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Genetics > Physio Drugs > Flashcards

Physio Drugs Flashcards

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1
Q

class of drugs that prevents choline reuptake

A

hemicholinium

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2
Q

class of drugs that prevents vesicular storage of ACh

A

vesamicol

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3
Q

class of drugs that degrades synaptobrevin (SNARE) and prevents vesicle fusion/exocytosis

A

botulinum toxin (botox)

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4
Q

class of drugs used clinically to paralyze selected muscles with excessive tone

A

botox

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5
Q

what clinical syndrome is botox used to unmask

A

lambert eaton syndrome

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6
Q

used to treat focal dystonia

dystonia is a state of abnormal muscle tone resulting in muscular spasm and abnormal posture

A

botox

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7
Q

class of drug that increases ACh in the synaptic cleft thereby enhancing postsynaptic effects of ACh

A

AChE inhibitors

parasympathomimetics

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8
Q

5 types of anticholinesterase

A

edrophonium, neostigmine, physostigmine, parathion, malathion

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9
Q

used for diagnosing myasthenia gravis (MG) and eaton lambert

A

edrophonium (simple alcohol)

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10
Q

duration of edrophonium

A

short duration of action

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11
Q

used to treat myasthenia gravis (MG) and also used for reversal of neuromuscular blocker

A

neostigmine and physostigmine

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12
Q

used to treat atropine poisoning

A

physostigmine (can cross BBB)

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13
Q

duration of neostigmine and physostigmine

A

long duration of action

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14
Q

how does neostigmine and physostigmine work

A

it increases the duration of time that ACh is in the synaptic cleft by increasing half life of AChE inhibitors hence increasing the chances it will bind to a receptor

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15
Q

strong pesticide and is irreversible

A

malathion and parathion

have to make new receptors to overcome

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16
Q

what happens when there is increased stimulation of ACh receptors

A

muscle paralysis then death

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17
Q

A boy ate some berries. He became tachycardic, his temperature increased, and his eye were dilated. what drug do you use to treat?

A

physostigmine

atropine poisoning

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18
Q

responsible for vasodilating the vascular smooth muscle of the splanchnics

A

remove your sympathetics

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19
Q

autoimmune disease that blocks calcium reuptake hence reducing ACh release

A

Lambert Eaton

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20
Q

autoimmune disease that produces antibodies that bind to nicotinic receptors hence reducing neuromuscular junction transmission

A

myasthenia gravis

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21
Q

how do you tell difference between lambert eaton blocking of the calcium reuptake and botox

A

with blocking of Ca - there is still a little vesicular release

with botox - there is no vesicular release at all

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22
Q

advantages of acetocholinesterase inhibitors

A

increase parasympathetic tone, increase central cholinergic neurotransmission in dementia, reversal of paralysis from non depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

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23
Q

disadvantages of acetocholinesterase inhibitors

A

excessive muscarinic stimulation, excessive nicotinic stimulation, chemical warfare

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24
Q

what happens if muscarinic over stimulated

A

SLuM BoD

salivation, lacrimation, miosis, bradycardia, diarrhea

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25
Q

A woman is prescribed neostigmine. She returns complaining of diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and salivation. what would alleviate her side effects?

A

muscarinic antagonist

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26
Q

increase GI motility, salivation, and miosis

A

muscarinic agonist

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27
Q

what are the 5 muscarinic agonists

A

carbachol, pilocarpine, methacholine, bethanecol, acetylcholine

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28
Q

used to treat glaucoma by activating miosis, decreases intraocular pressure, and sjogren syndrome

A

pilocarpine

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29
Q

used to diagnose asthma and has little affinity for nicotinic receptors

A

methacholine

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30
Q

selective for muscarinic receptors and used to treat urine retention and GI and urinary motility

A

bethanecol

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31
Q

muscarinic antagonist allows what type of response to dominate

A

sympathetics

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32
Q

how do muscarinic antagonists work

A

they bind to muscarinic receptors and prevent ACh from binding

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33
Q

actions of muscarinic antagonists

A

pupil dilation, tachycardia, decreased salivary, GIT, and bronchial secretions

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34
Q

what does atropine reduce

A

SLUDGE

salivation, lacrimation, urination, diaphoresis (sweating), GIT motility, emesis(vomiting)

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35
Q

used to treat muscarinic poisoning and anticholinesterase poisoning

A

atropine

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36
Q

depolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

succinylcholine

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37
Q

side effects of nicotinic receptor depolarizing blockades

A

K release, bradycardia, prolonged muscle paralysis, malignant hyperthermia

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38
Q

what does succinylcholine do

A

keeps muscle from contracting by keeping it in a constant depolarized state

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39
Q

what happens when nicotinic receptors have prolonged activation or there is an overload of ACh

A

they become desensitized and eventually muscle paralysis

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40
Q

what does non depolarizing neuromuscular blockers (nicotinic antagonist) do

A

keep channels closed and keep it from being depolarized

also prevents ACh from binding so no contraction

41
Q

how do you overcome nicotinic antagonist

A

increase levels of ACh by adding acetocholinesterase inhibitors

42
Q

it is a non-depolarizing (competitive) neuromuscular blockers

A

pancuronium

binds to nicotinic receptor

43
Q

use of Pancuronium

A

muscle paralysis during surgery

44
Q

side effects of Pancuronium

A

hypertension, apnea, bronchospasm, salivation, flushing and respiratory failure

45
Q

big difference between Pancuronium and Succinylcholine

A

succinylcholine - paralyzing effect increased by increase of ACh

Pancuronium - paralyzing effect can be overcome with increase of ACh

46
Q

how long does paralyzing effect last in Pancuronium and Succinylcholine

A

succinylcholine - few minutes

pancuronium - 2 hours

47
Q

which receptor does contraction and which does relaxation

A

contraction - alpha

relaxation - beta

48
Q

two structures in which you have to remove sympathetics in order to get parasympathetic action

A

cutaneous and splanchnic blood vessels

49
Q

norepinephrine has a higher affinity for what receptors

A

alpha 1 and beta 1

50
Q

epinephrine has a higher affinity for what receptors

A

beta 2

51
Q

which has higher potency at alpha 1: epinephrine or noepinephrine

A

epinephrine

52
Q

alpha 1 agonist

A

phenylephrine

53
Q

phenylephrine is used to treat what?

what are its side effects

A

nasal decongestant, treatment of shock

side effect: hypertension

54
Q

what are alpha 1 antagonist

A

prazosin and tamsulosin

55
Q

used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

tamsulosin

56
Q

what is prazosin used to treat

A

hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia

57
Q

postural orthostatic and hypotension on first dose are side effects of

A

prazosin

58
Q

less postural orthostatic and hypotension are side effects of

A

tamsulosin

59
Q

action of alpha 1 agonist and antagonist

A

alpha 1 agonist - constriction/contraction of SM —> if too much it leads to hypertension

alpha 1 antagonist - treatment of over constriction

60
Q

action of alpha 2 agonist

A

decreases release of NE and relaxation

61
Q

alpha 2 agonist

A

clonidine

62
Q

clonidine is treatment for

A

hypertension and opioid withdrawal

63
Q

side effect of clonidine

A

bradycardia and hypotension

64
Q

it is an alpha 1 and partial alpha 2 agonist

A

oxymetaxoline

65
Q

oxymetaxoline is treatment for

A

topical/nasal congestion and red eye

66
Q

alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist

A

phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine

67
Q

manages hypertension caused by pheochromocytoma

A

phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine

68
Q

of the alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist …which is reversible and which is not

A

irreversible - phenoxybenzamine

reversible - phentolamine

69
Q

selective beta agonists

A

dobutamine and albuterol

70
Q

dobutamine increases what

A

contractility and cardiac output

DOES NOT INCREASE HEART RATE!

71
Q

used in acute management of heart failure

A

dobutamine

72
Q

why does dobutamine have a short half life

A

COMT metabolism

73
Q

beta 2 agonist that is used to treat asthma

A

albuterol

74
Q

length of action and duration of albuterol

A

rapid action (15 mins)

short duration (4-6 hours)

75
Q

what does beta 2 agonist avoid?

A

cardiac and skeletal side effects

76
Q

partial beta 1 agonist

A

pindolol

77
Q

what is pindolol used to treat

A

hypertension in patients with bradycardia or low cardiac reserve

78
Q

what are the beta blockers

A

atenolol (selective for beta 1)

propanolol (non selective)

79
Q

what does beta 1 antagonist do

A

decrease contractility and heart rate
reduces renin secretion
treat hypertension
reduce fluid overload and vasomotor tone

80
Q

used to treat hypertension and angina

A

atenolol and propanolol

81
Q

reduces blood volume via ↓ renin production

A

atenolol

82
Q

side effects of atenolol

A

sedation and dyspnea

83
Q

side effects of propanolol

A

more severe sedation, dyspnea, and bronchoconstriction

84
Q

non selective beta and alpha 1 antagonist is used to treat what?

A

chronic heart failure

85
Q

inhibitor of CA reuptake

A

cocaine and imipramine

86
Q

inhibitor of CA storage

A

pseudoephedrine, ephedrine, and amphetamine

87
Q

inhibitor of CA metabolism

A

iproniazid

88
Q

weak inhibitor of MAO and blocks NET

A

amphetamine

89
Q

used for nasal decongestion and increases norepinephrine activity at presynaptic alpha and beta receptors

A

pseudoephedrine and ephedrine

90
Q

inhibits norephinephrine transporter (NET)

A

cocaine

91
Q

used to treat mild depression

A

imipramine

92
Q

side effects of imipramine

A

postural hypotension and tachycardia

93
Q

monoamine oxidase degrades?

A

serotonin, NE, dopamine

94
Q

what happens if you have an MOA inhibitor

A

increase NE in cytosol - used to treat mild depression

95
Q

irreversible and nonselective and discontinued in most of the world except France

A

iproniazid

96
Q

drug that is a MOA inhibitor

A

iproniazid

97
Q

food to avoid when taking iproniazid

A

aged cheese, red wine, and concentrated yeast product (marmite)

98
Q

used to reverse the paralyzing effect of Pancuronium

A

neostigmine

99
Q

why is atropine used pre surgery

A

to block salivation and respiratory system secretion

Genetics (19 decks)

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