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EAWS VFA-102 > Phase III > Flashcards

Phase III Flashcards

1
Q

(T/F) composite material normally does not present a hazard until it is broken and fiber has been exposed

A

True

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2
Q

What are some no step areas on top of the aircraft?

A
  • The leading edge flaps
  • trailing edge flaps
  • horizontal stabilizers
  • ailerons
  • radome services
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3
Q

What is the PSI of the hydraulic brake pressure

A

2900 psi minimum

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4
Q

How many tiedown rings are there on the aircraft?

A

12

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5
Q

Canopy and windshield must have the static buildup discharge through the use of what?

A

A static charge removal kit

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6
Q

What is the voltage level of the static electrical charge built up and stored in the windshield and canopy during flight?

A

100,000 volts

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7
Q

What is the purpose of composite material?

A

The purpose of composite materials is to limit weight increase strength and decreased effort of corrosion attack.

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8
Q

What does LEX stand for and what does it do?

A

Leading edge extension.

Provides added lift at high angles of attack

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9
Q

What are the leading edge flaps used for?

A

They deflect asymmetrically to aid the ailerons in producing roll motion.

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10
Q

What are stabilizers for?

A

Stabilizers deflect symmetrically to produce pitch motion and asymmetrically to produce roll motion.

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11
Q

What do rudders produce

A

Yaw motion

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12
Q

What aircraft our speed brakes installed on?

A

F/A-18 A-D

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13
Q

What aircraft are the leading edge extension spoilers installed on?

A

F/A-18 E-F models and it provide speed break when commanded

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14
Q

What does the launch bar do?

A

It engages the catapult

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15
Q

What does the arresting hook do?

A

It engages an arrestment cable

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16
Q

Hydraulic systems in a F/A-18 include what systems?

A

An accumulator, hydraulic reservoir, lines and multiple valves

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17
Q

What does hydraulic system one provide?

A

Hydraulic fluid pressure to primary flight

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18
Q

What does hydraulic system 2 provide

A

Hydraulic fluid pressure to the primary flight control also supplies pressure to all other non-flight control systems

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19
Q

What do you switching valves do?

A

Allow back up hydraulic pressure to replace the primary hydraulic pressure when primary hydraulic pressure fails

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20
Q

What are trailing edge flaps for

A

They deflect symmetrically to change left

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21
Q

What distance should you keep from intakes? What distance at MIL and MAX

A

9ft radius and 25ft radius

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22
Q

What is the exhaust range at idle and maximum power?

A

Idle: 115ft

Max power: 925ft

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23
Q

Can jet fuel cause chemical burns?

A

Yes

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24
Q

Is jet fuel combustible

A

Yes

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25
Q

What type of engine is used in the F/A-18E/F

A

F414-GE-400

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26
Q

Describe the engine

A

The engine is a low bypass, axial flow, dual-spool Turbofan engine of modular construction with after burner

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27
Q

VEN

A

Variable exhaust nozzle

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28
Q

What is the variable exhaust novel (VEN) for?

A

To provide required thrust in fuel efficiency’s while maintaining exhaust gas temperature

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29
Q

FVG

A

Fan variable geometry

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30
Q

CVG

A

Compressor variable geometry

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31
Q

True or false anti-icing system provides anti-ice airflow to the engine

A

True

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32
Q

FADEC

A

Full authority digital engine control

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33
Q

Describe the throttle system

A

It is a fly-by-wire system with no mechanical connections to the engine

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34
Q

What door is refueling/defueling controlled/monitored from

A

Door 8

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35
Q

IFR

A

In-flight refueling

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36
Q

APU

A

Auxiliary power unit

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37
Q

AMAD

A

Airframe mounted accessory drive

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38
Q

What are the three modes to the auxiliary power unit

A
  1. Ground Maintenance Mode (GMM)
  2. Main Engine Start (MES)
  3. Environmental Control Systems (ECS)
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39
Q

What transmits power to the engine for starting

A

AMAD Airframe mounted accessory drive

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40
Q

What is the ram air turbine A2 (RAT)

A

It is a four bladed power source which drives the hydraulic pump via a spline shaft

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41
Q

What are advantages of using fiber optic cables

A

Improved system performance, immunity to electrical noise, reduced size and weight

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42
Q

What is azimuth

A

It is defined as the angular position or bearing in a horizontal plane usually measured clockwise from true North

Aka your distance from true north

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43
Q

What is Bearing

A

It is defined as angular position of an object with respect to a reference point or line

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44
Q

What is the purpose of a very high frequency/ultra high frequency communications

A

To communicate with other aircraft, groundstations, shipping traffic in coastal stations

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45
Q

VHF

A

Very high frequency

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46
Q

UHF

A

Ultra high frequency

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47
Q

IAS

A

Intercommunication audio system

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48
Q

What is the intercommunication audio system

A

To provide amplification and routing of audio signals between cockpit, ground crew, and rear cockpit

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49
Q

TACAN

A

Tactical air navigation

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50
Q

What is tactical air navigation for

A

To determine the relative bearing and slant range distance to a TACAN ground station or similar TACAN equipped aircraft

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51
Q

INS

A

Internal navigation system

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52
Q

What is the internal navigation system

A

A self-contained, fully automatic dead reckoning navigation system

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53
Q

What does the INS detect

A

It detects aircraft motion and provides acceleration, velocity, present position, pitch role, and true heading to related systems

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54
Q

GPS

A

Global positioning system

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55
Q

What is the global positioning system

A

It is a navigation system that receives reference information from a satellite and provides the pilot and other aircraft systems continuously updated present position, velocity, and time information

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56
Q

ARI

A

Attitude reference indicator

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57
Q

What is the attitude reference indicator for

A

It is a self-contained pitch in roll attitude reference system

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58
Q

ILS

A

Instrument landing system

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59
Q

What is the instrument landing system

A

It is an all weather approach guidance system that provides steering information during an aircraft approach

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60
Q

What is a barometer altimeter

A

Uses the pilot static pressure to indicate altitude above Sea

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61
Q

What is a radar altimeter

A

It uses radio echoes to determine altitude above ground level

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62
Q

What does the pilot static system do

A

It measures temperature, pilot (dynamic or ram air) And static air pressures surrounding the aircraft

Aka tells pilot halos fast their air speed is

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63
Q

AOA

A

Angle of attack

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64
Q

What does the angle of attack show

A

Shows approach angle of landing with lighted symbols to the pilot

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65
Q

AOAT

A

Angle of attack transmitters

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66
Q

What is the angle of attack transmitters for

A

It measures the Difference between the longitude axis of the aircraft and the airstream

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67
Q

What is a data link

A

A link connecting the airborne data link system with a controlling shipboard, airborne, or land based combat direction system

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68
Q

RADAR

A

Radio detection and ranging

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69
Q

What does the radio detection and ranging provide

A

Provides air to air and air to ground mode for target detection, designation, tracking, and navigation

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70
Q

MC

A

Mission computers

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71
Q

What do mission computers do

A

Communicates and provides data conversion with non-mux Avionic equipment through the control converter by way of the avionics mux channel. They also provide The air to air and air to ground Master modes of operation

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72
Q

HUD

A

Heads up display

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73
Q

What does the HUD do?

A

Provides aircraft altitude, steering, navigation, A/A and A/G weapons, End navigation FLR video display into the pilots forward field of view

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74
Q

TAMMAC

A

Tactical aircraft moving map capability system

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75
Q

SSR

A

Solid-state recorder

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76
Q

What is a solid-state recorder

A

Removable storage cartridge that records cockpit and sensor video

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77
Q

RMM

A

Removable memory module

78
Q

AMU

A

Advanced memory unit

79
Q

What does the AMU do?

A

Communicates with the mission computer system to provide recording of aircraft maintenance code history, fatigue strain gauge, engine and tactical data

80
Q

DFIRS

A

Deployable flight incident recorder set

81
Q

What are the two functions of the DFIRS

A

Retrieving and storage of flight data and the deployment of stored flight data before the aircraft crashed. Battery can operate the beacon for 72 hours

82
Q

FIRAMS

A

Flight incident recorder and monitoring system

83
Q

What does the flight incident recorder and monitoring system do

A

Monitors engine and airframe operational status for unit failures and caution/advisory conditions

84
Q

JHMCS

A

Joint helmet mounted cueing system

85
Q

What color are the lights on the left side of the aircraft

A

Red

86
Q

What color are the lights on the right side of the aircraft

A

Green

87
Q

What color is the tail light

A

White

88
Q

How many formation lights are there and what color

A

10 green lights

89
Q

Describe the

A

Provides 28VDC power to the essential and maintenance/start buses

90
Q

Describe the two generators

A

Supplying 115/200VAC, 400 HZ, three phase electrical power; Also supplies 28VDC power

91
Q

HERO

A

Hazards of electromagnetic radiation to ordinance

92
Q

What are the color codings of ordinance

A

Yellow indicates that it is a high explosive

Brown indicates it is a rocket motor

Blue represents a training round

93
Q

What are bomb ejector racks used for

A

To suspend and eject single stores and weapons

94
Q

What are LAUs used for

A

To suspend and launch missiles

95
Q

How many weapons stations does a F/A-18E/F aircraft have

A

11 stations

96
Q

CAD

A

Cartridge actuate device

97
Q

What are CADs

A

Small explosive filled cartridges used to fire other explosives

98
Q

What is a fire bomb

A

A thin-skinned container Of fuel jelled designed for use against dug in troops, supply installations, wooden structures, and land convoys

99
Q

CATM

A

Captive Aire training missile

100
Q

What are captive Air training missiles used for

A

For pilot training and Ariel target acquisition and aircraft controls

101
Q

What are the three modes of operation for missiles

A
  1. Active
  2. Semi-Active
  3. Passive
102
Q

What is the AIM-7 series sparrow

A

Guided missile which is a solid fuel rocket propelled air to air missile with a conventional warhead using semi active radar homing for guidance

103
Q

What is the AIM-9X

A

It is a supersonic, air to air weapon that incorporates an IR imaging sensor, target detector, warhead, propulsion steering section, a high performance jet van control actuation system, and the addition of forward wings to improve maneuverability

104
Q

What is an AIM-120 Advanced medium range air to air missile

A

A super sonic, air to air weapon, with active radar target detection and onboard inertial navigation

105
Q

What is the AGM-154 joint standoff weapon (JSW)

A

Medium range precision guided weapon, especially for engagement of defended targets at ranges outside that of standard anti-aircraft defenses

106
Q

What is an AGM-65 (maverick)

A

A solid fuel rocket propelled air to ground missile with a conventional warhead using imaging infrared guidance

107
Q

What is an AGM-84D harpoon

A

Uses an active radar seeker

108
Q

AGM-84E Standoff land attack missile (SLAM)

A

Uses INS, GPS, and IR for terminal guidance

109
Q

AGM-84H standoff land attack missile expanded response (SLAM-ER)

A

Was updated to improve control, range, and target penetration

110
Q

AGM-88 High-speed anti-radiation missile (HARM)

A

A solid fuel rocket propelled air to ground missile with conventional warhead using proportional guidance to home in on threat radar emissions

111
Q

Describe the M61A1 20mm

A

High, 6000 rounds per minute

Low, 4000 rounds per minute

112
Q

SMS

A

Stores management system

113
Q

What does the stores management system provide

A

Electrical interface between the weapon stations, aircraft switching, and related aircraft systems and consist of and armament control processor also known as the stores management processor, and up to nine signal data converter-controls

114
Q

What is the ALE-47

A

Improves aircraft survivability against tracking radar, air to air and surface to air missiles. Protection is provided by ejection chaff, flyers, and RF expendables, and other payloads. Decoy flares are use during evasive maneuvers against Heat seeking missiles.

115
Q

What is chaff

A

fine shredded metal strips that disbursed into the atmosphere and jams the ground controlled radar insulation or radar controlled missiles.

116
Q

What is AN/ALE-50

A

A toad active RF decoy system which provides offboard countermeasures capability

117
Q

What is hypoxia

A

It is a decrease in the amount of oxygen

118
Q

What is anoxia

A

It is death due to complete lack of oxygen

119
Q

What do you do before entering the cockpit area

A

Ensure ejection seat safety pins are installed and handle is in the safe position also ensure the canopy jettison safety pin is installed

120
Q

What position must do not leave the canopy in?

A

The intermediate position

121
Q

Liquid oxygen is what percent pure oxygen

A

99.5%

122
Q

Oxygen and it’s liquid form has a temperature of what

A

-297 degrees Fahrenheit

123
Q

What is the safe distance to permit smoking, open flames, or sparks in a LOX handling area

A

50 feet

124
Q

What is the minimum requirement for aircrew personal protective equipment

A

Flight suit, aviator boots, anti-g garment, helmet, survival radio/beacon, gloves, anti-exposure suit, ID tags, knife, personal survival kit, signal device, flashlight, life preserver, laser eye protection

125
Q

What model is the oxygen regulator

A

CRU-104/P

126
Q

What is the CRU-103/P

A

A chest mounted, positive pressure, g-mounted Regulator that provides on-demand oxygen flow to the aircrew

127
Q

What does the anti-gravity (anti-g) suit consist of

A

A bladder system in case in a fire resistant cloth, as G-force Increases the bladder automatically inflates to apply pressure on the body and restrict the downward flow of blood to aircrew feet and waste lessening the effects of black out

128
Q

Anti-g suit

A

Anti gravity suit

129
Q

PHSRU

A

Parachute harness sensing release unit

130
Q

What is the parachute harness sensing release unit

A

It is a sea water activated release system that provides a back up automatic mode of separating the parachute from the aircrew

131
Q

HDU

A

Helmet mounted display unit

132
Q

Describe the helmet mounted display unit

A

It uses miniature display components, which allows symbology to be projected onto the visor and super imposed in the operators view

133
Q

What is the purpose of the ejection seat

A

It is to provide aircrew a place to sit during normal conditions and for propelling occupant out during emergencies

134
Q

What type of ejection seat is used

A

SJU-17A (V) 2/A

135
Q

How is ejection from the ejection seat initiated

A

By pulling the ejection control handle located on the front of the seat bucket

136
Q

What is the canopy system

A

It is a pyrotechnically operated emergency Canopy removal. It provides the capability to explosively jettison the canopy from the aircraft in the case of emergency. Canopy jettison is automatic when the seat ejection is initiated

137
Q

ECS

A

Environmental control system

138
Q

What does the ECS do

A

Provides air supply, thermal control in cabin pressurization for the crew. Avionics cooling, smoke detection and fire suppression are also commonly considered parts of the environmental control system.

139
Q

What does the bleed air system do

A

Supplies hot, high pressure engine bleed air for the ECS, OBOGS and external fuel tank pressurization

140
Q

OBOGS

A

On board oxygen generation system

141
Q

What is the anti-gravity system made up of

A

Tubing and a valve which deliver regulated air pressure to the pilots anti-G suit which reduces the fatiguing affects of exposure to positive and negative G forces

142
Q

What is the onboard oxygen generation system

A

A series of lines, valves, and a concentrator that regulate pressure, control flow, and distribute oxygen to the crew station

143
Q

What does the fire detection system monitor

A

The AMAD, APU, and engine bays for

144
Q

What does the fire extinguishing system use

A

A single fire extinguisher tank with three distribution lines, one for the APU and one for each of the engine/AMAD bays. The system is a one shot one bay system

145
Q

DBFSS

A

Dry bay fire suppression system

146
Q

SEAD

A

Suppression of enemy air defenses

147
Q

What is the purpose of SEAD

A

To neutralize and destroy the enemy air defenses

148
Q

WAS

A

War

149
Q

What is the WAS mission

A

To destroy the enemies naval vessels

150
Q

CAS

A

Close air support

151
Q

What does close air support do

A

Target description, location of friendly forces, time on target, and suspected air threat

152
Q

MAS

A

Maritime air superiority

153
Q

What does MAS do

A

Maintain the air space around the battle group

154
Q

ACM

A

Air combat maneuvering

155
Q

What is air combat maneuvering

A

The art of maneuvering a combat aircraft in order to attain a position

156
Q

CAP

A

Combat air patrol

157
Q

What is combat air patrol

A

Aircraft patrol provided over an objective area

158
Q

FCF

A

Functional check flight

159
Q

What does functional check flight determine

A

Weather in aircraft airframe, engine, accessories, or equipment is functioning according to establish standards

160
Q

FCLP

A

Field carrier landing practice

161
Q

What is field carrier landing practice

A

Simulated carrier landings

162
Q

VMC

A

Visual meteorological conditions

163
Q

What is visual meteorological conditions

A

Decides whether flight is permitted in terms of his ability, ceiling height, and aircraft clearance from clouds along the path of light

164
Q

IMC

A

Instrument meteorological conditions

165
Q

What is instrument meteorological conditions

A

Sometimes referred to as blind flying. This requires pilots to five primarily by reference to instruments

166
Q

What is IMC with instrument flight rules

A

Describes the actual weather conditions

167
Q

IFR

A

Instrument flight rules

168
Q

What are instrument flight rules

A

Rules for governing the procedures for conducting instrument flight

169
Q

CATCC

A

Carrier air traffic control center

170
Q

What does CATCC do

A

Maintains primary control of airborne aircraft operating from the carrier and is responsible for the status and upkeep of all carrier air operations

171
Q

FLOLS

A

Fresnel lense Optical landing system

172
Q

What does FLOLS provide

A

The pilot with a visual indication of his or her relative position with respect to a prescribed glideslope

173
Q

MOVLAS

A

Manually operated visual landing aid system

174
Q

What is a manually operated visual landing aid system

A

And emergency signaling system that is intended to be used when the primary optical landing system is rendered inoperative

175
Q

AAW

A

Anti-air warfare

176
Q

What is anti-air warfare

A

The detection, tracking, distraction, or neutralization of enemy air platforms and airborne weapons

177
Q

AMW

A

Amphibious warfare

178
Q

What is amphibious warfare

A

They are attacks launched from the sea by naval forces and by land forces embarked on ships or craft design to achieve a shore presents

179
Q

CCC

A

Command, control, and communications

180
Q

What does the CCC provide

A

Communications and related facilities for coordination and control of external organizations or forces and control of owns units capabilities

181
Q

MIW

A

Mine warfare

182
Q

What is mine warfare

A

The use of mines for control/denial of sea

183
Q

MOB

A

Mobility

184
Q

What is mobility

A

The ability of naval forces to maneuver and maintain themselves in all situations over, under, or upon the surface

185
Q

NCO

A

Noncombatant operations

186
Q

What are noncombatant operations

A

Selected operations of a noncombatant nature not clearly categorized in any other warfare Mission area

187
Q

STW

A

Strike

188
Q

What is strike warfare

A

It is the Destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the use of conventional or nuclear weapons

189
Q

What does TACAN give you?

A

Slant range and bearing

190
Q

do position lights blink?

A

No

EAWS VFA-102 (2 decks)

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