of the total cardiac output under resting conditions, but they can receive as much as ___% cardiac output during heavy endurance exercise.

A

15, 80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The structures within heart tissue that anchor individual cells together so they do not pull apart during contraction

A

Desmosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of ventricular filling is called

A

End diastolic volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Resistance vessels are also called

A

Arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Represents repolarization of the ventricles

A

T wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Represents depolarization of the ventricles

A

QRS complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Mean pressure in the pulmonary artery is

A

15 mmHg

30
Q

Found in skeletal muscle, serves to transport oxygen from the cell membrane to the mitochondria

A

Myoglobin

31
Q

A decrease in muscle or blood ph causes increased unloading of 02 from hemoglobin, this is an example of the

A

Bohr effect

32
Q

States that the rate of diffusion through a tissue such as the respiratory membrane is proportional to the surface area and the difference in the partial pressure of gas between the two sides of the tissue

A

Ficks Law of Diffusion

33
Q

Regulation of ventilation is complex and regulated by multiple factors. The area responsible for ‘switching off’ inspiration and helping to regulate inspiratory volume is the

A

Pneumotaxic center

34
Q

ventilator regulation appears to be most sensitive to which chemical stimuli

A

pCO2

35
Q

a shortening of inspiration that occurs in response to activation of stretch receptors in the lungs

A

Hering Breuer reflex

36
Q

States that at a constant temperature, pressure and volume are inversely related

A

Boyles Law

37
Q

Explains the sum of partial pressures in a mixture of gases

A

Daltons Law

38
Q

The amount of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration

A

Residual volume

39
Q

The largest volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximal inspiration is

A

Vital capacity

40
Q

The carotid bodies are chemoreceptors that are sensitive to changes in arterial

A

H +, pc02, and p02

41
Q

The amount of air inhaled or exhaled during a given breath is called the

A

Tidal volume

42
Q

An athlete started taking long cycling rides and bought a heart rate watch to monitor HR. She noticed after about 40 minutes of riding at a steady pace that HR gradually increased without increasing the work output. What is causing the cardiovascular drift since cardiac output is unchanged?

A

decreased SV

43
Q

Sub maximal exercise tests can be used to estimate aerobic capacity based on

A

The linear relationship between heart rate and oxygen consumption

44
Q

Which of the following groups of individuals are most likely to experience exercise-induced hypoxemia during exercise?

A

Olympic marathoners

45
Q

what would cause a decrease in stroke volume?

A

Exercise

An increase in afterload

46
Q

What is the most important contributor to the improvement in stroke volume with endurance training?

A

Increase blood volume

47
Q

Resting stroke volume ____ in the supine position.

A

Increases

48
Q

During a graded exercise test, you would expect to see systolic blood pressure ___ while diastolic blood pressure ____.

A

rise linearly; changes very little

49
Q

At near-maximal and maximal exercise intensities, ____ is a major determinant of cardiorespiratory endurance capacity.

A

Stroke volume

50
Q

The tolerable limits for arterial blood pH extend from

A

6.9 to 7.5

51
Q

What type of muscular contraction is mostly likely to induce delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)?

A

Eccentric contractions

52
Q

In the trained heart, increased ventricular mass results in ____ EF.

A

Increased

53
Q

Heart chamber that undergoes the greatest hypertrophy in response to aerobic training

A

Left Ventricle

54
Q

In response to aerobic training, Type 1 fibers become ____ and Type 2 fibers generally _____.

A

Larger;

No change

55
Q

Anaerobic 30-second training bouts lead to an increase in

A

Phosphofructokinase

56
Q

transport is driven by the energy stored in the concentration gradient of another molecule

A

Secondary Active transport

57
Q

molecules are pumped against a concentration at the expense of energy

A

Primary Active Transport

58
Q

a substance is transported in same direction as “driver” ion

ex. glucose “piggybacks” onto Na⁺

A

Co-transport

59
Q

the minimum charge we need to reach for action potential to happen V sub m

A

RMP

60
Q

electrical charge moves towards positive
Na⁺ goes into cell
ex. -70 resting potential to -30

A

Depolarization

61
Q

electrical charge moves towards negative
K⁺ leaves the cell
ex. +20 to -40

A

Repolarization

62
Q

electrical charge overshoots and goes below the resting potential
ex. -70 to -100

A

Hyperpolarization

63
Q

A regenerating depolarization of membrane potential that propagates along an excitable membrane

A

Action potential

64
Q

Opening Na⁺ channels generates local current that depolarizes adjacent membrane, opening more Na⁺ channels - how impulse moves across neuron

A

Propagation

65
Q

The tendency for turbulent flow increases in direct proportion to the velocity of blood flow, the diameter of the blood vessel, and the density of the blood.

A

Reynold’s number

66
Q

Activate and regulate T and B cells. These cells bind antigenic peptides present on MHC II molecules on APC. Make cytokines to coordinate IR.

A

CD4+ T helper cells

67
Q

Binds antigens presented by MHC I of virus-infected or tumor cells and kills them. Nearly all nucleated cells display MHC I. These cells also receive an activation signal from helper t-cells.

A

CD8+ cytotoxic T cells

68
Q

Virus and infected tumor cells that do not display MHC I or display stress.

A

NK cells

69
Q

Mark pathogen for ingestion and destruction by a phagocyte.

A

Antibody opsonization

70
Q

Type of APC that present antigens to Cytotoxic T-cells

A

MHC I

71
Q

What are the steps of hemostasis or when a blood vessel is ripped open?

A
  1. vascular constriction (smooth muscle contracts)
  2. Platelet Plug
  3. Blood coagulation