Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Hematology > Phlebotomy > Flashcards

Phlebotomy Flashcards

1
Q

Haima is the greek word for

A

Blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

3 types of blood vessels

A

veins
arteries
capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The longest blood vessel is

A

Vein (D: 5mm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The smallest and most numerous blood vessel

A

Capillaries (D: 8um)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Diameter of arteries

A

4mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Blood is composed of (3) portions

A

Solid portion
Liquid portion
Gaseous portion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Liquid portion of unclotted blood

A

Plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Liquid portion of clotted blood

A

Serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cellular elements are otherwise known as

A

Hemocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The solid portion of the blood contains

A

RBC
WBC
PLT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Other names for RBC

A

Erythrocyte
Akaryocyte
Erythroplastids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Other names for WBC

A

Leukoplastids
Leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Granular WBCs

A

Basophil
Eosinophil
Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Agranular WBCs

A

LYMPH
MONO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Other names for PLTS

A

Thrombocytes
Thromboplastids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

pH of blood

A

7.35-7.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Average specific gravity of blood

A

1.055

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

SG of water

A

1.000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Blood is thicker than water

A

3.5-4.5x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

mL of blood per kg of body weight

A

75-85 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

grams of solid per 100 mL of blood

A

20 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Patient must be identified by asking for his/her

A

Name
Age/Sex
Birthdate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The most critical step in blood collection is

A

Patient identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The mortal sin of phlebotomy

A

Mislabeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Physiologic factors that can affect test results

A

Posture
Diurnal Rhythm
Stress
Exercise
Diet
Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Shift in posture from supine to standing/sitting can increase the levels of

A

Protein
Cholesterol
Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In the morning the following are increased:

A

Cortisol
TSH
Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

EO count is ____ in the morning

A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Fe, Chole, and Protein concentrations are increased when there is a shift in posture due to

A

them being too large and are not readily filtered into the the tissues from the blood vessels to the interstitial spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Stress increases

A

WBCs
Fibrinogen group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Fibrinogen group are thrombin-sensitive group because

A

they are all activated by thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Factors activated by thrombin

A

1
5
8
13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Exercise can increase (9)

A

Crea, CK, TP, Myoglobin, AST, HDL-Chole, LDH, WBC count, PLT count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

After a fatty meal, ___ is falsely increased; also ___-ALP

A

Hemoglobin
Intestinal ALP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Smoking increases

A

WBC count and cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Skin puncture may be used for (5)

A

newborn, pedia
severely burned px
px veins reserved for tx purposes
extremely obese px
elderly px w/ fragile veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

For infants <1yo, the site for skin puncture is

A

medial or lateral side of the heel portion of the plantar surface of infant’s foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

For >1 yo and adults, the site for skin puncture is on the

A

Palmar surface of the non-dominant 3rd or 4th distal finger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Recommended depth for skin puncture for infants and small children

A

<2.0 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Depth of puncture for adults

A

2-2.5 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Too much pressure or milking/squeezing the site can cause

A

hemolysis
introduce excess interstitial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Most common skin antiseptic

A

70% isopropyl alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The first drop of blood must be discarded in skin puncture to

A

Discard excess tissue fluid/interstitial fluid
Discard dead epidermal cells
Facilitate free flow of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Devices used for skin puncture

A

Capillary tubes
Microtainer tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Order of draw for skin puncture

A

Tube for Blood Gas Analysis
Slides
EDTA
Other microtainer with anticoag
Serum microcollection tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

First tube that is filled in skin puncture

A

Tube for blood gas analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

First tube that is filled before other microcollection tubes

A

EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

This can increase the blood flow by 7x

A

Warming of the puncture site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How to warm the puncture site

A

Warm washcloth (40-42C) for 3-5 mins max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Most common site for venipuncture

A

Superficial veins of the antecubital fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Two anatomical patterns of the veins

A

H
M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

H: veins used in order of preference

A

median cubital
cephalic
basilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

M: veins used according to preference

A

median vein
accessory cephalic
basilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Important Considerations in Venipuncture:
Angle between skin and needle must be

A

<30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Important Considerations in Venipuncture:
Recommended length of time for tourniquet application

A

< 1 min/60 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Important Considerations in Venipuncture:
Effects of prolonged tourniquet application includes

A

Hemoconcentration
Hemolysis
Shortened coagulation time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When there is stasis caused by prolonged tourniquet application, these factors accumulate leading to falsely shortened clot-based coagulation test results

A

Factor VIII and VWF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Important Considerations in Venipuncture:
The tourniquet must be located _____ above the venipuncture site

A

3-4 inches/ 7.5-10 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Important Considerations in Venipuncture:
Most common needle size for adult

A

21 G
Length: 1 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The higher the gauge,

A

the smaller the bore size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Important Considerations in Venipuncture:
A phlebotomist must never puncture a patient more than

A

twice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Important Considerations in Venipuncture:
Pumping of fist during blood collection will result to an increase in

A

Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Important Considerations in Venipuncture:
Sites to avoid

A

Veins of the inner wrist,
veins in the feet
fistula
arteries
inflamed sites
edematous sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Important Considerations in Venipuncture:
Causes of hemolysis

A

Prolonged tourniquet application
Moisture/contamination in blood CT
Needles with too small bores
Excessive agitation
Frothing of the blood sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Important Considerations in Venipuncture:
Standard Precautions was originally called

A

Universal Precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Practices to control diseases in which all blood, body fluids, and unfixed tissues are handled as if they were potentially infectious; including unfixed slides and microhematocrit clay

A

Standard Precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The most important practice to prevent the spread of infectious diseases

A

Hand washing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

During hand washing, rub hands vigorously for at least

A

15 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Important Considerations in Venipuncture:
Replace sharps container when they are

A

3/4 full

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The most common cause of needle puncture or puncture from other sharp objects is

A

improper disposal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Bruise is aka

A

Ecchymosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The most common complication encountered in venipuncture

A

Ecchymosis/Bruise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How is ecchymosis different from hematoma

A

Ecchymosis: leakage of SMALL amounts of blood, FLAT purplish discoloration
Hematoma: leakage of LARGE amounts of blood, SWOLLEN/BULGING purplish discoloration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

To avoid hemoconcentration after prolonged tourniquet application, wait for ____ before reapplying tourniquet

A

2 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Increased concentration of cells, larger molecules, and analytes in the blood because of a shift in water balance

A

Hemoconcentration

76
Q

If there is no alternative site for BC, ask nurse to stop IV for _____,
Draw _____ catheter site
The _____ is discarded

A

2 mins
below
first 5 mL of blood

77
Q

In obese px, blood pressure cuff can be used to locate veins. However, BP cuff must not be

A

inflated >40 mmHg
left on arm >1 min

78
Q

Iatrogenic anemia is aka

A

Physician-induced anemia
Nosocomial anemia

79
Q

This is caused by continuous collection of blood for diagnostic purposes

A

Iatrogenic anemia

80
Q

Fainting is aka

A

Syncope

81
Q

Short lapse of consciousness

A

Syncope/Fainting

82
Q

Formerly used to treat syncope; no longer used because it can trigger asthma attack

A

Ammonia inhalants

83
Q

4 types of Additives

A

Anti-glycolytic agents
Clot activators
Separator gel
Anticoagulants

84
Q

These inhibit the use of glucose by blood cells

A

Anti-glycolytic agents

85
Q

Quickens the clotting of the blood specimen

A

Clot activators

86
Q

Inert material that undergoes temporary change in viscosity during the centrifugation process

A

Separator Gel

87
Q

Separator gel aka

A

Thixotropic gel

88
Q

inhibits the blood from clotting

A

Anticoagulants

89
Q

Anti-glycolytic agents

A

Sodium fluoride
Lithium iodoacetate

90
Q

Similarities of sodium fluoride and lithium iodoacetate

A

gray top tube
inverted 8x
used for blood glucose and blood alcohol determination

91
Q

anticoagulant in sodium fluoride tubes

A

potassium oxalate

92
Q

anticoagulant in lithium iodoacetate tube

A

lithium heparin

93
Q

Sodium fluoride can preserve glucose for

A

3 days/72 hours

94
Q

Lithium iodoacetate can preserve glucose for

A

24 hours/1 day

95
Q

Stat comes from the Latin word statim which means

A

immediately

96
Q

Clot activators

A

Glass or silica particles
Thrombin

97
Q

Glass or silica particles activate

A

Factor XII

98
Q

Thrombin activates

A

Factor I, V, VIII, XIII

99
Q

Glass or silica particles are found in

A

red top tubes

100
Q

T/F
Plastic red top tubes has additives.

A

True

101
Q

Red top tubes with glass or silica particles are inverted

A

5x

102
Q

Thrombin is found on

A

orange top tubes

103
Q

Orange top tubes with thrombin are inverted

A

8x

104
Q

Clot activators (glass or silica particles and thrombin) are used for

A

stat serum determinations

105
Q

Separator gels or Thixotropic gels are found on

A

gold top tubes

106
Q

Gold top tubes with separator gels or thixotropic gels are inverted

A

5x

107
Q

Gold top tubes with separator gels or thixotropic gels are used for

A

serum determination

108
Q

EDTA stands for

A

ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid

109
Q

Most commonly used blood collection tube in the hematology section

A

Lavender/Purple top tubes

110
Q

EDTA is found in

A

Lavender/Purple top tubes

111
Q

EDTA tubes are inverted

A

8x

112
Q

EDTA is used for

A

routine hematologic determinations

113
Q

Optimal EDTA concentration is

A

1.5 mg per mL of blood

114
Q

MOA of EDTA

A

chelation of calcium

115
Q

EDTA:
CBC can be performed on blood stored at room temperature for up to

A

4 hours

116
Q

What parameters in CBC is valid even after 24 hours of blood collection, given that the blood is collected in EDTA and refrigerated at 4C?

A

WBC count, Hematocrit, PLT count

117
Q

WBC count, HCT, and PLT counts can be determined up to _____ after blood is collected in EDTA if it is refrigerated at 4C

A

24 hours

118
Q

WBC count, HCT, and PLT counts can be determined up to 24 hours after blood is collected in EDTA if it is refrigerated at ______

A

4C

119
Q

ESR should be set up within _____ of collection, if the EDTA blood was stored at room temperature or within 6 hours, if the specimen was refrigerated.

A

2 hours

120
Q

ESR should be set up within 2 hours of collection, if the EDTA blood was stored at room temperature or within ______, if the specimen was refrigerated.

A

6 hours

121
Q

ESR should be set up within 2 hours of collection, if the EDTA blood was stored at _____ or within 6 hours, if the specimen was refrigerated.

A

room temperature

122
Q

ESR should be set up within 2 hours of collection, if the EDTA blood was stored at room temperature or within 6 hours, if the specimen was ______.

A

refrigerated

123
Q

Blood smears can be made from EDTA tube as long as they are made within _____ of blood collection

A

2 hours

124
Q

Why is EDTA the recommended anticoagulant for platelet counts?

A

EDTA prevents platelet aggregation

125
Q

EDTA affects MPV by causing the cells to swell, thereby

A

there is a 20% increase in MPV during the first hour after blood collection

126
Q

MPV should be based on EDTA spx that are between

A

1-4 hours old

127
Q

Overfilled lavender top tubes can cause

A

clot formation

128
Q

Insufficient EDTA leads to the

A

presence of clots

129
Q

Excessive EDTA is caused by

A

underfilled tubes

130
Q

Excessive EDTA will result to (3)

A

falsely decreased Hct and ESR
falsely increased MCHC and PLT
degenerative changes in WBC

131
Q

Possible causes of clotted specimens (4)

A

difficult phlebotomy
blood sample not correctly inverted
expired BCT
overfilled tube

132
Q

CBC is also known as

A

Full Blood Count
Hemogram

133
Q

A process in which a current test result is compared with the result of the same test from the previous specimen from the same patient

A

Delta check

134
Q

Formation of a ring-shaped molecular complex in which a metal ion is covalent bound

A

chelation

135
Q

A test being ordered automatically based on the results of prior tests or present parameters

A

Reflex test

136
Q

Heparin is found in

A

green top tubes

137
Q

Green top tubes are inverted

A

8x

138
Q

Green top tube is used for (4)

A

Flow cytometry
Plasma cytometry determination
Osmotic Fragility Test
Blood Gas studies

139
Q

Hematologic tests for green top tubes

A

osmotic fragility test
flow cytometry
blood gas studies

140
Q

optimal heparin concentration is

A

15-20 units per mL of blood

141
Q

MOA of heparin

A

binds antithrombin

142
Q

Responsible for inhibiting thrombin and Factor Xa

A

Antithrombin

143
Q

Factor Xa and Thrombin promote the

A

clotting process

144
Q

The anticoagulant of choice for OFT and blood gas analysis

A

Heparin

145
Q

3 Heparin formulations

A

Ammonium heparin
Sodium heparin
Lithium heparin

146
Q

The heparin formulation that causes the least interference in chemistry testing

A

Lithium heparin

147
Q

The most and widely used anticoagulant for plasma and whole blood chemistry tests

A

Lithium heparin

148
Q

Must not be used for lithium level determination

A

Lithium heparin

149
Q

must not be used for sodium level determination or for electrolyte panel

A

sodium heparin

150
Q

must not be used for ammonia level determination

A

ammonium heparin

151
Q

Heparin is not used for CBC because it causes

A

cellular clumping, especially of plts

152
Q

Cellular clumping of platelets induced by heparin can cause

A

pseudoleukocytosis
pseudothrombocytopenia

153
Q

Heparin is also not used for blood smears since it causes

A

morphologic distortion of platelets and wbcs
cause blue coloration of the background of smears

154
Q

Heparin causes blue coloration of the background of blood smears stained with a Romanowsky stain because of its

A

pH

155
Q

Heparin causes blue coloration of the background of blood smears stained with a _____ stain because of its pH

A

Romanowsky

156
Q

Heparin causes _____ coloration of the background of blood smears stained with a Romanowsky stain because of its

A

blue

157
Q

Heparin must not be used in coagulation studies since it

A

inhibits thrombin

158
Q

3.2% Sodium Citrate is found on

A

light blue top tubes

159
Q

Light blue top tubes are inverted

A

3-4x

160
Q

Light blue top tubes with 3.2% Sodium citrate is used for

A

coagulation studies

161
Q

critical ratio between anticoagulant and blood

A

1:9

162
Q

MOA of 3.2% sodium citrate

A

chelation of calcium

163
Q

In light blue top tubes, forceful mixing or an excessive number of inversions can

A

activate platelets and shorten clotting time

164
Q

Why must the order of draw be followed during blood collection?

A

To avoid cross-contamination of additives that may cause test errors

165
Q

Information that must be present on the blood collection tube (4)

A

Px full name
PID
Date/Time OC (Military time)
Phleb initials/code number

166
Q

Number of inversions of a red top (glass) tube

A

0

167
Q

Yellow top tube may contain either

A

Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate
Acid Citrate Dextrose

168
Q

Anticoagulant for blood culture

A

SPS

169
Q

MOA of SPS (4)

A

prevent phagocytosis
prevent complement activation
neutralize some antibiotics
anticoagulant

170
Q

Acid Citrate Dextrose is used for

A

Blood Bank tests
HLA tests
DNA tests
Paternity testing

171
Q

Color of tube for paternity testing

A

Yellow

172
Q

Tan top tube has — of lead

A

<0.01 ug/mL

173
Q

Since tan top tube has <0.01 ug/mL of lead, it is recommended for

A

lead determination

174
Q

Royal blue top tube contains

A

low levels of trace elements

175
Q

Since the royal blue top tube contains low levels of trace elements, it is recommended for

A

toxicology
nutritional chemistry determination
trace elements determination

176
Q

White top tube is used for

A

molecular diagnostic tests

177
Q

Black top tube anticoagulant

A

3.8% sodium citrate

178
Q

AC:B ratio in black top tube

A

1:4

179
Q

Black top tube which contains 3.8% Sodium citrate is used for

A

Westergren
ESR

180
Q

_____ has a special crossmatch label or px information approved by AABB

A

Pink top tube

181
Q

Pink top tubes can be used for

A

blood bank tests
whole blood hema tests

182
Q

Anticoagulant of white top tube

A

K2 EDTA with gel

183
Q

Color of tubes with K2 EDTA

A

tan
royal blue
pink

184
Q

light blue top tubes may contain either

A

3.2% sodium citrate
CTAD

185
Q

CTAD stands for

A

citrate
theophylline
adenosine
dipyridamole

186
Q

light blue top tubes with 3.2% sodium citrate are used for

A

coagulation tests e.g. PT and APTT

187
Q

light blue top tubes with CTAD are used for

A

coagulation tests
also for platelet function assays e.g. PF-4 and b-thromboglobulin assays

Hematology (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions