Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Mock answers I got wrong > Phase 2a google form mock > Flashcards

Phase 2a google form mock Flashcards

1
Q

which one of the following is the type of necrosis that will most commonly occur in the brain?
0/1
A) liquefactive
B) caseous
C) gangrene
D) coagulative
E) degenerative

A

liquefactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is seen on ECG for AFib?

A

Absent p wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

An ECG is performed which shows ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V4-6. Which artery has been occluded and caused the MI?

A

Left circumflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which drug when abruptly stopped can cause rebound tachycardia?

A

Beta blockers
Bisoprolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A 3-month-old infant presents to the paediatrician with cyanosis, squatting during feeding, and poor weight gain. On physical examination, you note a harsh systolic ejection murmur and a single second heart sound. A chest X-ray reveals a boot-shaped heart.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Tetralogy of fallot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms the presence of atrial fibrillation.

What is the most appropriate initial management strategy for this patient?

A

Anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A 65-year-old male presents to the emergency department with dizziness, fatigue, and near-syncope. He has a history of hypertension and coronary artery disease. On examination, his heart rate is 40 beats per minute, and auscultation reveals a regular rhythm with no murmurs. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a prolonged PR interval (>200 ms) with occasional dropped beats.

Which degree of heart block is seen?

A

Third-degree AV block, also known characterised by the complete dissociation of atrial and ventricular electrical activity.
This results in an atrial rate that is independent of the ventricular rate. Patients typically present with symptoms of bradycardia, including dizziness, fatigue, and syncope.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What kind of block is this?
widened QRS complex (>120 ms) on the ECG, slurred S wave in leads I, aVL, V5, and V6 and a broad R wave in leads V1 and V2.

A

LBBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The immunoglobulin in question acts as a receptor, activating B-cells. What immunoglobulin is this?

A

IgD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the target site of action for infliximab?

A

Tissue necrosis factor (TNF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What hypersensitivity reaction is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Type 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which of these is NOT a risk factor for thrombus formation

A) sepsis
B) autosomal dominant Polycystic kidney disease
C) AF
D) oral contraceptive pill
E) appendectomy

A

ADPKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which lung cancer is associated mainly with asbestos exposure?

A

adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which is not a function of the liver?
0/1

A) Cytokine production
B) Oestrogen regulation
C) Metabolises carbohydrates
D) Clotting factor production
E) Immunity

A

cytokine production - produced by WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is typically more a presentation of chronic liver failure compared to acute liver failure?

A

palmar erythema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common blood coagulopathy?

A

VWD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Risk factors for gallstones?

A

Fat
Female
Forty
Fertile
Family history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What of the following is not a part of management of anaphylaxis?

A) Epinephrine
B) Oxygen
C) Morphine
D) Fluids bolus
E) Crystalloid Fluids

A

Morphine

19
Q

Bladder cancer. Further investigations show the cancer has invaded local muscles of the bladder, but has not metastasised to other organs.

What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

A

Cystectomy

Non muscle invasive - trans urethral resection

20
Q

What is the most common organism for osteomyelitis in normal people and in people with sickle cell disease?

A

Staph aureus
Salmonella

21
Q

A 70 year old woman has just found out she has a secondary bone cancer.

Which of the following is the LEAST likely to have been the primary cancer?

A) Hepatocellular carcinoma
B) Renal cell carcinoma
C) Bronchial carcinoma
D) Medullary thyroid cancer
E) Invasive Ductal carcinoma

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma - The cancers which most commonly metastasise to bone originate in the kidneys, prostate, breast, lung and thyroid.

You can remember this from the acronym KP BLT. Ductal carcinoma is a type of breast cancer

22
Q

What is the most appropriate first line medication to give a gout flare with chronic kidney disease?

A

Prednisolone as usually NSAIDS but not in kidney disease

23
Q

Which of the following options were confirmed in the Black Report 1980?

A) The impact of social class health inequalities in overall mortality.
B) Mortality has decreased in the last 50 years, but inequalities remained the same or widened.
C) Mortality has increased in the last 50 years, but inequalities remained the same or narrowed.
D) Mortality has decreased in the last 50 years, and inequalities remained the same or narrowed.
E) Government should take action to reduce health inequalities

A

A

24
Q

The STI/HIV transmission model is R= BCD

In this model what does R stand for?

A

Reproductive Rate

25
Q

What is the standard treatment for meningitis of bacterial cause in adults?

A

Ceftriaxone and Dexamethasone

26
Q

What is given for viral meningitis?

A

Acyclovir

27
Q

What treatment is used when listeria is the cause which is in neonatal meningitis?

A

Amoxicillin and Dexamethasone

28
Q

What is the standard treatment for MS?

A

IV Methylprednisolone and Beta Interferon

29
Q

What is used to diagnose parkinson’s?

A

Neurological Examination

30
Q

What is the mechanism of action of erythromycin?

A

Acts on the 50S subunit
Macrolide

31
Q

What dose oral paracetamol would you give to a 30 y/o female weighing 46 Kg for mild to moderate pain relief? (1 tablet = 500mg)

A

For adults weighing less than 50Kg you give only 1 tablet- 500mg. Then if over 50kg you give 1g- 2 tablets.

32
Q

What is the action of bendroflumethiazide?

A

acts on NACL cotransporter- reducing sodium reabsorption

33
Q

what is the mechanism of aspirin?

A

Inhibits COX-1 and COX-2

34
Q

What does Atropine do?

A

Decreases parasympathetic system input to the heart, in turn causing a faster rate

35
Q

Which receptor does Pilocarpine act on?

A

M3

36
Q

What are the layers of a gram negative cell wall from inside to out?

A

Inner membrane > Peptidoglycan > Outer membrane > LPS > Capsule

37
Q

What is the most common bacteria to cause UTI in adults?

A

E coli

38
Q

What is seen in psuedogout on microscope?

A

Positively bifringent rhomboid shaped crystals

39
Q

what is the first line treatment for hypocalcaemia?

A

IV Calcium Gluconate

seen in CKD

40
Q

Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for antibiotics?

A) Inhibiting cephalosporin synthesis
B) Inhibiting macrolide synthesis
C) Binding to RNA polymerase
D) Inhibiting folate synthesis
E) Inhibiting ergosterol synthesis

A

E is an example of the mechanism of action for an antifungal

41
Q

Linda is a 45 year old female who has presented to A&E complaining of diarrhoea. She says she’s going atleast 8 times a day and she’s having to constantly drink water, and that she can’t go into work like this. She says its been going on for 3 days, ever since a barbecue she went to with some friends and she’s worried it’s never going to end. What is the most likely cause?

A) Cholera
B) Rotavirus
C) C. Difficile
D) C. Jejuni
E) E. Coli

A

c jejuni

A): Ricewater would be the most common cause of cholera, and is unmentioned (no other risk factors present either).
B): More common in kids <3y/o
C): Would expect some history of antibiotics
E): Would expect a history more like bloody diarrhoea, dysentery

42
Q

What gene mutation is present for lynch syndrome?

A

MSH-1 or 2 gene mutation.
Risk factor for Lynch syndrome AKA Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer

43
Q

What is a positive tuberculin skin test?

A

> 15mm: TB Positive

The mantoux test injects tuberculin in the body and sees how much of a reaction there is. If there’s a really big bump, then TB has been inside before

44
Q

what is seen on gram staining, catalase, coagulase, blood agar for staph aureus?

A

Gram positive, catalase positive, coagulase positive gold colonies on blood agar

Mock answers I got wrong (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions