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EAWS Phase 3 > Phase 3 Block 2 > Flashcards

Phase 3 Block 2 Flashcards

Operations

1
Q

*Means the card was highlighted or might be helpful info*

What does CATCC stand for?

A

Carrier Air Traffic Control Center

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2
Q

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What does METOC stand for?

A

Meteorology and Oceanography

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3
Q

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What does CDC stand for?

A

Combat Direction Center

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4
Q

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What does CVIC stand for?

A

Carrier Intelligence Center

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5
Q

*

How many work center is CATCC comprised of?

A

CATCC is comprised of 2 interdependent work centers

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6
Q

*

What are the work centers that make up CATCC?

A
  • Air Operations(AirOps)
  • Carrier Controlled Approach (CCA)
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7
Q

* Means the card is highlighted in study guide or might be important*

What is CATCC?

A

Centralized agency responsible for status keeping of all air operations and control of all airborne aircraft under the operations officers cognizance

  • with the exception of those being controlled by CDC/Air Officer
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8
Q

What is AirOps?

A

AirOps is a section of the operations department responsible for coordinating all matters pertaining to AirOps including the proper functioning of CATCC

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9
Q

*

How many stations are manned in AirOps during Flight Operations?

A

there are 5 stations manned in AirOps during Flight Operations

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10
Q

*

What are the positions manned in Air Ops?

A
  • Air Operations Officer
  • Assistant Air Operations Officer
  • Air Operations Supervisor
  • Land/Launch Record Keeper
  • Plotter
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11
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Air operations officer?

A

Responsible to Operations Officer for coordination of all matters pertaining to flight ops

  • The proper functioning of the CATCC shall determine the type of approach and required degree of control
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12
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Assistant Air Operations Officer?

A

Assist the Air Operations Officer in the performance of his duties/responsibilities

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13
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Air Operations Supervisor?

A

Responsible for ensuring the correct display of all information in Air Operations

Coordinate as necessary all bingo and divert aircraft with the appropriate air traffic control authorities and shop board entities

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14
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Land/Launch Record Keeper?

A

Updating the ISIS as necessary to ensure that accurate data for each aircraft in a launch and/or recovery is available

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15
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Plotter?

A
  • Responsible for updating the near land and divert field bearing and distance
  • Displaying the weather for the ship and divert fields
  • Submitting a pre-launch brief 2.5 hours prior to each recovery
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16
Q

what is the Carrier Controlled Approach (CCA) responsible?

A

Operational control of aircraft departing the ship and recovery of inbound aircraft after a mission is complete

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17
Q

What is CCA equivalent to on a shore based Air Traffic Control Facility?

A

CCA = Approach Control Branch

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18
Q

*

How many positions are manned in CCA during flight ops?

A

There are 4 stations manned in CCA during flight ops

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19
Q

*

What are the manned positions in CCA during flight ops?

A
  • Departure Control
  • Marshall Control
  • Approach Control
  • Final Control
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20
Q

*

What is Departure Control responsible for?

A
  • Responsible for control of departing aircraft during Case I, II, III departures
  • Is provided between initial radar contact with aircraft and transfer of control to CDC
  • Also responsible for monitoring the location and package status of tanker aircraft
    • Location of low-state aircraft and their fuel requirements
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21
Q

*

What is Marshall Control responsible for?

A
  • Control of inbound aircraft during all cases flight ops
  • Control is provided between inital contact normally commencing with pilots check-in report and transfer of control to either PRI-FLY during CASE I Operations or to Approach Control during CASE II,III operations
  • Provides arrival information, establishes the initial interval between aircraft, and monitors the commencement of approach until a handoff has been completed
  • Marshall Stack starts at a point in space where first aircraft is placed at 21 NM behind ship with an altitude starting at 6000 ft
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22
Q

*

What is Approach control responsible for?

A
  • For control of aircraft on approach during either CASE II or CASE III
  • Provided between handoff from Marshall and transfer of control to PRI-FLY during CASE II
  • Control is transferred to Final Control during CASE III operations but Approach Control retains responsibility for aircraft separation
  • Tasks include making holes for bolter traffic, maintain the appropriate interval and ensuring first aircraft make the ramp time
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23
Q

*

What is Final Control responsible for?

A
  • For the control of aircraft on final approach during CASE II to ensure optimum alignment until transfer of control to the LSO or aircraft reaches 3/4 of a mile
  • Primarily responsible for control of aircraft glide slope and lineup performance and secondarily responsible for aircraft separation
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24
Q

*

What is the purpose of METOC?

A
  • Collects, interprets and desseminates weather information
    • Weather info is disseminated for aircraft operations, including present and forecast weather at the carrier and at shore facilities used as divert fields for aircraft with fuel shortages and emergencies
  • Coordination between CATCC and the weather Officer is continuous
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25
Q

*

What are the conditions for CASE I Flight Ops?

A

Clear day, Ceiling and Visibility in the Carrier Control Zone no lower than 3,000 ft and 5 nm respectively

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26
Q

*

What are the conditions for CASE II Flight Ops?

A

Cloudy day, Ceiling and Visibility in the Carrier Control Zone no lower than 1,000 ft and 5 nm respectively

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27
Q

*

What are the conditions for CASE III Flight Ops?

A

Bad Weather/Night Ops Ceiling or visibility in the Carrier Control Zone is below 1,000 ft and 5 nm respectively.

  • Night time departure and recovery begins 30 minutes after sunset and ends 30 minutes before sunrise
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28
Q

What is CDC’s mission?

A
  • Keep the CO apprised of the overall tactical situation and recommend courses of action as appropriate
    • Collecting, processing, displaying, evaluating, and disseminating tactical information in a timely fashion
  • Vested with tactical decision making responsibility with respect to ships defensive systems and makes recommendations to warfare commanders for overall battle group defense
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29
Q

What is the function of Strike Operations?

A
  • Coordinate with all warfare commanders to establish a viable air plan for battle group functions
  • During air ops, Strike Operations coordinate with Air Ops, CDC and the Air Department to ensure that air sorties are managed to meet the requirements dictated by combine warfare commanders
  • Insupport of the Air Wing, Strike Ops aids in weaponeering of ordnance
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30
Q

What is the purpose of CVIC?

A

Supports the battle groups intelligence requirements by supplying the CO, embarked staffs, and the air wing with operational, technical, and strike planning information

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31
Q

What is the OZ division responsible for?

A
  • Responsible for day-to-day operation of CVIC and SUPPLOT spaces.
    • Includes Intelligence Officers (1630’s) enlisted
    • Intelligence Specialists’ (IS’s)
    • Electronic Technicians’ (ETs’)
    • Interior communications electrician (ICs’)
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32
Q

What is the OS Division responsible for?

A

Providing special intelligence communications to the warfare commanders both internal and external to battle group.

  • Cryptologic Technician (CTs’) work here
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33
Q

What is the OP Division responsible for?

A

Provides photographic support to the ship, air wing, embarked staff.

  • OP has 2 photo labs onboard
    • Main photo lab handles photographic support for admin and official events
    • CVIC photo lab processes hand-held photography from aircrew as well as TActical Airborne reconnaissance Pod system (TARPS) film
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34
Q

*

What is the SPN 41 referred to as?

A

The SPN 41 is commonly referred to as the Bulls Eye

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35
Q

*

What does the SPN 41 (Bulls Eye) do?

A

The SPN 41 measures azimuth and elevation and elevation of the approaching aircraft and relays the data to a display within the aircraft, giving the pilot an indication of the aircraft is in relation to the proper glide-scope.

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36
Q

*

What is the SPN 46 referred to as?

A

PALS or Precision Approach and Landing System

Commonly referred to as “Easy Rider”

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37
Q

*

What does SPN 46 (“Easy Rider”) do?

A
  • Enables carrier pilots to perform instrument approaches under either manual or automatic control
  • System consists of a precision tracking radar coupled to a computer and data link that provides continuous azimuth and elevation information to aircraft and shipboard controllers
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38
Q

*

What does EMCON stand for?

A

EMCON stands for Emissions Control

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39
Q

*

What is EMCON used for?

A

EMCON is used to prevent an enemy from detecting, identifying, and locating friendly forces.

  • When Imposed , radio transmissions between pilots and carrier control agencies are held to minimum necessary for safety of flight
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40
Q

What is “99” Transmission?

A

The broadcasting of information of collective interest to all aircraft on a particular radio frequency

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41
Q

*

What is an Air Plan?

A

Schedule of flight operations for a 24-hour period

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42
Q

What is an Alpha Strike?

A

Tactical Operation in which the majority of the Air Wing participates in an integrated strike against ground targets

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43
Q

What does ALTRV stand for?

A

ALTRV stands for Altitude Reservations

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44
Q

What is an ALTRV?

A

Block altitude of airspace extending for a specified distance on wither side of the proposed route of flight

Normally employed for the mass movement of aircraft or other special use requirements, which cannot otherwise be accomplished

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45
Q

What are the procedures governing ALTRVS contained in?

A

FAA Handbook 7610.4 series/ OPNAV 3722.30 series “Special Military Operations”

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46
Q

What does Angles mean?

A

Altitude of aircraft in thousands of feet, used in pilot and controller communications (angle 4 is 4,000 ft)

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47
Q

What does Arc mean?

A

Track over the ground of an aircraft flying at a constant distance from a navigational aid by reference to DME

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48
Q

What does DME stand for?

A

Distance Measuring Equipment

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49
Q

What is Axial Deck?

A

Part of the Flight Deck oriented along the longitudinal aids of the carrier

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50
Q

What is Azimuth?

A

Magnetic bearing extending from an aircraft navigation aid (TACAN) or air traffic control systems (PALS?ICLS)

  • Azimuth information provides course guidance to aircraft conducting instrument and radar approaches
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51
Q

*

What is BALL?

A

Ball is a pilot report indicating that the visual landing aid is in sight

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52
Q

*

What is BRC?

A

Base Recovery Course

  • Ships magnetic heading during flight operations
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53
Q

*

What is Bingo?

A

Order to proceed and land at the field specified, utilizing a bingo profile

  • Aircraft is considered to be in an emergency/fuel critical situation
  • Bearing, distance, and destination shall be provided
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54
Q

What is Break Time (Ready Deck)?

A

Anticipated time specified by PRI-FLY that the deck will be ready to recover aircraft and first aircraft of a CASE II recovery is expected to at the break

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55
Q

*

What is Burble?

A

Air flow disturbances on and about the carrier that can detrimentally affect aircraft approach and landing

Caused by carrier structures (mainly island superstructure) which can alter flow of WOD (Wind Over Deck)

56
Q

What is the Card-of-the-Day?

A

Information card distributed daily by CVIC, which identifies daily changing call signs of battle group units as well as various base numbers used in coded transmissions on uncovered circuits

This card is normally classified as “CONFIDENTIAL”

57
Q

What is Charlie?

A

Signal for aircraft to land aboard the ship

  • Number suffix indicates time delay before landing
58
Q

What is Clara?

A

Pilot Transmission indicating pilot does not have the Ball in sight

59
Q

What is Coordinated Univeral Time?

A

Time at the Prime Meridian

  • Also called GMT or ZULU Time
60
Q

*

What is D&D?

A

Display and Decision

Module in CDC where CDC Watch O, TAO, Strike are located

61
Q

What is DELTA?

A

Signal given to hold and conserve fuel at an altitude and position appropriate to type of aircraft and CASE recovery

62
Q

What are Departure Radials?

A

TACAN radials used to provide lateral separation between departing aircraft during CASE II and III departures

63
Q

What is DRR (Departure Reference Radial)?

A

TACAN radial assignment by CATCC to which all squadron departure radials are referenced

64
Q

What is Easy Rider?

A

Term used in pilot and controller communications to refer to the PALS

65
Q

What is Final Control?

A

Control position in CATCC responsible for control of aircraft on final approach during CASE III until transfer of control to LSO or aircraft reaches approach weather minimums

Approach control retains overall responsibility for separation of aircraft

66
Q

What does FACSFAC stand for?

A

FACSFAC stands for Fleet Area Control and Surveillance Facility

67
Q

What is a Fleet Area Control and Surveillance Facility (FACSFAC)?

A

Navy fixed shore-based air traffic control facility

  • Designated to manage offshore and inland operating areas and other assigned airspace, including special use airspace
    • Provides joint-use scheduling and control of surface, subsurface, and airborne military platforms operating within and transiting to and from these areas
68
Q

What is Flight Level?

A

Pressure altitude expressed in hundreds of feet, determined by setting 29.92 in aircraft pressure altimeter

  • That is, FL230 equals 23,000 ft pressure altitude
69
Q

What is FOX CORPEN?

A

Ships true heading during Flight Operations

70
Q

What is Glide Scope?

A

Commanded vertical approach path for letdown during recovery operations provided by FLOLS and ATCS (PALS/ICLS) expressed in degrees above True Horizontal Plane (THP)

71
Q

What is Glide Path?

A

Actual vertical approach path flown by aircraft during letdown

  • Always less than the glideslope setting of the FLOLS and ATCS because wind velocity and carrier movement
72
Q

*

What is the Green Sheet?

A

Daily schedule of carrier operations

  • Published by Operations Department
73
Q

What does HIFR stand for?

A

HIFR stand for Helicopter In-Flight Refueling

74
Q

What is HIFR?

A

In-Flight refueling of helicopters from a surface vessel

75
Q

What is a high holding pattern?

A

Secondary CASE I holding pattern used mainly to reduce fuel consumption when significant delay is anticipated in the scheduled recovery time

76
Q

*

What is Holy Helo?

A

Helicopter used to transport chaplains to ships in company with the carrier

77
Q

What is Home Plate?

A

Shore facility or ship from which flight originated

78
Q

What is Hook?

A

Term used to describe turn made by aircraft from a downwind heading in the bolter pattern to final bearing during CASE III recoveries

79
Q

What is Hook Skip?

A

When an aircraft’s Hook skips over arresting gear cables, resulting in a bolter

80
Q

*

What is Hot Pump or Hot Refueling?

A

Procedure in which aircraft are refueled on flight deck with engines running

  • Aircraft undergoing or scheduled to undergo hot refueling are referred to as a hot pump
81
Q

What is Hot Sheet?

A

Depiction of airspace constraints (hot areas) for each 24-hour period of flight ops

  • Hot sheet is prepared by AirOps and distributed with the air plan
82
Q

What is Hot Switch?

A

Procedure in which a pilot or crew replaces another pilot or crew on the flight deck with aircraft’s engines running

  • Hot switch will often be performed during a Hot Pump
83
Q

*

What does ILARTS stand for?

A

Integrated Launch and Recovery Television System

84
Q

*

What is ILARTS?

A

The Integrated Launch and Recovery Television System (ILARTS) is a television system used to provide real-time imagery and recordings of aircraft during launch and recovery operations

  • The ILARTS is comprised of two components:
    • Pilot Landing Aid Television (PLAT) system
    • Catapult Aircraft Hookup and Launch (CAHAL) system
85
Q

What is In Tension?

A

In Tension is a condition that exists prior to catapult launch which tension is applied to secure aircraft to the catapult

86
Q

What is KILO Report?

A

Pilot coded report indicating aircraft mission readiness

87
Q

*

What is Link 4A?

A

UHF data link used to transmit PALS commands

  • Sends error signals and other data to aircraft performing Mode 1,IA,II or IIT approaches
  • Also used by CDC to transmit data to aircraft
88
Q

What is Load Report?

A

Report given to marshal by the COD/VOD aircraft providing the # of passengers, VIP codes, mail, and cargo on board

  • Also any pertinent info for the CV, including fuel requirements and pilot name
89
Q

What is Magnetic Bearing?

A

Bearing in relation to Magnetic North

90
Q

What is Magnetic Heading?

A

Heading in relation to Magnetic North.

  • Aircraft navigate by Magnetic Heading
91
Q

What is Mark your Father?

A

Controller request to a pilot for aircraft’s TACAN radial and DME distance from carrier

92
Q

*

What is Marshal?

A

Bearing, distance and altitude fix designated by CATCC from which pilots will orient holding and initial approach will commence

93
Q

*

What is Mother?

A

Term referring to the ship

94
Q

What are Needles?

A

Precision instrument approach cockpit indications from PALS radar equipment

95
Q

*

What is No Joy?

A

Term used in pilot and controller communication to indicate that pilot does not have visual contact with a target or was unsuccessful in performing an assigned task

96
Q

What is Nonradar Control?

A

Form of air traffic control in which pilot flies according to a ppublished procedure or as prescribed by the controlling agency

  • Traffic separation is provided by controlling agency using frequent pilot position reports and modified separation criteria
    • Form of control is used only in case of emergency, when all shipboard air control radar is inoperative, or in opinion of CATCC Officer, unusable
97
Q

What is NORDO?

A

No radio: Aircraft unable to transmit by radio

98
Q

What is Nugget?

A

First-tour pilot on initial carrier deployment

99
Q

What is Operational Commitment?

A

Situation of such compelling urgency that failure to grant a deviation from established explosive safety criteria will have a deleterious (harmful) impact on the mission readiness of naval forces

100
Q

What is Package Check?

A

Airborne check of operating status of tanker’s refueling system (package)

101
Q

What is Parrot?

A

Term used in pilot and controller communications to refer to an aircraft’s transponder

102
Q

What is Penetration?

A

Instrument approach letdown from assigned marshal pattern altitude

103
Q

*

What is Pickle?

A

Another term for Jettison

104
Q

What is Pidgeons?

A

Magnetic bearing and distance to the carrier, divert field or other geographical position from aircraft’s position

105
Q

What is Pinkie?

A

Term used to describe a landing made during twilight (period 30 minutes after sunset and 30 minutes before sunrise)

  • Particularly popular for LCDR and above ranked pilots
106
Q

*

What is the Pink Sheet?

A

Weekly schedule of carrier operations published by Operations Department

107
Q

What does PIM stand for?

A

PIM stand for Position of Intended Movement

108
Q

What does PIM mean?

A

PIM is another term for the position in which the Carrier intends to proceed

109
Q

What is Port Holding Pattern?

A

CASE I jet and turboprop aircraft holding pattern is a left-hand, 5-mile maximum pattern tangent to the BRC or expected BRC with the ship in a 3 o’clock position of holding pattern

Altitude is assigned via landing order as established in ship and air wing doctrine

110
Q

*

What is PALS?

A

Precision Approach Landing System

111
Q

What is Radial?

A

Magnetic bearing extending from a VOR/VORTAC.TACAN navigation system

112
Q

What is Rainmaker?

A

Aircraft sent to a shore-based landing site to verify it’s suitability as a divert field

113
Q

What is Red Light?

A

Local time at which a helicopter will no longer be SAR capable and has approximately 30 minutes of flight time remaining

114
Q

What is Relative Bearing?

A

Bearing in relation to the bow of the ship or nose of an aircraft

115
Q

What is Retro Report?

A

Report given to COD aircraft by marshal providing offload info on passengers, mail, cargo or any pertinent info

116
Q

What is Snuggle Up?

A

Term used to direct a helicopter to come close aboard

117
Q

What is a Sortie?

A

Flight of one aircraft from launch to recovery

  • Each aircraft is counted as one sortie regardless of the success of the mission or number of aircraft performing the mission
118
Q

What is Spin?

A

Signal given to one or more aircraft indicating a departure and re-entry into the break

  • The command “Spin” may be issued by either the Air Officer or Flight Leader
119
Q

What is Starboard Holding Pattern?

A

Right-Handed racetrack pattern between 045 and 135- relative to the BRC for COD aircraft, and 045 and 110- relative to the BRC for helicopters

COD aircraft 500ft, 1,000ft if approved by CV primary, and helicopters 300ft or below

120
Q

What is Sweet?

A

Term used in pilot and controller communications indicating that the aircraft or shipboard sytems or equipment are operative

  • (sweet tanker, sweet father, sweet bullseye)
121
Q

What is Tally-Ho?

A

Pilot report indicating a target (aircraft/ship) has been visually acquired

122
Q

What is Tanker King?

A

Tanker assigned responsibility for the airborne execution of the tanking plan and coordination of all tanking

123
Q

*

What is Texaco?

A

Term for fuel or a tanker aircraft

124
Q

What is the 180?

A

Position abeam the LSO platform from which aircraft during CASE I and II recoveries commence a 180-degree turn to final bearing

125
Q

What is Tip Over?

A

Term used to indicate point in a PALS approach when an aircraft under automatic control (Mode I or IA) intercepts the glide-scope and begins final approach

  • This point is approximately 3.35 nm aft of the carrier
126
Q

What is Three Nautical Miles DME Fix?

A

Checkpoint in a CCA (carrier controlled approach) on final bearing 2 miles from carrier through which all turboprop aircraft and helicopters will pass in a landing configuration

127
Q

What is true heading?

A

Heading in relation to True North

128
Q

What is Unexpended Ordnance?

A

Aircraft ordnance that was not used (expended) during mission

  • PRI-FLY must be informed of all aircraft with unexpended ordnance
129
Q

What is Variation?

A

Angular difference between Magnetic North and True North, also referred to as Magnetic Variation

  • Points of equal variation are depicted on charts by lines, called isogonic lines
    • Variation must be applied to true heading obtained from charts to obtain magnetic heading
130
Q

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What is Winchester?

A

Aircraft is out of ordnance

131
Q

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What does WOD stand for?

A

Wind Over Deck

132
Q

What is WOD?

A

Wind speed and relative direction over the Flight Deck

133
Q

What is Yo-Yo?

A

Aircraft that launch with one event and recover with the previous event

134
Q

What is Zip Lip?

A

Condition that may be prescribed for flight ops during daylight VMC conditions under which positive communications control is waived and radio transmissions between aircraft, pilots and control agencies are held to minimum necessary for safety of flight

  • Exceptions are COD aircraft, unless specifically noted in overhead message
135
Q
A

EAWS Phase 3 (3 decks)

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