Photosynthesis, meiosis, mitosis, genes Flashcards

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1
Q

convert light energy to chemical energy as ATP and NADPH.

A

light reactions

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2
Q

occur in the thylakoid membrane

A

light reactions

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3
Q

uses ATP and NADPH plus CO2 to produce carbohydrates. converts carbon dioxide into metabolically active compounds

A

carbon-fixation reactions

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4
Q

occur in the stroma

A

carbon-fixation reactions

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5
Q

pigment molecules are arranged in light-harvesting complexes

A

antenna systems

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6
Q

light energy is captured in ________ and transferred to __________

A

light harvesting complexes, reaction centers

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7
Q

when a pigment molecule absorbs a photon,

A

the excited state is unstable and the energy is quickly released

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8
Q

the energy released from the pigment molecule is absorbed by other pigment molecules and passed to ___

A

chlorophyll in a reaction center

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9
Q

in the reaction center, the light energy is converted to _______

A

chemical energy

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10
Q

excited chlorophyll å molecule (ChI+) gives an electron to an accepter

A

redox reaction, chlorophyll is oxidized to Chl+, the accepter molecule is reduced

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11
Q

electron accepter is first in chain of carriers in thylakoid membrane,

A

photosynthesis transport

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12
Q

ATP is formed by a chemiosmatic mechanism

A

photophosphorylation

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13
Q

H+ is transported across the thylakoid membrane into the lumen, creating

A

an electrochemical gradient

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14
Q

water _______ creates more H+ in the lumen and NADP+ ______ removes H+ in the stroma; contributing to the H+ gradient

A

oxidation; reduction

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15
Q

high H+ concentration in the lumen drives H+ back into the stroma through

A

ATP synthase channels

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16
Q

reduces NADP+ to NADPH

A

photosystem I

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17
Q

produces ATP through ATP synthase

A

photosystem II

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18
Q

uses photosystem I and electron transport to produce ATP instead of NADPH

A

cyclic electric transport

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19
Q

3 main stages of calvin cycle

A

carbon fixation
reduction
regeneration

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20
Q

CO2 incorporated in 5-carbon (RuBP) by the enzyme rubisco (6-carbon splits to 2 molecules of 3-PGA)

A

carbon fixation

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21
Q

each 3-PGA gets phosphate from ATP (substrate level phosphorylation) these are reduced to NADPH and become G3P

A

reduction

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22
Q

some G3P molecules make glucose, others are recycled to regenerated 5-carbon, RuBP, which is necessary for carbon fixation

A

regeneration

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23
Q

(4 carbons) no photorespiration on hot days (have the advantage on hot days)

A

C4 plants

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24
Q

in mosophyll cells, PEP carboxylase catalyzes the reaction of CO2 and PEP to form oxaloacetate, which is converted to malate,
- malate diffuses to bundle sheath cells, and is decarboxylated to pyruvate and CO2. pyruvate goes back to mesophyll cells to regen. PEP
- CO2 enters the calvin cycle

A

C4 plants

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25
Q

initial carbon-fixing enzyme is NOT rubisco
- ATP has to be spent to move intermediates back and forth across membrane

A

C4 plants

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26
Q

stomata are open at night and closed during the day to conserve water

A

Crassulacean acid metabolism (CAM plants)

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27
Q

in CAM plants, CO2 is fixed by PEP carboxylase and malate is stored in vacuoles

A

at night

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28
Q

in CAM plants, malate moves to chloroplasts and is carboxylated, the CO2 goes to Calvin cycle

A

during the day

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29
Q

4 events that characterize cell division

A

cell division signals
DNA replication
DNA segregation
cytokinesis

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30
Q

have “ori” and “ter” regions

A

DNA

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31
Q

in prokaryotes, ___________ are external factors: nutrient concentration and environment

A

cell signals

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32
Q

have 1 chromosome; occurs as DNA moves through a “replication complex” of proteins near the center of the cell

A

DNA replication in prokaryotes

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33
Q

“ori” regions move to opposite ends of the cell, segregating the daughter chromosomes

A

DNA segregation in prokaryotes

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34
Q

cell membrane pinches in; protein fibers form a ring, new cell wall material synthesize

A

Cytokinesis in prokaryotes

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35
Q

division may not always occur in ____

A

eukaryotes

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36
Q

related to the needs of the entire organism

A

cell division signals in eukaryotes

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37
Q

more than 1 chromosome, starts at many origins on chromosome; occurs in S in the cell cycle

A

DNA replication in eukaryotes

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38
Q

occurs through mitosis; separates newly replicated chromosomes into 2 genetically identical nuclei– one copy of each chromosome in each cell

A

DNA segregation in eukaryotes

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39
Q

happens differently in animal and plant cells

A

cytokinesis in eukaryotes

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40
Q

results in reproduction of the entire single-celled organism
- begins with cell division signals, usually external factors

A

binary fission

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41
Q

phases a cell passes through to produce daughter cells by cell division

A

cell cycle

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42
Q

G1, S, G2; duration varies.
-cell nucleus is visible, typical cell function occur including replication
-everything but mitosis

A

interphase

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43
Q

in this phase, chromosomes are unreplicated; duration: minutes to year
- ends with signal

A

G1

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44
Q

in this phase, DNA replicates; sister chromatids stay together until mitosis

A

S phase

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45
Q

in this phase, cell prepares for mitosis by synthesizing structures that move chromatids to opposite ends

A

G2

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46
Q

in this phase, mitosis and cytokinesis happen; nuclear division

A

M phase

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47
Q

enzymes that catalyze transfer of phosphoric group from ATP to protein
- changes shape and function of the protein

A

protein kinases

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48
Q

controls G1 to S transition which is the restriction point (R)
- always present

A

Cyclin Dependent Kinases (CDK)

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49
Q

binds to CDK and changes shape (alloseric regulation), exposing active site

A

cyclin

50
Q

prevents cell from leaving G1; inhibits cell cycle

A

retinoblastoma protein (RB)

51
Q

catalyzes phosphorylation of RB, inactivating RB by changing shaper and no longer blocks the cell cycle

A

G1 cyclin-CDK

52
Q

CDK’s must be regulated to progress cycle and cell division (regulated by absence or presence of cyclins)

A

CDK regulation

53
Q

centrosomes move to opposite ends of nuclear envelope; microtubules extend from centrosomes and form on the spindle
- chromosomes start out loose, but condense to be more compact and visible
-kinetichores form on chromatids to act as attachment point

A

prophase

54
Q

conain motor proteins and are attachment points for microtubules

A

kinetichores

55
Q

-nuclear envelope dissolves
-microtubules connect kinetichores on each sister chromatid to opposite centrosomes

A

prometaphase

56
Q

contromeres line up at equator of cell, midway between the centrosomes

A

metaphase

57
Q

chromatids separate
-new daughter chromosomes move toward the poles
-kinetichore microtubules shorten; centrosomes move apart
-M phase cyclin-CDK controls movement of sister chromatids
-APC activates separase

A

anaphase

58
Q

separation of sister chromatids is controlled by ________

A

M phase Cyclin-CDK

59
Q

protein that holds chromatids together

A

cohesin

60
Q

organelles that organize the microtubules in animal cells;
-determine the differentiation of the mitotic spindle and move sister chromatids apart

A

centrosomes

61
Q

separase ________ cohesin bonds

A

hydrolyzes

62
Q

_________ activates separase

A

anaphase promoting complex (APC)

63
Q

daughter chromosomes reach the poles
-nuclear envelopes reform, and chromosomes decondense

A

telophase

64
Q

division of the cytoplasm

A

cytokinesis

65
Q

vesicles from the golgi apparatus appear among the plane of cell division; fuse together to form new cell wall

A

cytokinesis in plants

66
Q

cell membrane pinches between nuclei
- ring of microfilaments form; proteins contract and pinch cell in two

A

cytokinesis in animals

67
Q

based on mitosis
-singe-celled organism reproduces itself with each cell cycle (some multicellular)

A

asexual reproduction

68
Q

offspring are not identical to parents
-gametes are created by meiosis; each parent contributes one gamete
- gametes and offspring differ genetically from each other and parents

A

sexual reproduction

69
Q

body cells not specialized for reproduction: divide by mitosis
- each __________ has homologous pairs of chromosomes with corresponding but not identical genes
-gametes contain only one set of chromosomes– one homolog of each pair

A

somatic cells

70
Q

chromosome number; one copy of each pair

A

haploid (n)

71
Q

fertilization: 2 haploid gametes fuse to form

A

diploid zygote

72
Q

2 copies of each chromosome

A

diploid (2n)

73
Q

DNA is loose, chromosomes begin migrating to opposite poles

A

early prophase I; meiosis I

74
Q

DNA condenses; the 4 chromatids from each homologous pair form a tetrad (come together)

A

mid-prophase I; meiosis I

75
Q

crossovers occur between non-siser chromatids at chiasmata to form a recombinant chromosome

A

late prophase I-prometaphase; meiosis I

76
Q

pairs of homologous chromosomes line up on opposite sides of metaphase plate

A

metaphase I; meiosis I

77
Q

the pairs of homologous chromosomes separate to different daughter cells

A

anaphase I; meiosis I

78
Q

chromosomes are at opposite ends of cell
-DNA decondenses
-cytokinesis finishes cell division
-end of meiosis I: 2 haploid cells

A

telophase I; meiosis I

79
Q

chromosomes recondense after brief interphase; DNA does not replicate

A

prophase II; meiosis II

80
Q

contromeres of sister chromatids line up across metaphase plates of cells

A

metaphase II; meiosis II

81
Q

sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles
- independent assortment of recombinant chromatids contribute to genetic diversity

A

anaphase II; meiosis II

82
Q

chromosomes gather into nuclei and cells divide

A

telophase II; meiosis II

83
Q

each of 4 cells have nucleus with haploid number of unreplicated chromosomes

A

products of meiosis I and II

84
Q

exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids at the chiasmata

A

crossing over

85
Q

crossing over results in ___________ and increases genetic variability of products

A

recombinant chromatids

86
Q

hereditary determinants blend in the zygote
-once mixed, can not be separated

A

blending inheritance

87
Q

hereditary determinants are distinct units (particles) that remain intact when gametes fuse

A

particulate inheritance

88
Q

cross parental varieties with contrasting traits for a single character

A

monohybrid crosses

89
Q

mendel’s results clearly supported __________ hypothesis because ___________

A

particulate inheritance; you can pick out which one is different

90
Q

the trait that occurs in F1 that is more abundant in F2

A

dominant trait

91
Q

may be mutated and no longer expressed, or encode non-functional proteins

A

recessive alleles

92
Q

the two copies of a gene separate during gamete formation
- each gamete receives only one copy
-mendel’s work was validated because alleles of a gene segregate as chromosomes separate during Meiosis I

A

mendel’s first law- the law of segregation

93
Q

copies of different genes assort independently
-chromosomes segregate independently during formation of gametes, and so do any two genes located on separate chromosome pairs

A

mendel’s second law- independent assortment

94
Q

F1 individuals are crossed with homozygous recessive individuals

A

test crosses

95
Q

cross true-breeding individuals differing in 2 characteristics

A

dihybrid cross

96
Q

observable properties of an individual resulting from both genetic and environmental factors

A

phenotype

97
Q

2 alleles that are the same (RR, rr)

A

homozygous

98
Q

2 different alleles (Rr) one may be dominant (R) other may be recessive (r)

A

heterozygous

99
Q

family trees that show the occurance of phenotypes in several generations of related individuals

A

pedigrees

100
Q

pedigrees can be used to determine whether a rare allele is _______ or _______

A

dominant; recessive

101
Q

every affected person has an affected parent; about 1/2 offspring of an affected parent are also affected

A

rare dominant allele

102
Q

affected people can have 2 parents who are not affected; about 1/4 of children whose parents are both heterozygous

A

rare recessive alleles

103
Q

alleles are neither dominant nor recessive–heterozygotes have intermediate phenotypes (F2 generation, original phenotypes “reappear”; alleles didn’t “blend”)

A

incomplete dominance

104
Q

alleles produce phenotypes that are both present in the heterozygote

A

codominance

105
Q

one allele has multiple phenotypic effects

A

pleiotropic

106
Q

phenotypic expression of one gene is influenced by another gene (allele A isn’t expressed unless allele B is expressed)

A

epistasis

107
Q

due to both genes and environment (ex: height)

A

quantitative variation

108
Q

mendel’s pea characters were discrete and _____

A

qualitative

109
Q

specific position on a chromosome

A

locus

110
Q

the chromosomal regions that together determine such complex characters; can contain one or several genes

A

quantitative trait loci

111
Q

the process by which light energy is converted to chemical energy in sugars

A

photosynthesis

112
Q

when a photon hits a molecule, it can…

A

bounce off
pass through
be absorbed

113
Q

uses 2 photosystems
photon hits pigment in PSII and electron is energized
energy is passed inward from pigment to pigment until it reaches reaction center
reaction center chlorophylls electron s boosted to a high energy level

A

noncyclic electron transport

114
Q

2nd stage of photosynthesis
fixes CO2 into a usable form

A

calvin cycle

115
Q

composed of controsomes and microtubules

A

mitotic spindle

116
Q

observable physical feature (seed shape)

A

character

117
Q

form of a character (round or wrinkled)

A

trait

118
Q

stable, inherited changes in genetic material

A

mutations

119
Q

proportion of individuals with a certain genotype that show the phenotype

A

penetrance

120
Q

degree to which genotype is expressed in an individual

A

expressivity

121
Q

2 nuclear divisions occur in _________

A

meiosis

122
Q
A