Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EAWS VFA-102 > Phase I&II > Flashcards

Phase I&II Flashcards

1
Q

What are unified commands?

A
  • Joint Forces Command
  • Transportation Command
  • Strategic Command
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are geographic commands?

A
  • Northern Command
  • Southern Command
  • Central Command
  • Pacific Command
  • European Command
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CINCPACFLT

A

Commander in chief U.S. Pacific Fleet Command all naval forces in the Pacific theater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CINCLANTFLT

A

Commander in chief U.S. Atlantic Fleet Commands all naval forces in the Atlantic theater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CONCUSNAVEUR

A

Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Naval Forces Europe commands all Naval forces in the European theater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Task force commander

A

Divides fleet into forces, Groups, elements, and units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who is the secretary of the Navy

A

Thomas Modely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who is the chief of Naval operations?

A

Admiral Mike Gilday

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fleet commander in chief

who command what fleet

A
  • Pacific Fleet (CINCPACFLT), commands the Third and Seventh
    Fleets.
  • Atlantic Fleet (CINCLANTFLT), commands the Second Fleet.
  • Europe (CINCUSNAVEUR), commands the Sixth Fleet.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the functional Wing Commander responsible for?

A

Wing Commanders are responsible for the aircraft material readiness, administration, training, and
inspection of squadrons under their command.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the type squadron commander responsible for?

A

responsible for the maintenance and material condition of aeronautical equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Commander in chief

A

Donald Trump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Vice President

A

Mike Pence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Secretary of defense

A

The honorable Ashton carter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the three objectives of first aid?

A

1) Maintain breathing
2) Stop bleeding
3) Prevent or treat for shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the three ways for controlling bleeding?

A
  1. Direct pressure
  2. Pressure points
  3. Tourniquet (Last resort)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a dislocation (first aid)

A

The bone is forcibly displaced from its joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a sprain

A

Injuries to the ligament and soft tissue that support a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the steps to CPR

A
  1. Check for responsiveness. If no response, ensure 911 is call for Medical Emergency and assistance.
  2. Check if the patient is breathing for 5-10 seconds. If not breathing or only gasping, start CPR.
  3. 30 compressions:2 breaths
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is ORM

A

a systematic, decision-making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many steps are there to ORM and what are they?

A
  2. Identify hazards
  3. Assess hazards
  4. Make risk decisions
  5. Implement controls
  6. Supervise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the four principles to ORM

A
  1. Accept the risk when the benefit outweighs the cost
  2. Accept no unnecessary risk
  3. Anticipate and manage risk by planning
  4. Make risk decisions at the right level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the three levels of ORM

A
  1. In depth
  2. Deliberate
  3. Time critical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the classes of mishaps

A

Class A
Class B
Class C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Types of chemical agents

A

Nerve, blood, blister, choking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the M9 paper? (CBR)

A

Detects chemical agents by turning red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are types of biological warfare

A

Pathogens and toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the different MOPP levels

A 
MOPP Level 0
MOPP Level 1 
MOPP Level 2
MOPP Level 3
MOPP Level 4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does MOPP stand for?

A

Mission oriented protective posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the fire triangle

A

Oxygen, fuel, and heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How many classes of fires are there and what are they?

A

4

Alpha: wood products
Bravo: fuels
Charlie: electrical fire
Delta: combustible metals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do you put out a class Delta fire

A

H2O in large quantities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How do you put out a class Charlie fire

A

Energized: CO2, Halon, PKP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How do you put out a class bravo fire

A

AFFF, Halon, PKP, CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How do you put out a class alpha fire

A

AFFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Runways

A

Used for aircraft takeoff and landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Threshold markings

A

Parallel lines on the end of the runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Overrun areas

A

Are to be provided for aborting or overshot aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

MA-1 series overrun barrier

A

To stop tricycle landing gear Equipped aircraft Not equipped with tail hooks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Emergency shore based recovery equipment

A

Use during in-flight emergencies that requires Stopping the aircraft during landing in the shortest distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Taxiways

A

Paved areas for aircraft to move between parking aprons, runway, and airfield services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Compass calibration pad (compass rose)

A

A paved area in a magnetically quiet area for the compass to be calibrated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Runway numbering system

A

Numbered in relation to their magnetic heading rounded to the nearest 10 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Airfield rotating beacon

A

Used to identify airports location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Flight deck safety equipment

A
  1. Flight deck boots
  2. Jersey
  3. Cranial
  4. Goggles
  5. Leather gloves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Who are the yellow jerseys for

A

Aircraft handling officer, flight deck officer, catapult officer, air bosn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Who are the brown jerseys for

A

Plane captain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Who are the purple jerseys for

A

Fuel crew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Who are the white jerseys for

A

Safety, medical, Landing signal officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Who are the blue jerseys for

A

Aircraft handling and Chock crewman and elevator operators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Who are the green jerseys for

A

Catapult and arresting gear personal, Squadron aircraft maintenance personnel, photographers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Who are the red jerseys for

A

Crash and salvage, explosive ordnance disposal, And ordinance handling personal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the procedures for grounding

A

First hook up the grounding strap to a certified static ground then to the aircraft grounding receptacle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the voltage for the windshield static

A

100,000 volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the tiedown categories for securing an aircraft

A
  • Wind up to 45 knots- Initial tie down minimum 6 chains
  • wind up to 45 knots- normal weather tie down 9 chains required
  • Wind 46-60 knots- Moderate weather tie down 14 chains required
  • Wind above 60 knots- Heavy weather tie down 20 chains required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the max towing speed

A

5 mph or the speed of the slowest walker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How many people are required for the movement of an aircraft

A

A team of 6 to 10 people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the move director responsible for

A

responsible for assembling the move crew, ensuring they are properly qualified to perform their duties,pre moving brief, Safe movement of the aircraft with emphasis on safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the brake rider responsible for

A

Conducts a pre-move inspection of brake system and aircraft to ensure it is mechanically soundand readyformovement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the chalk walker responsible for

A

Responsible for moving, carrying, and installing the wheel chalks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the safety observer’s responsible for

A

Responsible for ensuring the aircraft is ready to be towed And that there is ample clearance for the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the tractor driver responsible for

A

Responsible for the safe and slow movement of the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Air intake ducts of operating jet

A

Hazard is greatest during maximum power. Can pull off hats and glasses etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the two most serious hazards of the engine exhaust of an aircraft

A

The high temperature in the high velocity of exhaust gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

T/F Personnel should not approach rotors and propeller blades

A

True never approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Hot breaks

A

Never face the side of them. Always approach from fore or aft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the wind indicator

A

Provides a method for prompt issuance Of wind directions And velocities two pilots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Tower visual communications

A

Coordination device between the radar controller and the control tower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

TACAN

A

Tactical air navigation system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

ILS

A

Instrument landing system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

VOR

A

VHF Omnidirectional Range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

GPS

A

Global positioning system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the FPCON levels?

A 
FPCON NORMAL
FPCON ALPHA
FPCON BRAVO
FPCON CHARLIE 
FPCON DELTA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the DEFCON levels?

A 
DEFCON 5
DEFCON 4
DEFCON 3
DEFCON 2
DEFCON 1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does NAMP stand for?

A

Naval aviation maintenance program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

MO

A

Maintenance officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

AMO

A

Assistant maintenance officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

MMCO

A

Maintenance/material control officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

MMCPO

A

Maintenance master chief petty officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

QAO

A

Quality assurance officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

MCO

A

Material control officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are two types of maintenance described in the NAMP

A

Rework and upkeep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Types of upkeep maintenance

A

Turn around, daily, Special, conditional, phase, acceptance, transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

RCM

A

Reliability centered maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is it is turnaround inspection and how long is it good for

A

It is conducted between flights to ensure the integrity of the aircraft and it is good for 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is it is daily inspection and how long is it good for

A

Conducted to inspect For defects To a greater depth than the turnaround inspection. It is good for 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is it is special inspection

A

Inspections Done in intervals other than daily or phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is it is conditional inspection

A

Events which create an administrative requirements for an inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is it is phase maintenance

A

Divide the total scheduled maintenance requirements and two smaller packages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

When is acceptance maintenance/ inspection done

A

Done with newly excepted aircraft or support equipment are gained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is transfer maintenance/ inspection

A

Done when transferring an aircraft

92
Q

FCF

A

Frontal check flight

93
Q

What is a FCF

A

determine whether the airframe, powerplant, accessories and equipment are functioning in accordance with predetermined standards

94
Q

SFF

A

Safe for flight

95
Q

What does SFF mean

A

When an aircraft Is any status permitted to be Launched, flown, and landed safely

96
Q

MMP

A

Monthly maintenance plan

97
Q

What is the purpose of the MMP

A

provide scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload, for example, inspections, transfer or receipt of aircraft, and compliance with TDs.

98
Q

What is the aircraft logbook

A

A detailed service record for each individual aircraft

99
Q

QA

A

Quality assurance

100
Q

QAR and what are they for

A

Quality assurance representative. They certify that the work Involved has been properly inspected by them

101
Q

CDQAR

A

Collateral duty quality assurance representative.

They are assigned by the workcenter And work the same as the QAR

102
Q

CDI

A

Collateral duty inspector.

Inspect all the work done by their collateral duty quality assurance representatives

103
Q

What are the programs managed by the QAR

A
  • CTPL (Central technical publication library)
  • maintenance dept/ division safety
  • Quality assurance audit program
  • SE misuse/abuse
  • ACSP (Aircraft confined space program)
  • NAMDRP (Naval aviation maintenance reporting program)
104
Q

CTPL

A

Central technical publications library

105
Q

Types of quality assurance audits

A

Special, workcenter, and program

106
Q

ACSP

A

Aircraft confined space program

107
Q

NAMDRP

A

Naval aviation maintenance reporting program

108
Q

FOD Prevention program

A

identifies, corrects, and eliminates causal factors which are a command responsibility and must be a part of the maintenance program. QA will monitor the FOD program.

109
Q

Tool control program

A

a means to rapidly account for all tools after completing a maintenance task, thus reducing the potential for FOD.

110
Q

Missing Tool procedures

A
  1. Stop work immediately

2. WCS actions: Notify maintenance control, conduct inspection on aircraft, and start a missing tool report

111
Q

Fuel surveillance

A

Free water and foreign contaminants in aircraft fuel systems, singularly or in combination, constitute a hazard in naval aircraft.

112
Q

Material control

A

provide material support to their cognizant organizations and coordinate indirect material requirements to ensure the material ordered is the material required and delivered to the work centers.

113
Q

What are some things in OPTAR funding

A
  • fuel consumed in flight
  • Light clothing in flight equipment used by pilot and aircrew
  • office supplies
114
Q

AFM fund

A

Aviation fleet maintenance fund

115
Q

What are AFM funds used for

A
  • consumable repair parts

- paints, wiping rags, towel service, cleaning agents used in preventative maintenance

116
Q

What is a flight packet

A

Contain instructions to assist pilots of aircraft involved in extended flights to obtain material or services which may be necessary for the continuation of a flight.

117
Q

NATOPS

A

Naval air training Operating procedures standardization

118
Q

What is the purpose of NATOPS

A

positive approach Toward improving combat readiness achieving substantial reduction in aircraft mishap rate

119
Q

When was NATOPS established

A

1961

120
Q

When was the first takeoff from a ship and by who

A

November 14, 1910 by Eugene Ely

121
Q

When is the birthday of Naval aviation

A

May 8, 1911

122
Q

When was the first Naval aviation fatality and who was it

A

June 20, 1913 and it was ENS William D. billingsley

123
Q

When were the first quality assurance representatives established

A

October 22, 1917

124
Q

What ship was recommission to become the first aircraft carrier

A

The Jupiter

125
Q

What is the name of the first aircraft carrier and when was it established

A

March 20, 1922 USS Langley (CV-1)

126
Q

What year was the first helicopter squadron established

A

HU-1

1948

127
Q

When do the first American go to space and who was it

A

May 5, 1961

Alan B. shepherd Junior

128
Q

When did Neil Armstrong walk on the moon

A

July 20-21, 1969

129
Q

What year were female aviators established

A

1994

130
Q

What ship became the first combat ship to have Permanently assigned females

A

USS Eisenhower

131
Q

When was coral sea

A

May 7-8, 1942

132
Q

When was the battle of Midway

A

June 3-5, 1942

133
Q

When was the battle of Guadalcanal

A

November 13-15 1942

134
Q

Facts on 9/11

A

Date: September 11, 2001

What: Plane crashed into twin World
Trade Center towers, New York City

Who: 3000 people died

135
Q

What is the name of the first jet powered Naval aircraft And when was it established?

A

FH-2 Phantom

July 21, 1946

136
Q

Who was the first MCPON? And during what dated?

A

Master Chief Delbert black

Jan 13, 1967- April 1, 1971

137
Q

When was the sailors Creed written and who was written by

A

1993 by Blue ribbon Recruit training panel

138
Q

What is the oldest Navy vessel

A

The USS constitution

139
Q

When is the Navy’s birthday

A

October 13, 1775

140
Q

What is the Union Jack flag

A

The rectangular blue part containing the stars on the United States flag. Representing the union of the states

141
Q

When was the Navy flag established

A

April 24, 1959

142
Q

What is linear motion

A

When all of the body moves in a line

143
Q

What is angular motion

A

When a body or part of a body moves in a circle

144
Q

What is general motion

A

A combination of linear and angular motion

145
Q

What is acceleration

A

The rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time

146
Q

What is speed

A

The rate of movement in Terms of distance moving in an allotted amount of time

147
Q

What is velocity

A

The quickness or speed of And object in a given time and direction

148
Q

What is force

A

Something that causes the change in the motion of an object

149
Q

What is inertia

A

The willingness of an object to remain at rest or at motion until an outside forces acting upon it

150
Q

What is lift

A

Force that acts in an upward position that supports the aircraft in the air

151
Q

What is weight

A

The force of gravity acting downward

152
Q

What is drag

A

Force that holds an aircraft back

153
Q

What is longitude axis

A

And imaginary reference line runningDown the center of the aircraft running from the nose to the tail

154
Q

What is lateral axis

A

And imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings

155
Q

What is vertical axis

A

A vertical line running from the bottom to the top of the aircraft

156
Q

Ailerons

A

Roll- Longitude axis

157
Q

Elevators

A

Pitch- Lateral axis

158
Q

Rudder

A

Yaw- vertical axis

159
Q

Cyclic stick

A

Roll and pitch

160
Q

Tail rotor

A

Yaw

161
Q

What does a flap do

A

Crates extra lift by Lengthening the top section of the wing resulting in maximum lift to reduce Take off runs and landing rollouts

162
Q

What is a spoiler used for

A

Decrease or spoil wing lift By destroying the smooth flow of air over the wing surface

163
Q

What are speedbrakes for

A

Reducing the speed of the aircraft

164
Q

What are slats

A

Movable control surfaces attached to The leading edge of the wing

165
Q

AOA

A

Angle of attack

166
Q

What is angle of attack

A

Angle at which the airfoil or Fuselage Meets a flow of air

167
Q

Who is the MMCPO

A

Senior enlisted advisor for the maintenance dept

168
Q

What are the three level maintenance concepts

A
  1. O-level
  2. I- level
  3. D-level
169
Q

What are the two types of maintenance described in the NAMP

A

Rework and upkeep

170
Q

What are the seven different types of upkeep maintenance

A

Turn around, daily, special, conditional, phase, acceptance, transfer

171
Q

When does the monthly maintenance plan come out

A

It comes out monthly it’s made on the 25th of every month and comes out on the 25th of every month

172
Q

What is the concept of QA?

You must know verbatim

A

Fundamentally the prevention of the occurrence of defects

173
Q

What are the three types of QA audit performed

A

Special, workcenter, program audits

174
Q

What does JCN stand for?

Must know

A

Job control number

175
Q

What are the three parts to a job control number

A
  1. Organizational code
  2. Julian date
  3. Number generated by ooma
176
Q

What does OOMA stand for?

Must know

A

Optimized Organizational Maintenance activity

177
Q

What does NALCOMIS stand for?

Must know

A

Naval aviation logistics command management information system

178
Q

How many blocks are there of NALCOMIS?

A

5

179
Q

What are the five blocks of NALCOMIS?

A

Maintenance subsystem, Material subsystem, flight subsystem, platform software interface, Logs and records

180
Q

What does WUC stand for

A

Work unit code

181
Q

What is a DM work order

A

Discrepancy maintenance

182
Q

What is a TS work order

A

Troubleshooting

183
Q

What is a CM work order

A

Cannibalization maintenance

184
Q

What is an AD work order

A

Assist maintenance

185
Q

What is a FO work order

A

Facilitate other maintenance

186
Q

What is a CL work order

A

Conditional look phase

187
Q

What is a CF work order

A

Conditional fix phase

188
Q

What is a SX work order

A

Special inspection one workcenter

189
Q

What is a SC work order

A

Special inspection control

190
Q

What is a TD work order

A

Technical directive

191
Q

What Are the three types of hangers

A
  1. Type I - A hanger that has aircraft that can go to a carrier
  2. Type II - Hangers for marines
  3. Type III - Hangers for large planes that cannot go on an aircraft carrier
192
Q

What are the dimensions of a type I hanger?

A

235 feet wide by 85 feet deep

193
Q

What are the dimensions of a type II hanger?

A

325 feet wide by 119 feet deep

194
Q

What are the dimensions of a type III hanger?

A

165 feet wide by 165 feet deep

195
Q

How much does it cost when the AFFF system is falsely activated

A

$80,000

196
Q

How many seconds does it take to close the hanger bay doors on a boat

A

18 seconds

197
Q

What does SMART stand for?

A

Short cycle mission and recovery tanking

198
Q

What are the different variations of smart

A
  1. Pure SMART
  2. Hybrid SMART
  3. Hybrid SMART plus
199
Q

What is MOPP level 0

A

Issue individual protective equipment

200
Q

What is MOPP level one

A

JSLIST, MASK, gloves readily accessible

201
Q

What is MOPP level 2

A

Mask carried

202
Q

What is MOPP level 3

A

GQ, Install filters, Don over boots

203
Q

What is MOPP level 4

A

Don mask/hood, gloves, Circle, William, countermeasure wash down

204
Q

What is atropine to pan chloride

A

Gets rid of nerve agents

205
Q

What type of CBR mask is used

A

MCU-2P

206
Q

What type of canisters are used on your CBR mask

A

C-2

207
Q

What is newtons first law

A

And object at rest will remain at rest or an object in motion will continue in motion at the same speed until acted upon by an outside force

208
Q

What is newtons second law

A

If an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion, or acceleration, will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved

209
Q

What is newtons third law

A

For every action there’s an equal and opposite reaction

210
Q

What is Bernoulli’s principle

A

More speed equals less pressure, less speed equals more pressure

211
Q

What are the FPCON levels?

A

FPCON NORMAL

FPCON ALPHA

FPCON BRAVO

FPCON CHARLIE

FPCON DELTA

212
Q

What are the 6 basic core capabilities

A 
Forward presence
Deterrence 
Sea control
Power projection 
Maritime security 
Humanitarian assistance/disaster relief
213
Q

HSC

A

Helicopter sea combat

214
Q

HT

A

Helicopter training

215
Q

HSM

A

Helicopter maritime strike

216
Q

VAQ

A

Tactical electronic warfare

217
Q

VAW

A

Carrier airborne early warning

218
Q

VC

A

Fleet composite

219
Q

VFA

A

Strike fighter squadron

220
Q

VP

A

Patrol

221
Q

VQ

A

Fleet air reconnaissance

222
Q

VR

A

Aircraft logistics support

223
Q

VRC

A

Carrier logistics support

224
Q

VT

A

Training

225
Q

VX/VXE

A

Air test and evaluation

EAWS VFA-102 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions