Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Health Assessment (2) > Physical Examination (Exam I) > Flashcards

Physical Examination (Exam I) Flashcards

1
Q

what is pronator drift

A

weakness or drift of arms when outstretched for short length of time
-high likelihood of large vessel occlusion
-mostly likely to be VAN positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is levines sign

A

a universal sign of ischemic chest pain, defined as an individual holding a clenched fist over the chest that has a low sensitivity but is relatively specific for ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how do you test sternocleidomastoid muscle of pt? how do you test trapezius muscle of pt?

A

o Ask the patient to flex the neck with the chin to the chest.

o Movement of the head sideway so that the ear moves toward the shoulder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are spongy gums indicative of

A

vitamin C deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does leukoplakia

A

thick white patches on tongue. precancerous lesion due to smoking and alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what s/s does cocaine and meth cause for surgery?

A

-cocaine= bleed and HTN, shift in auto regulation
-meth= low and hard to manage BP problems during surgery. need extra pressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How deep would one palpate with light palpation technique?
Deep palpation technique?

A
  • 1-2 cm
  • 4-5 cm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What would be expected with tympanic, drum-like percussion?

A
  • Air-containg space (puffed out cheek, gastric air bubble, etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What would be expected with resonant, hollow sounding percussion?

A
  • Normal lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What would be an expected finding with assessed hyper-resonant, booming percussive sounds?

A
  • Emphysematous lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What would be an expected finding with assessed dull, thud-like percussive sounds?

A
  • Softer organs (ex. Liver)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What would be an expected finding with assessed flat percussive sounds?

A
  • Denser organs (ex. muscle)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What temperature does one need to be to go to PACU?

A

96°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Approximately what should the axillary temp be in comparison to a core temperature?

A
  • 1° lower
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Anthropometry?

A
  • Scientific study of the measurements and proportions of the human body (height, weight, etc.)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Mediate or Indirect Percussion?
How is it performed and what is its purpose?

A
  • Plexor (striking finger) & pleximeter (finger being struck).
  • Evaluation of abdomen and thorax
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Immediate percussion? What is it utilized for?

A
  • Striking of surface directly with fingers of the hand.
  • Adult sinus or infant thorax evaluation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Fist percussion? What is it utilized for?

A
  • Flat hand on area to be evaluated being struck with a fist.
  • Used to evaluate the back & kidney for tenderness.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the three forms of percussion?

A
  • Mediate/Indirect percussion
  • Immediate percussion
  • Fist percussion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When is circumoral cyanosis primarily seen?
How might circumoral cyanosis present on patients with darker skin tones?

A
  • In infants primarily above the upper lip.
  • gray or white rather than blue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are situations that can cause jaundice?

A
  • Acute liver inflammation
  • Inflammation/obstruction of the bile duct
  • Cholestasis
  • Hemolytic anemia
  • Gilbert’s syndrome
  • Crigler-Najjar syndrome
  • Dubin-Johnson syndrome
  • Pseudojaundice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What causes pseudojaundice? How harmful is it?

A
  • Harmless condition caused by excess carrots, pumpkins or melon consumption (↑ β-carotene)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Gilbert’s syndrome?

A
  • Inherited condition where enzymes can’t process bile excretion.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Crigler-Najjar’s syndrome?

A
  • Inherited condition where enzyme that processes bilirubin is ineffective.
25
Q

What is Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

A
  • Inherited chronic jaundice where bilirubin can’t be secreted from the hepatic cells.
26
Q

What type of cells does vitiligo attack?

A
  • Melanocytes
27
Q

What is the sign name of periorbital ecchymosis? What does it indicate?

A
  • Battle’s Sign: indicates basilar skull fracture.
28
Q

What are petechiae indicative of?

A
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Leukemia
  • Infectious disease
  • Medications
  • Prolonged straining
29
Q

What is koilonychia? What is it often indicative of?

A
  • Spoon-nails where nails become flat or convex. (opposite of clubbing)
  • Iron-deficiency anemia:
30
Q

What is nail clubbing? What is it often indicative of?

A
  • Increased concavity of nails
  • Heart/lung diseases, also potential osteoarthropathies.
31
Q

What is paronychia?

A
  • Inflammation of skin around the nail.
32
Q

What are Beau’s lines? What are they indicative of?

A
  • Horizontal striations that develop on the nail.
  • Lots of things. Nail trauma, kidney failure, mumps, thyroid disorders, syphilis, etc.
33
Q

What is hirsutism? What is a common cause?

A
  • Excessive hair growth often caused by PCOS.
34
Q

What is the name of notable difference in pupillary size between both eyes called?

A
  • Anisocoria
35
Q

What is ectropion?

A
  • Eversion of eyelid
36
Q

What is entropion?

A
  • Inversion of eyelid
37
Q

What is Ptosis?

A
  • Abnormal drooping of eyelid
38
Q

What is Arcus Senilis?

A
  • Deposition of phospholipids/cholesterol in the peripheral cornea of older patients. (benign usually)
39
Q

What occurs with the eyes during stage 2 of anesthesia?

A
  • Roving eyeball (nystagmus?)
  • Partial pupillary dilation
  • Loss of eyelash reflex
  • No loss of eyelid reflex
40
Q

What is ocular accomodation?

A
  • Ability of eye to focus in on objects far away and close.
41
Q

What is most often the most important anesthetic consideration regarding the ears?

A
  • Padding during surgery to prevent injury
42
Q

Differentiate Weber’s & Rinne’s tests.

A
  • Weber: tuning fork held on the head (assesses left vs right ear hearing)
  • Rinne: tuning fork held to each ear.
43
Q

What are cherry-colored lips most often indicative of?

A
  • Carbon monoxide poisoning
44
Q

Differentiate pallor & cyanosis presentations as well as what usually causes each.

A
  • Pallor = pale (usually anemia)
  • Cyanosis = blue (hypoxia or hypoperfusion)
45
Q

What would be indicated by the presence of “spongy” gums?

A
  • Bleeding due to Vit-C deficiency (scurvy?)
46
Q

What is Leukoplakia? What causes it?

A
  • Thick white patches on the gums from smoking and/or alcohol
47
Q

Where is the apical pulse located?

A
  • 5th Intercostal space, left of sternum, medial to left mid-clavicular line.
48
Q

How much assistance should a patient receive when a Mallampati assessment is being done?

A
  • None
49
Q

Chest pain in sync with respiratory movement could be indicative of what?

A
  • Musculoskeletal abnormality or infection
50
Q

What can cause radial pulses to become unsymmetric?

A
  • Clavicular fracture or aortic dissection
51
Q

How can Mg⁺⁺ evaluations be done in OB patients?

A
  • Knee extension/flexion
52
Q

What capability is lost with peroneal nerve injury?

A
  • Dorsiflexion
53
Q

What anesthetic consideration should one have for a patient with significant lordosis?

A
  • ↑ abdominal pressure could = worse GERD.
  • Difficult spinal/epidural
54
Q

What anesthetic consideration should one have for a patient with significant kyphosis?

A
  • Airway, ventilation, and positioning issues
55
Q

Patient judgement is relevant to obtaining _______ ________ whilst ________ is pertinent to the patient’s understanding of whats going on.

A
  • informed consent; insight
56
Q

What test evaluates proprioception?
How is this test performed?

A
  • Romberg
  • Standing with eyes closing and palms down; loss of balance is a + test
57
Q

What is a VAN exam?
What does being VAN positive indicate?

A
  • Palms up, checking for downward drift.
  • VAN (+) = ↑ risk for LVO (large vessel occlusion)
58
Q

What is another name for plantar reflex?

A

Babinski reflex

59
Q

When would a gluteal reflex be performed?

A
  • Trauma patients in assessing pelvic injury

Health Assessment (2) (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions