Pharmacogenomics Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

factors that influence drug response phenotype

A

age, gender, disease, genetic variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

study of the role of inheritance in variation in drug response

A

pharmacogenomics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

why is pharmacogenomics important

A

adverse drug reactions are major cause of morbidity and mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

average interindividual difference in terms of base pairs

A

3 million bp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

used to optimize drug efficacy and reduce adverse effects

A

knowledge of patient’s DNA sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

three types of genetic variation that can influence pharmacotherapy

A

pharmacokinetic variation (variations in proteins involved in drug metabolism or transport)

pharmacodynamic variation (variation in drug target)

variation in proteins associated with idiosyncratic adverse drug effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

most common factor responsible for pharmacogenetic variation in drug responses

A

genetic variation in enzymes that catalyze drug metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

do major enzymes in drug metabolism show polymorphism

A

yeah

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

drugs used during surgery to cause skeletal muscle paralysis

A

neuromuscular blockers such as succinylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

4 main enzymes that exhibit polymorphism

A
  • Butyrylcholinesterase (Pseudocholinesterase) (BChE)
  • N-acetyltransferase 2 (NAT2)
  • Cytochrome P450 2D6 (CYP2D6)
  • Thiopurine S-methyltransferase (TPMT)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

why is the duration of succinylcholine (neuromuscular blockade) so short between 5-10 mins

A

rapid hydrolysis by plasma butyrylcholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

onset of neuromuscular blockade

A

quickly ~1 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what happens with patients who have a genetic variation in butyrylcholinesterase

A

decreased metabolism of succinylcholine leading to prolonged muscular paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

inheritance pattern of butyrylcholineterase

A

autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

good at inhibiting normal butyrylcholinesterase (bad at inhibiting its polymorphic variation)

A

dibucaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

catalyzes the acetylation of isoniazid and other drugs (include sulfonamide, hydralazine, procainamide)

A

N-acetyltransferase 2 (NAT2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are slow and fast acetylators (of NAT2)

A

slow acetylators - catalyze isoniazid slowly and have high blood drug levels

fast acetylators - catalyze isoniazid rapidly and have low blood drug levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

inheritance pattern of NAT2 polymorphism

A

autosomal recessve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

slow acetylators (of NAT2) are more prone to what

A

toxic effects of drugs that are metabolized by acetylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

isoniazid can cause what?

A

neuropathy and hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hydralazine and procainamide may cause what

A

systemic lupus erythematosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sulfonamides may cause what

A

hypersensitivity reactions, hemolytic anemia, and systemic lupus erythematosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CYP2D6 is a member of what family

A

CYP450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CYP2D6 metabolizes what types of drugs

A

antidepressants, antiarrhythmics, and analgesics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

two important drugs used to talk about CYP2D6

A

antihypertensive debrisoquine and the oxytotic agent sparteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

extensive metabolizes of CYP2D6 have what genotype

A

heterozygous or homozygous for the wild type allele

27
Q

main reason people can be ultra rapid metabolizers by CYP2D6

A

they have multiple copies of the CYP2D6 gene up to 13

28
Q

why is codeine ineffective in poor metabolizers by CYP2D6

A

it requires CYP2D6 catalyzed conversion to morphine

29
Q

when do people suffer adverse effects to metoprolol

A

if they are poor metabolizers of CYP2D6

30
Q

way to overcome ultra rapid metabolizers of codeine by CYP2D6 and its disadvantage

A

you can overcome by giving higher doses but can overdose on codeine (respiratory depression or arrest)

31
Q

Thiopurine S methyltransferase (TPMT) catalyzes what reaction

A

S-methylation of the anticancer thiopurines, 6-mercaptopurine and azathioprine

32
Q

problem with TPMT polymorphism

A

thiopurines have short therapeutic window so if not quickly methylated, it can be life threatening and lead to myelosuppression

33
Q

patients with low TPMT levels have to treated with what percentage of standard dose

A

10%

34
Q

oral anticoagulant

A

warfarin

35
Q

does warfarin have a big therapeutic window

A

nah

36
Q

under anti-coagulation and over anti-coagulation can result it

A

under - thrombosis

over - bleeding episodes

37
Q

there is an S-warfarin and and R-warfarin meaning that warfarin is?

A

a racemic mixture

38
Q

which form of warfarin is more potent

A

S-warfarin by 3-5 times

39
Q

which one of the racemic mixture of warfarin metabolizes more warfarin

A

R-warfarin

40
Q

patients with CYP2C9 have variant alleles that have lower activity hence requiring ______ dose of warfarin to achieve therapeutic effect and have increased risk for _______ during warfarin therapy

A

decreased, hemmorhage

41
Q

multiple gene that affect both pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of a drug

A

warfarin

42
Q

molecular target for warfarin

A

Vitamin K epoxide reductase (inhibits its)

43
Q

what does Vitamin K epoxide reductase do?

A

reduces Vitamin K and brings it back to its active form:

Vitamin K epoxide –> reduced Vitamin K

44
Q

what does reduced Vitamin K do?

A

provides carboxyl group for clotting factor precursor, glutamic acid, (using gamma glutamyl carboxylase) to become clotting factor, carboxy glutamic acid

45
Q

gene that encodes vitamin k epoxide reductase

A

vitamin k epoxide reductase complex 1 (VKORC1) <—has polymorphism

46
Q

interindividual variability is huge which what drug

A

warfarin

47
Q

difference between using R-warfarin and S-warfarin on vitamin K epoxide reductase

A

S-warfarin - uses CYP2C9 and makes 6-hydroxywarfarin and 7-hydroxywarfarin

R-warfarin - make metabolites using CYP1A1, CYP1A2, CYP3A4

48
Q

what causes idiosyncratic (pertaining to an individual) drug effects?

A

interaction between drug and unique aspect of physiology pertaining to the particular individual

49
Q

example of idiosyncratic drug effect

A

glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD deficiency), malignant hyperthermia

50
Q

what does G6PD do

A

prevents red blood cells from oxidative damage

51
Q

what happens when G6PD deficiency

A

electrons not provided to NADP+ to form NADPH hence reduction in glutathione pool to reduce peroxide to water

52
Q

drugs that cause oxidative stress

A

sulfonamides, antimalarials, chloramphenicol

53
Q

what happens when exposed to sulfonamides, antimalarials, and chloramphenicol and person has G6PD deficiency

A

hemolytic anemia (also be caused by fava beans)

54
Q

inheritance of malignant hyperthermia

A

autosomal dominant

55
Q

malignant hyperthermia is the main cause of death due to?

A

anesthesia

56
Q

symptoms of malignant hyperthermia

A

tachycardia, hypertension, severe muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, hyperkalemia, acidosis, death

57
Q

malignant hyperthermia is caused by a defect in ____________ resulting in ________

A

ryanodine receptor gene (RYR1), altered control of calcium release from SR

58
Q

ryanodine receptors are located between what?

A

SR and DHPR protein (senses voltage in plasma protein)

59
Q

what happens when abnormal RYR1 receptor

A

unregulated release of calcium –> acute hyperthermia crisis

60
Q

used to establish susceptibility to malignant hypethermia

A

caffeine halothane muscle contracture test

61
Q

results of increased calcium intracellularly

A
  • the increased Ca2+ concentration causes sustained muscle contraction which generates heat
  • accelerated levels of aerobic metabolism produce CO2 and deplete O2 and ATP
  • a switch to anaerobic metabolism worsens acidosis with the production of lactate
  • energy stores get depleted
  • muscle fibers die leading to hyperkalemia and myoglobinuria.
62
Q

how does the caffeine halothane muscle contracture test work

A
  • piece of muscle taken from thigh and several strips of muscle prepared
  • strip placed in a physiological bath and it is attached to an electrical stimulator that produces a twitch every ten seconds then strength of contraction is measured
  • halothane is added and normal muscle would not move from its baseline by more than 0.5g
63
Q

used to figure out genotype for CYP2D6

A
  • from phenotype
  • urinary excretion of metabolite of drug
  • DNA based tests
  • AmpliChip CYP450 Test (uses microarrays - also determines CYP2C19 genotype)