Phase 1 - Non Anatomy Flashcards
1
Q
What is histology ?
A
The study of microscopic structures of biological tissues
2
Q
What is cell theory ?
A
All living things are composed of one or more cells
The cell is the basic unit of life
New cells arise from pre-existing cells
3
Q
What are the 4 types of tissue ?
A
CT
Epithelial
Muscle
Nervous
4
Q
What are the 7 steals of epithelial cancer ?
A
Dedifferentiation
Growth in situ
Invasion of CT
Local invasion
Approaching vessels
Entering vessels
Dissemination (metastasis)
5
Q
Outline fixation ?
A
Freezing (about -80 degrees) by dry ice or liquid nitrogen
Chemical fixation = aldehyde based
TISSUE PRESERVATION
6
Q
Outline embedding?
A
Frozen samples
Paraffin wax used to embed
PROVIDES SUPPORT FOR SECTIONING
7
Q
Outline sectioning ?
A
Thinner = higher resolution
MICROTOME USED TO CUT THIN SECTIONS
8
Q
Outline staining ?
A
Non-specific or specific
COLOURS THE TISSUE
9
Q
What does H&E staining do ?
A
H (BASIC) = stains acidic structures blue (nucleus)
E (ACIDIC) = stains basic structures pink (cytoplasm)
10
Q
What is PAS staining used for ?
A
Complex carbs and glycogen
Tissue stained with PAS = PAS+
Stains mucus, BM, brush borders
11
Q
Where is simple squamous epithelium found ?
A
Lining of blood vessels
Lining of heart
Alveoli
Lining of serous membranes
Some kidney tubules (bowman’s capsule + glomerulus)
12
Q
Where is simple cuboidal epithelium found ?
A
Kidney tubules
Glands and their ducts
Lining of terminal bronchioles
Surface of the ovaries
13
Q
Where is simple columnar epithelium found ?
A
Glands and some ducts
Bronchioles of the lungs
Auditory tubes
Uterus
Uterine tubes
Stomach
Intestines
Gallbladder
Bile ducts
Ventricles of the brain
14
Q
Where is stratified squamous epithelium found ?
A
Keratinised = skin
Non-keratinised = mouth, throat , larynx, oesophagus, anus, vagina , INFERIOR URETHRA, cornea
15
Q
Which part of a cell is replaced by keratin ?
A
The cytoplasm
These cells are dead
16
Q
Where are Pseudostratified epithelial cells found ?
A
Lining of nasal cavity
Nasal sinuses
Auditory tubes
Pharynx
Trachea
Bronchi
ALMOST ALWAYS CILIATED WITH GOBLET CELLS
17
Q
Where are transitional epithelial cells found ?
A
Lining of urinary bladder
Ureters
Superior urethra
Pelvis of the kidney
18
Q
Give 5 examples of SDGs
A
End poverty
End hunger
Well-being
Quality education
Gender equality
19
Q
What are SDHs ?
A
The chances someone has of living a healthy life, due to conditions they live in
20
Q
How do SDGs relate to SDHs ?
A
Healthcare wise, focus on equity rather than equality. Ensuring those in challenging conditions have an extra box to stand on the help them reach the same height as those in more favourable conditions.
21
Q
What structure gives a prickle cell appearance ?
A
Desmosomes
22
Q
What is the mucus secreted by goblet cells composed of ?
A
Proteoglycans (modified carbs)
23
Q
What staining is best for goblet cells ?
A
PAS
24
Q
Which layer of skin contains fibroblasts ?
A
Dermis
25
What do fibroblasts produce ?
Collagen 1
26
What shape is neutrophil nuclei ?
Multi-lobed
27
What shape is monocyte nucleus ?
Horseshoe - shaped
28
What are characteristics of eosinophils ?
Bi-lobed nucleus
Large granules
29
What cell initiated vitamin D production in the skin ?
Keratinocyte
30
What cell junction is interrupted in epidermolysis bullosa ?
Hemi-desmosomes
31
What cells/ tissue type is characterised by clear voids when staining ?
Lipids , adipose tissue
32
Why do lipids appear empty ?
They are dissolved during processing
33
What initiates apoptosis within cells ?
Release of cytochrome C from the mitochondria to cytosol
34
What is the function of the RER ?
Protein synthesis
35
What is the function of the SER ?
Lipid synthesis
Calcium storage
36
What is the function of lysosomes ?
Degrade unwanted molecules
37
What do perioxisomes do ?
Perform biochemical reactions
Breakdown fatty acids
38
What are lamins and where are they found ?
Intermediate filaments
Found in nuclei of all eukaryotic cells
39
What is the nuclear lamina ?
Composed of lamins
Organisation, membrane support, chromatin organisation
40
What are microtubules composed of ?
Alpha and beta tubulin
41
What do kinesins do ?
Move cargo away from centrosome
42
What do dyneins do ?
Move cargo towards centrosome
43
What is the cytoskeleton of cilia called ?
Axonemes, allow bending and are composed of microtubules and dynein
44
What are Microfilaments polymers of ?
Actin
45
What are the 2 cell-cell junctions and what are the comprised of ?
Adherens : actin (+E-Cadherin)
Desmosomes : IF
46
What are the 2 cell-ECM junctions and what are the composed of ?
Focal adhesions = actin
Hemi-desmosomes = IF
47
What are tight junctions ?
Regulation of paracellular permeability
From apical(upper) and basolateral (lower) domains to create a diffusion barrier
48
What are GAP junctions ?
Cell-cell junctions
Allow passage if small molecules
Involved in electrical signalling
Composed of = hexamers + connexins
49
What is Kartangers syndrome ?
Lack of dynein arms (cilia)
50
What is Tay-Sachs disease ?
Failure of gene that encodes lysosomal enzymes
51
What does ubiquitination do ?
Targets protein for degradation
52
What are the degradation methods ?
Lysosomal = long-half life, membrane proteins
Proteosomal = short-halfllife , metabolic enzymes + defective proteins
53
What is the order of skin layers from superficial to deep ?
Stratum corneum
Stratum lucidum (only in thick skin)
Stratum granulosum
Stratum spinosum
Stratum basale
BM
54
What is the dermis composed of ?
CT = collagen 1, elastin, ground substance
Fibroblasts
55
What are the two layers of the dermis ?
Papillary - superficial
Reticular - deep (vasculature)
56
What are Meissners corpuscles and where are they found ?
Rapidly acting mechanoreceptors responsible for touch
Found in the papillary dermis
57
What are Pacinian corpuscles and where are they found ?
Detect deep pressure and vibration
Subcutis (adipose tissue)
58
Where are stem cells found in the epidermis ?
Stratum basale
59
What are merkel cells and where are they found ?
Responsible for sensation
Found in epidermis ( mainly basal layer)
60
What are langerhans cells and where are they found ?
Dendritic, antigen presenting cells
Epidermis (stratum spinosum + papillary dermis)
61
Are melanocytes and where are they found ?
Protect from radiation + skin pigmentation via melanin
Basal layer
62
What are mast cells and where are they found ?
Inflammatory mediator producers
Produce chemotactic factors for eosinophils and neutrophils
Found in DERMIS
63
What is a partial thickness wound ?
Epidermis + some dermis
64
What is a full thickness wound ?
Epidermis + all of dermis + deeper structures
65
What are the 3 phases of wound healing ?
Inflammatory (24-48 hours)
Proliferative (1-2 days)
Remodelling
66
Outline the inflammatory stage
Platelets initiate blood clot
Neutrophils + macrophages attracted to site
Dead disuse phagocytosed
67
Outline the proliferation stage
Epithelial cells loosen adhesions
Migrate and cover the granulation tissue
Once covered, keratinocytes prolif
Type 3 collagen formed
Blood vessel forms (angiogenesis)
68
Outline the remodelling phase
Collagen switched from type 3 to type 1
Final strength only returns to 70-80% at 1 year
69
What are the 5 conditions for valid consent ?
With capacity
Informed
Voluntary
Not coerced
Not manipulated
70
What is an example of a live attenuated virus ?
Polio
Rabies
71
What is an example of a conjugate vaccine ?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
72
Where do T lymphocytes mature ?
The thymus
73
What are the secondary lymphoid organs ?
Tonsils
Lymph nodes
Spleen
Peyers patches
Appendix
74
What colour does GRAM+ turn ?
Purple
75
What could does GRAM- turn ?
Pink
76
What makes GRAM- stain ?
Thinner cell wall
77
Give 2 examples of GRAM+ Cocci
Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus pneumoniae
78
Give 2 examples of GRAM+ Rods
Listeria monocytes
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
79
Give an example of GRAM- Cocci
Neisseria meningiditis
80
Give 2 examples of GRAM- Rods
E.coli
Salmonella
81
What are sterile body sites ?
Blood
CNS
Lower respiratory tract
Sinuses
Renal system (down to posterior urethra)
Female reproductive tract (down to cervix)
Eye
82
What is the SIRS classification for sepsis ?
2 or more : Temp outwith 36-38, HR>90, RR >20 or PaCO2 <4.3 kPa
83
What are the 3 categories of sepsis ?
Sepsis = SIRS with infection
Severe sepsis = Sepsis with hypoxia, acidosis or cerebral dysfunction
Septic shock = Severe sepsis with hypotension despite fluid resus or ionotropic support
84
What are the 4 main signs of inflammation?
Rubour
Calor
Tumour
Dolor
85
What causes inflammation ?
ILs + TNF
Leukotrines
Platelet activating factor
Histamine
Clotting system (Bradykinin)
Complement
86
What is complement ?
A cascade of proteins in serum
Activated by antibody
Amplifies immune response
Directly kills pathogens or attract immune cells
87
What are the 4 stages of immune cell migration ?
Rolling adhesion
Tight binding
Diapedesis
Migration
88
What is humoral immunity ?
Antibody from B cells (immunoglobulins)
89
What is cell-mediated immunity ?
Due to T cells
Intracellular
90
Where do B cells mature ?
The bone marrow
91
What are CD4 T cells ?
Helper cells
Recognise antigen presented MHC II on the surface of antigen presenting cells and help them
92
What are CD8 T cells ?
Cytotoxic
Recognise antigen presented on MHC I and can be induced to kill
93
What happens to T cells in the thymus ?
Removal of auto-reactive cells to prevent autoimmunity
94
What cell expresses MHC II ?
Macrophage
95
What antibody type is the first produced in response to infection ?
IgM
96
What is an example of how a single base mutation effects a protein ?
Sickle cell anaemia
GAG —> GTG at 6th codon
97
Outline the hierarchy of stem cell potency
Totipotent
Pluripotent
Multipotent
Unipotent
98
What are induced pluripotent stem cells ?
iPSCs are a way to make pluripotent stem cells without embryos
Treated with TFs (Oct-3/4, SOX2, c-Myc) to switch in genes and induce pluripotency
99
What are the 4 types of shock ? (DOCH pneumonic)
Distributive
Obstructive
Cardiogenic
Hypovolemic
100
What is distributive shock ?
Failure of vasoregulation , severe peripheral vasodilation
Due to sepsis, anaphylaxis or neurogenic causes
101
What is obstructive shock ?
Barriers to cardiac flow or filling
Pulmonary embolism, cardiac tamponade, tension pneumothorax
102
What is cardiogenic shock ?
Pump failure
MI , arrhythmias, mechanical
103
What is hypovolaemic shock ?
Loss of blood
Haemorrhage (trauma, GI bleeding) , burns
104
What is the trauma triad of death ?
Blood clotting problem —> increased lactic acid
Acidic blood —> decreased heart performance
Low body temperature —> decreased coagulation
105
What is Class 1 shock ?
HR <100
BP = normal
RR 14-20
Urine output 30 ml/hr
Mental status normal
106
What is class 2 shock ?
HR >100
BP = normal
RR 20-30
Urine output 20-30 ml/hr
Mental status mild anxiety
107
What is class 3 shock ?
HR >120
BP = decreased
RR 30-40
Urine output 5-15 ml/hr
Mental status anxious
108
What is class 4 shock ?
HR >140
BP = decreased
RR >40
Urine output negligible
Mental status confused
109
What are the 5 steps in the cycle of enquiry?
Acquire
Ask
Assess
Apply
Appraise
110
What protein mutation causes sickle cell ?
Globin
111
What is added to blood to stop it clotting ?
Sodium citrate
112
What happens to coagulation if your replace calcium with chelated calcium ?
Coagulation doesn’t occur
113
What effect does benzamidine (protease inhibitor) have on coagulation ?
Coagulation takes longer
114
What molecule is a zymogen ?
Prothrombin
115
What is the mechanism of action of alteplase ?
It converts plasminogen to plasmin
116
what is NOT a high risk fluid ?
Urine / faecal matter
Saliva
Sweat
Vomit
(Unless blood stained)
117
What are general investigations?
Bloods
Imaging
Cultures
118
What’s are pathology specific investigations?
Cytology sampling - fluids, fine needle
Tissue sampling - biopsy, reaction
Immunohistochemistry
Genetic profiling
119
What are the 4 cellular responses to stress ?
Hyperplasia = multiplying
Hypertrophy = growth
Atrophy = shrinkage
Metaplasia = changing cell type
120
What happens if cellular stress is long term ?
Apoptosis
Necrosis
Inflammation
(Possibly neoplasm)
121
What is dysplasia ?
Abnormal/atypical cells due to a failure of differentiation
122
What are two key features of dysplasia ?
Pleomorphic nuclei
Mitotic figures
123
How does HER2 work ?
RTK pathway
124
What does HER2 over expression suggest in breast cancer ?
More aggressive cancer
125
What is the treatment for HER2 specific breast cancers ?
Herceptin
126
What occurs in colon cancer ?
MSI, caused by damage to the MMR system leading to damaged DNA being passed down to new cells making them more prone to cancer causing mutations
Occurs in 15% of colon cancers, better prognosis
Immunotherapies can benefit MSI colon cancers
127
What is the staging tool for neoplasm spread ?
TNM classification
Tumour - local invasion
Node - lymph nodes
Metastasis - distant tissues
128
What is the narrowest part of the uterine tube ?
Isthmus
129
What prevents premature implantation ?
Zona pellucida
130
What day is the morula formed ?
4
131
What are the 2 layers of blastocyst ?
ICM - forms embryo and extra embryonic tissues
Trophoblasts - contribute to placenta
132
What are the 3 important structures during gastrulation ?
Primitive streak
Notochord
Neural tube
133
At which end does the primitive streak form ?
Caudal end
134
What are the 2 layers of the bilaminar disc ?
Epiblast
Hypoblast
135
What happens during gastrulation ?
Invagination creates 3 germ layers
136
What is derived from the ectoderm ?
Epithelial linings of skin, moth and anus
Cornea and eye lens
Nervous system
Adrenal medulla
137
What is derived from mesoderm ?
Skeletal system
Muscles (except some smooth muscle)
Excretory system
Circulatory and lymphatic systems
Reproductive systems
Dermis
138
What is derived from the endoderm ?
Internal linings
Liver
Pancreas
Thymus
Thyroid and parathyroid
139
What are 3 proto-oncogenes ?
EGFR
HER2
BRAF
140
Give an example of a deletion/point mutation to form an oncogene
Ras : G protein that transducers signals from cell surface receptors
Mutation causes constantly ‘on’
30% of all tumours screened have Ras mutations
141
Give an example of a gene amplification mutation to give an oncogene ?
HER2 : transmembrane receptor that receives signals from other cells
Amplified in 20% of breast cancers
142
Give and example of chromosome rearrangement mutation giving an oncogene
Chromosome 22 bcr gene + chromosome 9 abl gene
Philadelphia translocation
Hybrid gene in chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
143
What growth factor induces angiogenesis ?
VEGF
144
What happens during prophase ?
Chromatin condensation
Nucleolus disappears
145
What happens during pro-metaphase ?
Nuclear membranes dissolve
Chromosomes attach to microtubules
146
What happens during metaphase ?
Spindle fibres align chromosomes along the metaphase plate
147
What happens during anaphase ?
Paired chromosomes separate and move to opposite sides of the cell
148
What happens during telophase ?
Chromatids arrive at opposite poles
New membranes form
Chromosomes decondense
Spindle fibres dispense
149
What cyclin CDK pair is responsible for progression to S phase ?
Cyclin D-CDK 4/6
150
What cyclin CDK pair is responsible for progression into mitosis ?
Cyclin 1-CDK B (MPF)
151
What are the 3 families of CKIs?
p21 CIP
p27 KIP
p16 INK
152
When are the 2 DNA damage checkpoints ?
Late G1
Late G2
153
When DNA damage is detected what is activated ?
p53 it inhibits cell cycle progression until damage is fixed
Damage is fixed via p21 but
if damage is extreme p53 causes apoptosis
154
When is the spindle assembly checkpoint ?
Metaphase
155
What happens at the spindle assembly checkpoint ?
APC (anaphase promoting complex) is inhibited until all chromosomes are attached
156
When does organelle replication occur ?
G2 in preparation for mitosis
157
What does cyclin B-CDK 1 phosphorylate ?
Condensins
Lamins
158
What is endocrine range ?
Long distance via blood
159
What is paracrine range ?
Nearby cells via diffusion
160
What is juxtacrine range?
Neighbouring cell via cell-cell contact
161
What is autocrine range ?
Same cell
162
Give an example of an intracellular receptor
Steroid hormones
Bind to intracellular receptors
Hormone-receptor complex acts as TF
Complex binds to DNA and alters gene expression
163
Give an example of an ion-channel-linked receptor
Glutamate neurotransmitter
Ion flow into the cell changes it’s electrical properties
Used in nerve impulse transmission
164
Give an example of a G-protein linked receptor
Adrenaline, serotonin, glucagon
Activated-G protein activated enzyme that passes on signal
165
Give an example of enzyme-linked receptors
Growth factors, insulin
RTK linked type
e.g. EGF
Binding - receptor activation - autophosphorylation - docking - relay protein recruitment - SIGNAL TRANSMITTED
166
Give an example of enzyme cascades
MAPK cascades - EGF
Relay proteins activate Ras
Ras activates MAP kinase cascade
Signal is amplified
167
Give an example of second messengers
Adrenaline - G protein receptor
G protein activation activates cAMP
Protein kinase A is activated (PKA)
Effector proteins are phosphorylated
Cell responds
168
How can specificity be achieved in signalling ?
Specific receptors for specific responses
e.g. adrenaline can activate multiple receptor and have differing effects
169
Which cyclins are regulated by mitogens ?
Cyclin D
170
What is the composition of articulating cartilage ?
Chondrocytes
ECM : collagen mainly type 2, water
171
What is a motor unit ?
All the muscle cells controlled by 1 nerve cell
172
What is the refractory period ?
Period of time when muscle cells won’t respond to stimulus
173
Which muscle type has the shorter refractory period ?
Skeletal , cardiac refractory is longer to avoid tetany
174
What is the boundary of the sarcomere ?
The Z lines
175
What is the H band ?
Only miosin filaments
BARE ZONE
176
What binds to troponin ?
Calcium
177
What blocks myosin binding to actin ?
Tropomyosin
178
What unhooks the head of myosin ?
ATP
179
Describe muscle excitation
Nerve impulses reach NMJ
Acetylcholine is released
Ach binds with receptors in the muscle membrane to allow sodium entry
Sodium influx will generate an action potential in the sarcolemma
Action potential travels down T tubule
Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca
Ca bind to troponin
Actin filament exposed
180
In IVDs what does the annulus fibrous do ?
High tensile strength
Collagen rings, fibrocartilage inner zone
181
In IVDs what does nucleus pulposus do ?
High resilience
Gelatinous
80-85% water
182
What happens in slipped disc ?
Prolapse of IVD
Tear in the annulus fibrosus, nuclear pulposus can protrude
Can affect nerves or spinal cord
183
What is between C1 and C2 ?
Odontoid process
No IVD
184
What are the 2 spinal curvatures ?
Lordosis (inwards)
Kyphosis (outwards)
185
What is Gibbs reflective cycle ?
Description
Feelings
Evaluation
Analysis
Conclusion
Action plan
186
What are 5 viruses ?
COVID
HIV
Rhinovirus (common cold)
Influenza
Herpes
187
What is a nucleocapsid ?
Complete unit of nucleic acid + capsid
188
What is a viral envelop derived from ?
Host cell membrane
189
Outline the structure of the Epstein-Barr and Herpes virus
Double stranded DNA
Enveloped
Icosahedral
190
Outline the structure of rhinovirus, poliovirus and enterovirus (meningitis)
RNA SS+
Not enveloped
Icosahedral
191
Outline the structure of COVID
RNA SS+
Enveloped
Helical
192
Outline the structure of mumps, measles, influenza and Ebola
RNA SS-
Enveloped
Helical
193
What is viral tropism ?
The ability of a virus to productively inject a cell, tissue or host species
194
What are the stages of viral infection and replication
Attachment/absorption
Penetration
Uncoating
Synthesis
Assembly
Release
195
What is antigenic drift ?
Small antigenic changes to avoid immune detection
196
What is gene recombination ?
Causes extensive and sudden variations
197
What is antigenic shift ?
Exchange of genetic material between 2 pathogens
Gives rise to epidemics and pandemics
198
What causes type 1 hypersensitivity?
IgE
Mast cells
199
What triggers allergic response ?
IgE with antigen binds to mast cell
Degranulation occurs
Histamine and other cytokines are release
200
What type of langerhan cell is killed in type 1 diabetes ?
Beta cell
201
What is primary immunodeficiency?
Congenital
202
What is secondary immunodeficiency?
Acquired
203
Give an example of a primary immunodeficiency
SCID
Mutation in cytokines receptor IL-2
T + NK cells fail
204
Give an example of secondary immunodeficiency
HIV - deletion of CD4 helper cells
Protein-calorie malnutrition - metabolic derangements inhibit lymphocyte maturation and function
205
Which molecule recognises sialic acid on the plasma membrane of respiratory epithelia ?
Haemagglutinin
206
What molecule acts as a co-receptor for HIV infection ?
CCR5
207
What is the frontal lobe function ?
LTM
Speech
Movement
Personality
208
What is the parietal lobe function ?
Sensory
Language interpretation
Spatial/visual perception
209
What is the occipital lobe function ?
Visual processing
210
What is the temporal lobe function ?
Auditory cortex
Memory
Understanding language
211
What is the role of astrocytes ?
CNS nutrient supply
212
What is the role of Microglia ?
Defence role (phagocytic)
213
What is the role of ependymal cells ?
CSF production
214
What is the role of oligodendrocytes ?
CNS neuronal support + myelin formation
215
What is the role of Schwann cells ?
Neuronal support and myelin formation in the PNS
216
What are the 3 meninges ?
Dura mater - thick, dense irregular CT
Arachnoid mater - doesn’t pass into sulci, pressed against dura
Pia mater - delicate, allows BV passage to nourish brain
217
What are the 31 pairs of spinal nerves ?
C1-8
T1-T12
L1-5
S1-5
218
What are the 12 cranial nerves ?
1. Olfactory - smell
2. Optic - vision
3. Oculomotor - eye movements
4. Trochlear - eye movements
5. Trigeminal - Musckes of chewing, facial sensory
6.Abducens - eye movements
7. Facial - muscles of facial expression
8. Vestibulocochlear - hearing + balance
9. Glossopharangeal - swallowing + taste
10. Vagus - wandering nerve supply, lungs + heart
11. Spinal Accessory - neck muscles
12. Hypoglossal - tongue muscles
219
What are sympathetic neurotransmitters ?
Pre ganglion : Ach
Post ganglion : noradrenaline
220
What is the function of B1 receptors ?
Increase HR
Increase SV
221
What is the function of B2 receptors ?
Smooth muscle relaxation
222
What is the parasympathetic neurotransmitter?
Pre + post = Ach
223
Where are sympathetic ganglia ?
Near spinal cord
224
Where are parasympathetic ganglia ?
Near site of action
225
What are the receptors for Ach ?
Nicotinic
Muscarinic
226
What is the function of the spinothalamic tract ?
Ascending
Sensory
Pain
Temperature
227
What is the function of the corticospinal tract ?
Descending
Motor
Voluntary movement
228
What is contained in the subarachnoid space ?
CSF
229
What can diagnose meningitis ?
High WBC in CSF (lumbar puncture between L4-5)
230
Where is CSF produces ?
Choroid plexus in lateral and 4th ventricles
231
What is CSF similar to ?
Plasma
Much less proteins
Different electrolyte levels
232
What created the BBB?
Tight junctions
They restrict movement and stop passage of molecules
233
What is the BBB permeable to ?
DIFFUSION : Water, small lipophilic molecules, gases
ACTIVE TRANSPORT : glucose, amino acids
234
What is the central dogma ?
DNA - RNA - protein
235
What is gene structure ?
Codons
Exons
introns (spliced out)
236
What are the 3 steps of transcription ?
Initiation - RNA polymerase II pulls DNA strands apart
Elongation - RNA gets longer (forms transcription bubble
Termination - RNA synthesis stops
237
What are 2 TFs?
p53
E2F
238
How does TIC regulate transcription ?
RNA polymerase cannot bind directly to DNA
TATA box activate the process
239
How does Myc enhance transcription ?
It means when TFs bind at Myc sites, they interact with the TIC
240
What do enhancers do ?
Make it more likely that a promoter is activated
241
What do silencers do ?
Make it less likely a promoter is activated
242
Give an example of an activator
E2F
Activates transcription of genes needed for S phase
243
Give an example of a repressor
Snail
Represses E-Cadherin in epithelial cancers, causing less cell-cell adhesion and more invasive ability
244
What is constitutive gene expression ?
Genes which are expressed in all cells all the time
Beta-actin
Ribosomal proteins
245
What is inducible gene expression ?
Genes which are only expressed in certain cells/tissues or only expressed at certain time
Cell specific = CD4,CD8, collagen 1 +2
Time specific = cyclins, melatonin, inflammatory cytokines (IL-2, IL-6, TNF-alpha)
246
How do genes vary ?
Alternative splicing
Post-transcriptional regulation (microRNAs)
247
What is the threshold voltage ?
55mV in most human nerve cells
248
What enzyme switch the action of Ach off ?
Acetylcholinesterase
249
What allows electrical signals to pass through GAP junctions ?
Connexin
250
What is guided therapy ?
Cause of infection identified agent selected based on sensitivity testing
251
What is empirical therapy ?
Best guess therapy in urgent circumstances
252
What is prophylactic therapy ?
Perverting infection before it begins
253
What is a bacteriocidial antibiotic ?
Kills bacteria
254
What is a bacteriostatic antibiotic ?
Suppresses growth
255
Name 2 antibiotics that target cell wall
Penicillins
Glycopeptides
256
Name 2 antibiotics that target ribosomes
Macrolides
Aminoglycosides
257
Name an antibiotic that targets DNA
Quinolones
258
Name an antibiotic that targets metabolism
Trimethoprim
259
Which mutation is most likely to result in reduced levels of a gene product
Point mutation in the promoter
260
What does tamoxifen inhibit ?
Transcription
261
What cells line the central spinal canal ?
Ependymal cells
262
What bacterial infection would not be treated with vancomycin?
E.coli
263
What are RARs?
Rapidly adapting pulmonary stretch receptors
Activated by dust, smoke, ammonia, oedema
Cough reflex
264
What is 1st order kinetics ?
Drug decreases at a constant proportion of the drug is eliminated per unit time
265
What is 0 order kinetics ?
Drug decreases at constant amounts per unit of time
266
What is the roles of saliva ?
Buffer mouth pH
Protect mouth and gut surface
Antimicrobial
267
What is the role of the gallbladder ?
Storage and concentration of bile
Aids fat digestion
268
What is in saliva that starts starch digestion ?
Amylase
269
What is churned food and drink called ?
Chyme
270
What does chyme pass through to get from the stomach to the intestines ?
A sphincter
271
Name the three parts of the small intestines
Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum
Digestion —> absorption
272
What enter the duodenum ?
Pancreas secretions - aid fat, protein and starch digestion + bicarbonate fluids to maintain alkaline pH
Bile - aid fat digestion
Chyme
273
What passes into the large intestine ?
Any material not digested or absorbed
274
Outline GI tract histology
Epithelium
Lamina propria - CT, inflammatory cells + support + nutrition
Muscularis mucosae - smooth muscle (whole GI tract)
Submucosa - CT, vascularised, nerves
Muscularis propria - smooth muscle, peristalsis
Adventitia - CT (not in stomach or smal, intestines)
Serosa - reduces friction, CT , whole GI tract
275
What is the role of brunner’s glands ?
Secrete bicarbonate to neutralise stomach acid
276
What are peyers patches ?
Lymphoid follicles that prevent growth if dangerous bacteria
277
Outline the 3 pharynx’s
Nasopharynx = base of skull — soft palate
Oropharynx = soft palate — epiglottis
Laryngopharynx = epiglottis — trachea and oesophageal split
278
What is the muscle types in the oesophagus?
Upper - skeletal
Middle - mixed
Lower - smooth
279
What is the sphincter of the stomach called ?
Pyloric sphincter
280
How many layers of muscle in the stomach wall ?
3
281
What stimulates hydrochloric acid production in the stomach ?
Gastrin
282
What does hydrochloric acid break down ?
Pepsinogen to pepsin - produced from chief cells
283
What is the surface specialisation of the intestinal epithelia ?
Villi
284
What delivers bile and pancreatic juices to the duodenum ?
Sphincter of Oddi
285
What does the pancreas do ?
EXOCRINE : digestive enzymes, bicarbonate
ENDOCRINE : hormones , insulin (for glucose absorption), glucagon (for glucose release) + somatostatin (reduces acid secretion, slowing digestion)
286
How many lobes does the liver have ?
4
287
What is the role of the liver ?
Produces bile
Detoxifies and processes everything absorbed from GI tract
288
What are the 6 areas of the large intestine ?
Caecum
Ascending colon
Transverse colon
Descending colon
Sigmoid colon
Rectum
289
What prevents reflux of bowel contents to the ileum ?
Ileocaecal valve
290
What is the taenia coli ?
3 longitudinal bands of smooth muscle on the A, T and D colon
291
What is haustra ?
Ring like circular muscle
292
What do goblet cells do in the colon ?
Produce mucous
Large intestines role is to absorb fluid from GI tract
293
What are the 3 vessels of the GI tract ?
Coeliac trunk = forgut
Superior mesenteric artery = midgut
Inferior mesenteric artery = hind gut
294
Outline eat well guide
1/3 carbs
1/3 veg + fruit
Proteins is the next largest
Dairy is a small part
Processed food to be kept to a minimum
6-8 glasses of water daily
295
What is the structure of dietary fats ?
Triglycerides
296
What is the structure of dietary proteins ?
Polymers of amino acids
9 essential (only through diet)
297
What is the structure of carbs ?
Monosaccharides = glucose, fructose, galactose
Disaccharides = sucrose, maltose, lactose
Polysaccharides = starch
298
What digestion begins in saliva ?
Carbs (amalyse)
Lipids (lingual lipase)
299
What digestion starts in the stomach ?
Proteins (hydrochloric acid)
300
What is the livers role in fat digestion ?
Bile emulsifies fat particles
Aids absorption by forming micelles
301
What activated trypsin in the duodenum ?
Enterokinase
302
What enzymes are contained in the brush borders of villi ?
Peptidases , lactase , sucrase, Maltase
303
What is Bulimia Nervosa ?
Recurrent episodes of overeating accompanied with compensatory behaviours
304
What is the treatment for Bulimia Nervosa ?
CBT FBT, antidepressant may be used
305
What is BED ? (binge eating)
Frequent, recurring episodes of binge eating. Loss of control over eating behaviour
306
What is the treatment for BED ?
CBT , interpersonal therapy
307
What is Anorexia Nervosa ?
Low body weight due to persistent pattern of behaviours to prevent weight restoration (BMI <18.5)
BDD accompanied (body dysmorphia)
308
What is the treatment for Anorexia ?
FBT, CBT, Olansapine for adults
309
What is ARFID?
Abnormal eating or feeding behaviours that result in intake of insufficient quantity or variety of food
Causes weight loss/ nutrient deficiency
310
What is OSFED ?
Atypical eating disorder, doesn’t fit criteria
311
Where is erythropoietin secrete and what does it do ?
Kidneys
Response to hypoxia or low blood glucose
312
What is the function of the PCT ?
Active reabsorption of glucose , amino acids, Na and K + water
313
What is the function of the LOH ?
Solute pumping OUT of the tubule
314
What is the function of the DCT ?
More suite reabsorption and secretion
315
What is the function of Collecting Ducts?
Concentration of urine
316
What happens when electrolyte levels fall ?
Aldosterone increases , increases reabsorption of Na + Cl ions from LOH, DCT + Duct
Also increases K secretion
317
What is the activity of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) ?
Serine protease
318
What specialisation of muscle supports bladder function ?
Fibres arranged in multiple directions
319
What molecule is produced as part of the kidneys endocrine function ?
Vit D
320
What other organ participated in Vit D synthesis?
Liver
321
What molecule should not be found in the golmerular filtrate ?
Albumin
322
Which ligament maintains the ante flexi on or the uterus ?
Round
323
What is the sclera ?
The white of the eye
Fibrous and elastic tissue
324
What is the pupil ?
Dark void
325
What is the iris ?
Smooth muscle structure which controls pupil diameter
Sphincter pupillae and dilator pupillae
326
What is the cornea ?
Avascular covering , transplant
327
What does aqueous humour do ?
Secreted from ciliary bodies
Maintains eye pressure
Nutrients
Protection
328
What is the vitreous chamber ?
Contains vitreous humour
Contains phagocytes to remove debris
Mainly water, avascular
329
What is the retina ?
Light sensitive
Posterior
Contains rods (black + white) and cones (colour)
330
What is the route of visual impulses ?
Retina
Optic nerve
Optic chiasm
Radiation
Occipital lobe
331
What is the conchae (turbinates) ?
Increases nasal surface area
Increases chance of olfactory exposure
332
What is fungiform papillae ?
Mushroom like
Front 2/3 of tongue
333
What is foliate papillae ?
Leaf like
Vertical ridges
On the SIDE
334
What is filiform papillae ?
Threadlike
Coating mechanism
Creates rough and abrasive texture
335
What is vallate papillae ?
Only about 12
Contain minor salivary glands and some taste buds
336
What is the chorda tympani ?
Branch of facial nerve
Carrier taste fibres from anterior 2/3
337
What does the linguinal nerve carry ?
Sensory fibres to the anterior 2/3
338
What does the glossopharangeal nerve do ?
Supplies posterior 1/3
339
What does the hypoglossal nerve do ?
Motor control of most tongue muscles
340
What is in the middle ear ?
Malleus - attached to tympanic membrane
Incus (anvil)
Stapes (stirrup)
341
What is the function of the ear ossicles (MIS) in the middle ear ?
Transmit vibrations
342
What is the oval window ?
Opening into vestibule of inner ear
Closed by base of stapes
343
What is the round window ?
Opening into the cochlear portion of ear
344
What is the function of the cochlea ?
Sound amplification
Conversion from vibrational to electrical signal
345
How does the cochlea transmit signals ?
Cochlear part of vestibulocochlear nerve
346
What are the semicircular canals ?
For balance
347
How do the semicircular canals send signals?
Vestibular part of the vestibulocochlear nerve
348
What is otitis media ?
Infection causing inflammation and fluid build up behind the eardrum
349
What are the 2 protective muscles in the inner ear ?
Stapedius reflex
Tensor tympani
350
What is the Eustachian tube (auditory tube) ?
Connects nasopharynx to middle ear
Keeps air pressure the same as atmosphere
This allows tympanic membrane to vibrate
351
What is the organ of Corti ?
In the Scalia media
Sensory epithelium containing auditory hair cells
352
Where do sound vibrations terminate ?
The round window
353
Where do high frequency sounds travel to ?
Base of cochlea
354
Where do low frequency sounds travel to ?
The apex of the cochlea
355
What do inner hair cells do ?
Turn vibrations into signals
356
What do outer hair cells do ?
Amplify vibrations
357
What is the tonotopic map ?
Arrangement of frequencies in cochlea
This is maintained up to primary auditory cortex
358
What are the 5 primary tastes ?
Sour
Salty
Sweet
Bitter
Savoury
359
What brain regions are responsible for taste ?
Solitary nucleus of the medulla
Thalamus
Gustatory cortex
360
What are scent molecules dissolved by ?
Nasal mucus
361
What is scent molecules on nasal mucus detected by ?
Rhodopsin-like detectors on the dendrites of olfactory cells
362
What brain regions are responsible for smell ?
Amygdala
Hippocampus
Parahippocampul gyrus
363
What is anosmia ?
Loss of smell
Caused by fractures, tumours and neurological disorders (+some viruses)
Effects quality of life
364
Production of what molecules in inhibited by paracetamol ?
Prostaglandin
365
What is PICO method ?
Population
Intervention
Comparison/control
Outcome
366
What nerve doesn’t pass through the thalamus ?
Olfactory
367
What type of receptors are the odorant receptors?
G-protein coupled
368
What is the purpose of the inter-aural time difference ?
Localise the direction of sound
369
What results due to opening of channels blocked by auditory hair ?
Depolarisation due to potassium influx
370
What neurotransmitter is release from the basal surface of auditory hair cells ?
Glutamate
