Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Public Health > Phase 2a Public Health > Flashcards

Phase 2a Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

What is the key finding of The Black Report 1980?

A

widening of health inequalities (esp in mortality)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

4 explanations to the findings in The Black Report 1980?

A

Material - environmental factors
Artefact - problems with how inequality is measured
Cultural/Behavioural - deprivation assoc with unhealthy behaviours
Selection - ill people “sink” socially/economically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the key finding of Acheson Report 1988?

A

Reduction in mortality but health inequality remain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Give 3 recommendation given in Acheson Report 1988 regarding PH policies addressing health inequality?

A
  1. Evaluate all policies likely to impact on health inequality
  2. Prioritise families with children
  3. Gov should reduce income inequality and improve living conditions in poor households
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the key finding in the Whitehall Study?

A

Inequality in health and mortality between different employment grades and demands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 3 theories of causation behind health inequality?

A
  1. Psychosocial (e.g. stress)
  2. Materialist (e.g. residential area)
  3. Life-course (combined)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How may doctors reduce health inequality?

A
  1. Changing perspectives
  2. Changing systems
  3. Changing education
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is patient compliance?

A

The extent to which patients’ behaviour (e.g. medications, lifestyle changes) coincides with medical advice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are 2 key features differentiating adherence from compliance?

A
  1. Acknowledging patient’s beliefs

2. Enhanced patient knowledge/satisfaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

2 ways you can classify reasons for non-adherence? Give an example of each

A
  1. Capacity and resource (can’t understand instructions, can’t pay)
  2. Perceptual (beliefs about treatments/their health)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What 2 approaches does patient-centred care encourage?

A
  1. Patient as a whole person who has individual preferences

2. Shared control of the consultation and decision making

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is concordance?

A

The philosophy of considering patients as equals with respect to their agenda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give 8 HIV prevention strategies

A
  1. HIV testing
  2. HAART
  3. Sex education
  4. use of condoms
  5. clean needles
  6. circumcision
  7. Pre-exposure prophylaxis
  8. Post-exposure prophylaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

2 ways to test for HIV?

A
  1. p24 antigen in blood sample

2. Saliva serology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Identify 5 groups at increased risk of HIV?

A
  1. Homosexual/bisexual men
  2. IVDU
  3. Sex workers
  4. Migrant workers (truck drivers, soldiers)
  5. Heterosexual men/women
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is palliative care?

A

Care aimed to improve QoL in those with life-threatening illness by giving symptomatic treatment, spiritual and psychosocial support from diagnosis to end of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

4 ways unemployment can have negative impact on health?

A
  1. increased risk of mental illness
  2. increased risk of poor health
  3. Social exclusion
  4. Loss of fitness and wellbeing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Give some examples of primary, secondary and tertiary prevention of occupational health problems?

A

Primary - monitor risk
Secondary - early diagnosis, task modification
Tertiary - rehab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Influenza A viruses are classified by which 2 surface antigens?

A
  1. Haemagglutinin

2. Neuroaminidases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define antigenic drift

A

Minor antigenic variation causing seasonal epidemics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define antigenic shift

A

Major antigenic variation, assoc with pandemics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define outbreaks, epidemics and pandemics

A 
Outbreak = 2+ linked cases
Epidemics = numerous cases confined to a region/country
Pandemic = epidemics that cross international borders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What actions are taken in the containment phase of managing early stages of a pandemic?

A
  1. Diagnose with swab
  2. Treatment of cases
  3. Contact tracing
  4. Large scale prophylaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What actions are taken in the treatment phase of managing early stages of a pandemic?

A
  1. Treat cases only

2. National flu pandemic service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

6 infection control strategies?

A
  1. Hand hygiene / Cough etiquette
  2. Personal protective equipments (PPE e.g. gloves, aprons, masks etc)
  3. segregation of patients
  4. Reduce social contact
  5. Flu surgeries
  6. Environmental cleaning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

6 population-wide interventions in an epidemic/pandemic?

A
  1. Travel restrictions
  2. Restriction of mass public gatherings
  3. School closure
  4. Voluntary home isolation of cases
  5. Voluntary quarantine of contacts of known cases
  6. Screening of people entering UK ports
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

9 rIsk factors of CHD?

A
  1. Hypercholesterolaemia
  2. Hypertension
  3. Smoking
  4. Obesity
  5. Diabetes
  6. Low socioeconomic status
  7. Social isolation
  8. Type A behaviour
  9. Depression/Anxiety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Why does CHD risk in post-menopausal become the same as in male of the same age?

A

Protective effect of oestrogen is lost post-menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Give 3 characteristic features of Type A behaviour pattern?

A
  1. Hostile
  2. Impatient
  3. Competitive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

3 ways Type A behaviour can be assessed?

A
  1. Jenkins survey
  2. Bortner scale
  3. Structured clinical interviews
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the key finding in Western Collaborative Study regarding CHD risk?

A

CHD risk in Type A behaviour pattern doubles that of Type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the key finding in Recurrent Coronary Prevention Project?

A

Reduction in Type A behaviour reduces morbidity/mortality in post-MI patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What the requirements for mental capacity?

A
  1. able to understand the information
  2. able to retain the information
  3. able to evaluate the information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When is it acceptable to breach patient confidentiality?

A
  1. Patient consents
  2. Required by law
  3. Public interest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define anorexia nervosa

A

Restriction of energy intake leading to significant low body weight, BMI < 17.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define bulimia nervosa

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating, characterised by sense of lack of control over eating and eating large amounts in discrete period of time, followed by compensatory behaviour to prevent weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Binge eating disorders need to assoc with 3 of which 5 features for a diagnosis?

A
  1. eating more rapidly
  2. eating until uncomfortably full
  3. eating lots when not feeling physically hungry
  4. eating alone because of felling embarrassed
  5. feeling disgusted, depressed or guilty afterwards
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Urgent signs to look for in eating disorders?

A
  1. rapid weight loss
  2. muscle weakness
  3. cardiac signs
  4. reduced GCS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

General treatment for eating disorders?

A

Cognitive behaviour test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Alternative treatment for anorexia nervosa?

A

MANTRA

41
Q

What is substance use?

A

Ingestion of a substance affecting the CNS which leads to behavioural & psychological
changes

42
Q

3 risk factors of substance use relating to family?

A
  1. +ve FH of substance misuse
  2. Family conflict inc. domestic abuse
  3. Being in care
43
Q

3 risk factors of substance use relating to school/community?

A
  1. Low academic attainment/commitment
  2. Community norms favouring drug use
  3. Availability of drugs in community
44
Q

4 risk factors of substance use relating to individual/peers?

A
  1. Peer influence
  2. Rebelliousness
  3. Tendencies towards anti-social behaviour
  4. Traumatic experience e.g. abuse
45
Q

Give 2 examples of depressants

A

Alcohol, benzodiazepines

46
Q

Give 3 example of stimulants

A

Caffeine, nicotine, cocaine

47
Q

Give 3 examples of hallucinogens

A

Ecstasy, ketamine, magic mushroom

48
Q

Define physical substance dependence

A

Body adapts to presence of substance, needs more for the same effect over time, with physical withdrawal symptoms on cessation

49
Q

Define psychological substance dependence

A

Feeling that life is impossible without the drug, with emotional effect when not on drug e.g. fear, shame , guilt etc

50
Q

6 features of substance dependence syndrome?

A
  1. Desire to use
  2. Difficult controlling use
  3. Tolerance
  4. Physical withdrawal symptoms
  5. Spend more time using
  6. use despite evidence of harmful effects
51
Q

4 management strategies for substance dependence?

A
  1. Advice and counselling
  2. Detoxification - gradual reduction of dose, relapse prevention
  3. Community prescribing - substitution (reduction/replacement)
  4. Residential rehabilitation
52
Q

What are the 3 diagnostic code for substance misuse?

A
  1. Acute intoxication - Disturbances in level of consciousness, cognition
  2. Pattern of use causing damage to health
  3. Strong desire to take drug etc (dependence syndrome)
53
Q

How do you calculate alcohol units?

A

% ABV x Volume(ml) / 1000

54
Q

What is the weekly limits of alcohol intake for men and women?

A

< 14 units/week

55
Q

Acute conditions assoc with alcohol?

A
  1. Accidents and injury
  2. Respiratory depression
  3. Aspiration pneumonia
  4. Arrhythmias
  5. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
  6. Gastritis
    7, Acute pancreatitis
56
Q

Chronic conditions assoc with alcohol?

A
  1. Alcoholic liver disease
  2. Chronic pancreatitis
  3. CNS toxicity
  4. HTN
  5. CHD
  6. Osteoporosis
57
Q

What is foetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Foetal alcohol syndrome is pre-/post-natal growth retardation due to foetal alcohol exposure

58
Q

3 features of foetal alcohol syndrome?

A
  1. Craniofacial abnormalities (e.g. microcephaly, upturned nose)
  2. CNS abnormalities (e.g. mental retardation)
  3. other congenital defects
59
Q

2 syndromes that can be caused .by alcohol withdrawal?

A
  1. Delirium tremens - tremors, seizures, hallucination, confusion, photo/phonophobia
  2. Activation syndrome - tremulousness, agitation, high HR/BP
60
Q

5 psychosocial effects of excessive alcohol?

A
  1. Interpersonal relationships - violence, depression/anxiety
  2. Poverty
  3. Work problems
  4. Criminality
  5. Driving offences
61
Q

5 population approaches to preventing alcohol misuse?

A
  1. Know your limits
  2. THINK! (drink driving)
  3. Drinkaware
  4. Change4life
  5. Minimum pricing
62
Q

3 screening tools for alcohol misuse?

A
  1. FAST
  2. CAGE
  3. AUDIT
63
Q

Some criteria for being alcohol dependent?

A
  1. Tolerance
  2. Withdrawal
  3. Not being able to stick with drinking limits
  4. Spend more time drinking
64
Q

Define substance misuse

A

Physically hazardous, recurrent use of substance that results in failure to fulfil obligations, despite persistent social or interpersonal consequences

65
Q

Define substance dependence

A

A state where normal function is only possible in presence of the substance

66
Q

1st line pharmacological treatment for physical alcohol withdrawal symptoms? Briefly describe its mechanism of action

A

Chlordiazeopoxide (Benzodiazepines). Enhances actions of GABA (inhibitory neurotransmitter)

67
Q

4 contraindications of benzodiazepines?

A
  1. Myasthenia gravis
  2. Pregnancy
  3. Respiratory impairment
  4. Psychosis
68
Q

3 important drug interactions of benzodiazepines?

A
  1. Alcohol
  2. Antipsychotics
  3. Anticonvulsants
69
Q

Some side effects on benzodiazepines?

A
  1. Respiratory depression
  2. Impaired liver function
  3. Amnesia
  4. Drowsiness
  5. Ataxia
70
Q

2nd line pharmacological treatment for physical alcohol withdrawal symptoms?

A

Lorazepam

71
Q

What is Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Deficiency of thiamine as alcohol exhausts thiamine store by using it as a co-enzyme in its metabolism

72
Q

Triad of clinical features in Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A
  1. Ataxia
  2. Confusion
  3. Nystagmus/Ophthalmopelgia
73
Q

What can be a consequence of untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Korsakoff’s syndrome - chronic and irreversible memory impairment

74
Q

Acute management of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

IV Thiamine/vitamin B

75
Q

Name 3 drugs used to prevent alcohol misuse relapse?

A
  1. Acamprosate
  2. Disulfiram SE = tachycardia/-pnoea, N/V
  3. Nalmefine
76
Q

Describe thoracic outlet syndrome

A

Pain/tingling/wasting of hands due to compression of brachial plexus and subclavian artery/vein

77
Q

Describe medial epicondylitis

A

Pain against resisted flexion of the wrist where there is repetitive bending and straightening of elbow (aka Golfer’s elbow)

78
Q

Describe lateral epicondylitis

A

Pain against resisted extension of the wrist where there is repetitive bending and straightening of elbow (aka Golfer’s elbow)

79
Q

Describe tenosynovitis

A

Local tenderness and swelling of tendon in the wrist causing pain and crepitus

80
Q

Describe DeQuevain’s tenosynovitis

A

Local tenderness and swelling in tendon sheaths of extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus

81
Q

Describe Hand-Arm vibration syndrome

A

ASYMMETRICAL blanching, sensory deficit and motor deficit in fingers

82
Q

Describe trigger finger

A

Restricted movements of finger due Inflammation and hypertrophy of retinacular sheath

83
Q

Describe Dupuytren’s contracture

A

Permanent flexion of fingers due to collagen deposition in palmar fascia

84
Q

Describe mechanical back pain

A

Pain in lumbosacral region, buttocks, thighs that is mechanical in nature and varies with activity and time

85
Q

Describe the STI/HIV transmission model

A

R = BCD

R = Reproductive rate - rate of organism reproduction
B = infective rate - chance of transmission per potential exposure
C = partners over time 
D = duration of infection
86
Q

3 strategies of STI primary prevention?

A
  1. “Sex. Worth talking about” campaign
  2. Vaccination
  3. Pre-/post-exposure prophylaxis
87
Q

3 strategies of STI secondary prevention?

A
  1. Easy access to testing/treatment
  2. Contact tracing
  3. Screening programmes
88
Q

3 strategies of STI tertiary prevention?

A
  1. HAART for HIV
  2. Co-trimoxazole for PCP
  3. Acyclovir for herpes
89
Q

Definition of obesity?

A

= BMI > 30

90
Q

4 impacts obesity can have on the individual?

A
  1. Increased risk of major illnesses (DM/HTN/OA/IHD etc)
  2. Social stigmatisation
  3. Emotional/behavioural (low self-esteem, social withdrawal etc)
  4. Need for community/social care
91
Q

5 factors behind the obesongenic environment with some examples of how obesity can be attributed to them?

A
  1. Food consumption - cheap access to unhealthy foods
  2. Physical activity environment - access to sport facilities, transport, sedentary employment etc
  3. Biological - genetics, regulation of appetite
  4. Individual psychology - stress, indulgence
  5. Social psychology - passive entertainment, lack of recognition of obesity as an illness
92
Q

4 interventions available on individual level?

A
  1. Physical activity
  2. Diet
  3. Behaviour change strategies
93
Q

4 interventions available on society level? (+ examples)

A
  1. Media campaign
  2. Food production - increase availability of healthy foods
  3. Physical activity environment - more green space/sports facilities
  4. Public policy - increase prices on obesogenic factors e.g. sugar tax, legislations
94
Q

4 actions a doctor can take when tackling obesity?

A
  1. Recognise obesity early
  2. Educate patients
  3. Offer brief interventions e.g. behaviour change, prescribe exercise
  4. Signpost to weight management programmes
95
Q

4 reasons why T2DM is a public health issue?

A
  1. Major chronic assoc with mortality, co-morbidity and reduced QoL
  2. Prevalence on the increase in populations
  3. Lack of policies of all scale to reduce risk from obesity
  4. Major inequality in prevalence and outcome
96
Q

3 strategies in primary prevention of DM?

A

Sustained physical activity, diet change and weight loss

97
Q

3 ways you can achieve earlier diagnosis of DM?

A
  1. Raise awareness of DM and assoc symptoms in community and between healthcare professionals
  2. Identify those at risk from clinical records
  3. Screening tests
98
Q

What is the programme aimed at halting DM progression?

A

Healthier You: The NHS Diabetes Prevention Programme

99
Q

What is the aim of tertiary prevention of DM?

A

Achieve effective management and support self-management

Public Health (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions