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P-8A EAWS > Phase 1 > Flashcards

Phase 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What two types of command operate under the joint chiefs of staff

A

Unified and Specified

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2
Q

Name the six unified commands

A 
Atlantic
Pacific
European
Southern
Central
Readiness
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3
Q

Name two specified commands

A

North American Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD)

Air Mobility Command (AMC)

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4
Q

CINCPACFLT commands..

A

Third and seventh fleets

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5
Q

CINCANTFLT commands..

A

Second fleet

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6
Q

CINCUSNAVEUR commands..

A

Sixth fleet

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7
Q

Who is the current Secretary of the Navy

A

Mr. Richard Spencer (76th SECNAV)

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8
Q

Who is the current Secretary of Defense

A

Mr. Jim Mattis (26th SECDEF)

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9
Q

Who is the current Chief of Naval Operations

A

ADM John Richardson

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10
Q

What are Wing commanders responsible for

A

Material readiness, administration, training, and inspection of squadrons under their command

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11
Q

Who is the current Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy

A

MCPON Steven Giordano (14th MCPON)

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12
Q

What are the 6 fleet Master Chiefs

A 
Pacific Fleet
Atlantic Fleet
Naval Forces Europe
Material command 
Shore activities 
Naval Education and Training
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13
Q

How many Force Master Chiefs are there

A

22 Force Master Chiefs

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14
Q

Navy commands with how many personnel assigned are eligible for a CMC

A

Commands with 250 or more personnel

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15
Q

What is the work center supervisors primary function

A

Hour by hour functions

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16
Q

What are the Ombudsman’s responsibilities

A

Be the link between the command and families of command personnel.

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17
Q

What is the DAPA

A

Command Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor

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18
Q

What is a CIPM

A

Career Information Program Manager, acts as divisional career counselor

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19
Q

In order to receive an honorable discharge, the member must receive atleast a ____ conduct and ____ average otherwise a general discharge is awarded

A

2.7 conduct, 3.0 average

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20
Q

What are the eval marks

A 
Early Promote - 4.0
Must Promote - 3.8
Promotable - 3.6
Progressing - 3.4
Significant Problems - 2.0
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21
Q

Good conducts are awarded every ____ years to personnel with Performance Marks above ____ and no NJP or Court Martial.

A

3 years, 3.0

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22
Q

What is the principle means by which commanders communicate

A

Naval message

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23
Q

How would you express 01 July 2016 @ 1200 Zulu time in Date Time Group

A

011200ZJUL16

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24
Q

What is SSIC

A

Standard Subject Identification Code

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25
Q

State the three objectives of first aid

A

Save life
Prevent further injury
Prevent infection

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26
Q

What are the 4 methods of controlling bleeding

A

Direct pressure
Elevation
Pressure points
Tourniquet

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27
Q

How many pressure points are there?

Identify 3

A

11-

Superficial temporal artery-temple
Facial artery - jaw
Common carotid - neck
Subclavian artery - collar bone
Brachial artery - inner upper arm
Brachial artery - inner elbow
Radial/Ulner - wrist
Femoral - upper thigh
Iliac - groin
Popliteal - knee
Anterior/posterior tibial - ankle
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28
Q

State Symptoms and treatment for shock

A

Symptoms- vacant eyes, irregular breathing, cold/pale skin, nausea, weak pulse

Treatment- lay down with feet elevated 6-12 inches, cover to maintain body heat

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29
Q

Described the 3 classifications of burns

A

1st- mildest, redness/warmth/tender mild pain

2nd- red and blistered/severe pain

3rd- destroyed tissue/skin and bone/pain may be absent due to destroyed nerve endings

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30
Q

State Symptoms and treatment for heat exhaustion

A

Disturbance of blood flow to brain, heart, and lungs

Skin is cool/moist/clammy
Pupils dilated
Subnormal body temperature
Usually sweating profusely

Move to cool area, loosen clothing, apply wet cloths to head/groin/ankles, if conscious give one tsp salt in liter of cool water and transport to medical facility

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31
Q

State symptoms and treatment of heat stroke

A

Breakdown of sweating mechanisms in the body

Hot/dry skin, uneven pupil dilation, weak pulse

Douse body in cold water, apply cold wet towels, move to coolest place possible, maintain open airway, lay on back with shoulders slightly raised, cold packs on victims shoulders, neck, groin, ankle.

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32
Q

Describe hypothermia

A

A general cooling of the entire body

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33
Q

Describe superficial frost bite

A

Ice crystals forming in upper skin layers

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34
Q

Describe deep frostbite

A

Ice crystals in deep tissues

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35
Q

Define the purpose of the Naval Aviation Safety Program

A

Preserve human and material resources to accomplish the naval aviation mission.

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36
Q

Who’s responsible for safety

A

All hands

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37
Q

What instruction forms the guidelines for the naval aviation safety program

A

OPNAVINST 3750.6Q

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38
Q

What is the ESC and what are its functions

A

Enlisted Safety Committee

Meet monthly to discuss safety issues and provide recommendations for improved safety procedures

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39
Q

What are the 5 contributors to aviation mishaps

A

Human Error

Maintenance and support factors

Administrative and supervisory factors

Material failure or malfunction

Environmental factors

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40
Q

Describe the four classes of mishaps

A

Class A- cost above $1M/permanent total disability or death

Class B- cost between 200k & 1M/ permanent partial disability, 3 or more personnel hospitalized

Class C- cost between 10k-200k/ injury resulting in time off work beyond day of mishap

Class D- cost less than 10k/ no injury beyond first aid or day of incident

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41
Q

What is ACSP and what publication is used for certification

A

Aircraft Confined Space Program

NavAir 01-1A-35

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42
Q

What are the hazards of RF energy

A

Generates currents/voltage large enough to cause life threatening shock/burns, biological changes and cataracts

May cause unwanted activation of EED

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43
Q

What is the purpose of the Laser Safety Hazard Control Program

A

Design a series of safety factors established when using lasers

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44
Q

State the purpose of safety stand down

A

Devote time to safety training. awareness and enhancement of the command safety climate.

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45
Q

What are the 5 steps of ORM

A 
Identify hazards 
Assess hazards
Make risk decisions
Implement controls 
Supervise
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46
Q

What is CBR

A

Chemical, biological, radiological warfare

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47
Q

Describe chemical warfare

A

Use of chemical agents

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48
Q

Describe biological warfare

A

Use of living organisms as weapons

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49
Q

Describe radiological warfare

A

Use of radiological weapons

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50
Q

What is atropine/2 pan chloride

A

Automatic injector for first aid treatment of nerve agents

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51
Q

Describe the DT-60

A

Personnel dosimeter, non self reading, determines total gamma radiation.

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52
Q

Name the 4 chemical casualty agents and symptoms

A

Choking agents- dryness of throat, coughing, choking, tightness of chest, headache, nausea, watering eyes

Nerve agents- runny nose difficult breathing, contracted pupils, nausea, cramps, headache, coma, convulsion

Blood agents- hydrogen cyanide, breathing stops, violent convulsions, death within minutes

Blister agents- redness of skin .5-36 hrs after mustard vapor exposure, stiffness throbbing swelling

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53
Q

What are the types of nuclear explosions

A

High altitude air burst

Air burst

Surface burst

Shallow underwater burst

Deep underwater burst

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54
Q

What is EMP and what type of nuclear explosion/s produce it

A

Electromagnetic pulse

High altitude, air and surface bursts

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55
Q

What is occurs during nuclear black out

A

Loss of electrical power

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56
Q

What does MOPP stand for and how many levels are there

A

Mission oriented protective posture

4 levels

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57
Q

Describe MOPP 1

A

Gas masks issued/fitted to all hands

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58
Q

Describe MOPP 2

A

Gas masks carried by personnel, material condition ZEBRA

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59
Q

Describe MOPP 3

A

Filters installed on gas masks, don chemical protective over garments, material condition ZEBRA

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60
Q

Describe MOPP 4

A

Don gas mask and secure hood, don gloves. Set condition Circle William

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61
Q

Describe the four elements of fire chemistry

A

Fuel, oxidizing agent, temperature, chemical chain reaction

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62
Q

What are the four classifications of fire

A

Class A- wood,cloth,textiles, fibrous materials. Ext with water or AFFF

Class B- flammable liquids. Ext w/ AFFF, halon 1211, PKP, CO2

Class C - electrical. Ext w/ CO2, Halon, PKP

Class D- combustible metals, ext w/ water in high volumes from behind shelter due to explosions

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63
Q

What is the flash point of AVGAS

A

-50F

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64
Q

What is the flashpoint of JP-4

A

-10F

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65
Q

What is the flashpoint of JP-5

A

140F

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66
Q

What is the flashpoint of JP-8

A

100F

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67
Q

Using which fire extinguishing agents must a Oxygen Breathing Apparatus be worn

A

CO2 and HALON

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68
Q

What is the expansion rate of LOX

A

860:1

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69
Q

Define aircraft handling

A

Any movement of aircraft or equipment

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70
Q

State the purpose of standard aircraft taxi signals

A

Used by all branches so there will be no misunderstanding between pilots and ground crew of varying services

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71
Q

State the max towing speed of an aircraft

A

As fast as the slowest walker

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72
Q

Name the four categories of tie down requirements

A

Initial

Intermediate

Permanent

Heavy weather

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73
Q

How are runways numbered

A

Magnetic heading rounded to the nearest 10 degrees

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74
Q

Explain the significance of Arm/deArm areas

A

Area where ordnance can safely be changed from a state of readiness to a safe condition and vice versa

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75
Q

Explain the purpose of an overrun area

A

Provides an effective area for aborting or overshooting aircraft, often marked with yellow chevrons

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76
Q

Explain the purpose of parking aprons

A

Required for parking, servicing and loading of aircraft

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77
Q

Explain the purpose of airfield rotating beacon

A

Identify the airports location, flashing rate of 12-15 flashes per minute

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78
Q

Explain the purpose of TACAN

A

TACtical Air Navigation system uses bearing determining systems between the aircraft and TACAN stations, primary nav aid by carrier based aircraft

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79
Q

State procedures for aircraft grounding

A

Approved grounding receptacle first, then approved grounding point on the aircraft

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80
Q

Who has prime responsibility during an aircraft movement

A

Move director

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81
Q

What is the primary Objective of the Navy Security Program

A

Safe guard personnel, property, facilities and material.

Enforce laws rules and regulations.

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82
Q

Define Law Enforcement operations

A

Support good order and discipline

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83
Q

Who is responsible for the good order and discipline of the command

A

Commanding Officer

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84
Q

State the use of force and weapons policies

A

Sufficient though not excessive force, to stop whatever offense is being committed

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85
Q

What does SOFA stand for

A

Status of Forces Agreements

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86
Q

What does NAMP stand for and what is the publication

A

Naval aviation maintenance program

OPNAVINST 4790.2b

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87
Q

What is the objective of the NAMP

A

To achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards established by the CNO and COMNAVAIRFOR

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88
Q

What is chapter 1 of the NAMP

A

Introduction

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89
Q

What is the maintenance control chapter of the NAMP

A

Chapter 5

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90
Q

Which chapter is QA programs in the NAMP

A

Chapter 7

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91
Q

What is chapter 10 of the NAMP

A

NAMP Standard Operating Procedures (NAMPSOPS)

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92
Q

What chapter of the NAMP pertains to NALCOMIS and OMA and what do they stand for

A

Chapter 13

Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System

Organizational Maintenance Activity

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93
Q

What chapter is O level maintenance

A

Chapter 15

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94
Q

What are the 3 levels of maintenance and which is VP45

A

ORGANIZATIONAL

Intermediate

Depot

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95
Q

Describe O level maintenance

A

Operating unit, day by day support, assigned aircraft

Strive to maintain full mission capable aircraft

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96
Q

Describe I level maintenance

A

On and off equipment material support

Strive to process, repair, and return items in a timely fashion

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97
Q

Describe DEPOT level maintenance

A

Overhaul maintenance, usually civilian or FTS

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98
Q

Describe the Maintenance officers primary responsibility

A

Accomplishment of the department mission IAW the NAMP

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99
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Aircraft Maintenance Officer

A

Assistant to the MO, manning

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100
Q

What does MMCO stand for and what are his responsibilities

A

Maintenance Material Control Officer

Liaison between supported activities and supply

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101
Q

Describe the responsibilities of the Material Control Officer

A

Supply corps officer assigned to a deployable squadron, responsible for managing the tool control program. Used to reduce cost and improve readiness

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102
Q

Describe scheduled maintenance

A

Timely discovery and detection of defects.

Phase inspections, hourlys, cycles, landings

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103
Q

Describe unscheduled maintenance

A

Discrepancies and deficiencies found during operations.

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104
Q

What is the purpose of the daily

A

Conducted to inspect for defects further in depth than turnaround and postflight

Good for 72 hours without maintenance or flight

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105
Q

What is the purpose of a turnaround

A

Conducted between flights to ensure integrity of the aircraft for flight

Good for 24 hours without maintenance or flight

106
Q

Describe a special inspection

A

Prescribed interval other than daily,calendar, or phase

14 day, 2000 landing, 2000 HR

107
Q

Describe a conditional inspection

A

Unscheduled inspection such as bird/lightening strike, hard landing, FOD, ETC

108
Q

Describe phase inspections

A

Scheduled maintenance requirements divided over time

109
Q

Describe acceptance inspections

A

Performed when accepting newly assigned aircraft

110
Q

State the purpose of FCF

A

Functional Check Flights are done to determine whether airframe power plant accessories and equipment are functioning properly

111
Q

State the purpose of the Weight and Balance program

A

Provides standard system of field weight and balance control

112
Q

State the purpose of the aircraft log book

A

Hard cover loose leaf binder containing the history of the aircraft.

113
Q

Who is authorized to sign the aircraft log book

A

Anyone designated in writing by the CO

114
Q

Who is authorized to release an aircraft safe for flight

A

MO, MMCO, Maintenance Control Officer

Anyone designated in writing by the CO

115
Q

What are MRC cards

A

Provides instructions for scheduled maintenance tasks

116
Q

What are PMICs

A

Periodic Maintenance Information Cards

Identify scheduled or forced removal of items and their replacement intervals

117
Q

What is the IPB

A

Illustrated Parts Breakdown

(AIPC) Aircraft Illustrated Parts Catalog

118
Q

What are MIMs

A

Maintenance instruction manuals

O or I level maintenance and servicing of a specific model aircraft

119
Q

Define work center supervisor responsibilities

A

Hour by hour maintenance

120
Q

Define the concept of QA

A

Prevention of the occurrence of defects

121
Q

Explain the responsibilities of QAR

A

Direct representatives of the CO for ensuring safety of flight

122
Q

Explain the responsibilities of CDQAR

A

Collateral Duty Quality Insurance Representatives are QA for individual workcenters

123
Q

Explain the responsibilities of a CDI

A

Collateral duty Inspectors are production work center inspectors as representatives of QA

124
Q

What are the three types of QA audits

A

Special
Quarterly
Workcenter

125
Q

Describe a special audit

A

Evaluate specific tasks, procedures, programs.

126
Q

Describe quarterly workcenter audits

A

Conducted quarterly to evaluate all areas of the workcenter

127
Q

Describe CTPL

A

Central technical Publications Librarian handles all technical manuals required including internal control and distribution of the NAMP

128
Q

Who monitors and manages the FOD program

A

QA

Line division chief (chief Gloyd)

129
Q

What is the primary objective of the tool control program

A

Provides a means to rapidly account for all tools after completing a maintenance task

130
Q

Who monitors the Fuel Surveillance and Oil analysis programs and where is the servicing logged

A

QA

Aircraft log book

131
Q

How shall tires be handled

A

Same care as live ordnance

132
Q

Describe MMP

A

Monthly Maintenance Plan provides a schedule of predictable work

133
Q

Describe ESD

A

Electrostatic Discharge is the transfer of esc between objects at different potentials

134
Q

What does NATOPS stand for

A

Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization

135
Q

State the meaning of the term WARNING

A

May result in injury or death

136
Q

State the meaning of the term CAUTION

A

Damage to equipment

137
Q

State the meaning of the term NOTE

A

Must be emphasized

138
Q

State the meaning of the term Shall

A

Mandatory procedure

139
Q

State the meaning of the term SHOULD

A

Recommended

140
Q

State the meaning of the term MAY

A

Optional procedure

141
Q

State the meaning of the term WILL

A

Future procedure

142
Q

What are NAVFLIRS

A

OPNAV3710/4 “yellow sheet” provides a standard flight activity data collection system

143
Q

Describe master flight files

A

Shall be the only official flight record of naval aircraft 3710.7

144
Q

Explain Type Commanders (TYCOM)

A

COMNAVAIRLANT A-M and A-Z

COMNAVAIRPAC N-Z and A-Z

CNATRA A-G

145
Q

State the 6 areas of naval doctrine

A 
Warfare 
Intel
Ops
Logistics
Planning
Command and Control
146
Q

How does naval aviation support recon/surveillance

A

Search for and interception, recording, and analysis of electromagnetic energy used in military operations

147
Q

How does naval aviation support anti submarine warfare

A

Locate and destroy submarines

148
Q

How does naval aviation support amphibious assault

A

Providing bombardment by ordnance, transportation of troops and supplies

149
Q

How does naval aviation support logistics

A

Transportation of troops and cargo or supplies

150
Q

How does naval aviation support search and rescue

A

Provide search and surveillance data of a rescue area

151
Q

How does naval aviation support mine warfare

A

Locate and destroy enemy mines

152
Q

When did the first congress meet

A

05september1774

153
Q

Who was appointed commander in chief of the continental American army on 15 June 1775

A

George Washington

154
Q

What is the birthday of the US navy

A

13 October 1775

155
Q

Who was the first commander in chief who put the continental navy to sea in FEB1776

A

Esek Hopkins

156
Q

State the qualities that characterize the Navy/Marine Corps as instruments to support national policy

A

Readiness
Flexibility
Self-sustainability
Mobility

157
Q

State the three levels of war

A

Strategic
Tactical
Operational

158
Q

When did they battle of Coral Sea take place and what was the significance of it

A

7-8May1942

First Carrier V Carrier battle

Lexington sunk and Yorktown was damaged

159
Q

When and what was the significance of the battle of midway

A

3-5 June 1942

Turning point of the pacific war by the US breaking the Japanese naval code

160
Q

When and what was the significance of the battle of Guadalcanal

A

13-15 November 1942

The USS Juneau was sunk along with 700 crew members including 5 Sullivan brothers

161
Q

What is 08 May 1911 considered

A

Birthday of Naval Aviation after purchasing two Curtis biplanes later called A-1 for $5500

162
Q

When was the first Aircraft carried commissioned and what were its name and class

A

20March1922

USS Langley (CV-1)

163
Q

What was the first naval jet aircraft

A

FJ-1 Fury, first landed on the USS Boxer (cv-21)

164
Q

Who was the first naval aviator in space

A

5may1961 Alan Shepard

15 min flight in Freedom 7

165
Q

Describe inertia

A

Object remains at rest or continues in motion unless acted upon by an outside force

166
Q

Describe acceleration

A

The rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time

167
Q

Describe speed

A

The rate of movement or motion in a given amount of time

168
Q

Describe velocity

A

The quickness or speed of an object in a given time AND direction

169
Q

Define Newtons First Law

A

Inertia (remain at rest or in motion)

170
Q

Define Newtons Second Law

A

Force proportional to the amount and mass of object

171
Q

Define Newtons Third Law

A

Action and reaction

Equal and opposite

172
Q

Define Bernoullis principle

A

Lift accomplished by difference in airflow across the airfoil

173
Q

How many knots must wind be traveling to classify as a storm

A

48 knots or greater

174
Q

Below 33 knots a topical cyclone is refereed to as a..

A

Tropical depression

175
Q

Between 34-63 knots a tropical cyclone is considered…

A

Tropical storm

176
Q

What is the warning issued for winds above 64 knots

A

Hurricane/Typhoon

177
Q

What is issued if thunderstorms are within 3 miles of an airfield

A

Thunderstorm warning

178
Q

What is issued if a thunderstorm is within 3 miles of an airfield with wind gusts over 50 knots and/or hail 3/4 inch

A

Severe thunderstorm warning

179
Q

What is issued when tornados have been sited or detected by radar

A

Tornado Warning

180
Q

Describe lift

A

Force that acts in an upward direction counteracting weight

181
Q

Describe weight

A

Force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft

182
Q

Describe Drag

A

Force holding an aircraft back, counters thrust

183
Q

Describe Thrust

A

Force developed by the engine in a forward direction, counters drag

184
Q

Which axis does roll occur

A

Longitudinal

185
Q

Which axis does pitch occur

186
Q

Which axis does yaw occur

187
Q

Describe how flight controls affect fixed wing aircraft

A

Ailerons-longitudinal axis

Elevators- lateral axis

Rudder- vertical axis

188
Q

How do flight controls affect rotary wing aircraft

A

Collective stick- up and down

Cyclic stick - forward, Aft, Sideways

Foot pedals- tail rotor

189
Q

What is the purpose of flaps

A

Give the aircraft lift

190
Q

What is the purpose of spoilers

A

Decrease lift

191
Q

What is the purpose of speed brakes

A

Reducing speed

192
Q

What is the purpose of slats

A

Improve control at slow speeds

193
Q

State the purpose of the horizontal stabilizer

A

Process stability about the lateral axis

194
Q

State the purpose of the vertical stabilizer

A

Maintains stability about its vertical axis

195
Q

State the purpose of the tail rotor

A

counter acts the main rotor

196
Q

Explain angle of attack

A

Fuselage against the air

197
Q

State the components of hyds

A 
Pump
Actuators 
Reservoir
Tubing
Selector valve
198
Q

Explain the purpose of the shock strut assembly on the landing gear

A

Absorbs the shock of landing to protect the airframe

199
Q

Explain the purpose of tires on the landing gear

A

Provides traction during take off and landing

200
Q

Explain the purpose of the wheel brake assembly on the landing gear

A

Used to slow and stop the aircraft and secure the aircraft during parking

201
Q

Explain the purpose of the retracting and extending mechanism on the landing gear

A

Hydraulic extension and retraction of the landing gear

202
Q

Explain the purpose of the side struts and supports on the landing gear

A

Provides lateral strength and support for the landing gear

203
Q

Explain the safety precautions when servicing aircraft tires

A

Always approach the tires from fore and aft, never the sides

204
Q

State the 5 basic sections of a jet engine

A 
Intake
Compressor 
Combustion
Turbine
Exhaust
205
Q

Describe a turbo jet engine

A

Projects a column of air to the rear at an extremely high velocity

206
Q

Describe a turboshaft engine

A

Delivers power through a shaft to drive something other than a propeller

207
Q

Describe a turboprop engine

A

Converts gas energy into mechanical power to drive a propeller

208
Q

Describe a turbofan engine

A

Similar to a turboprop except the propeller is replaced by a duct enclose axial flow fan

209
Q

State the purpose of an afterburner

A

Used during takeoff and combat maneuvers to boost the normal thrust of a gas turbine engine

210
Q

What is the NATO code for JP4

What is the flash point

A

F-40

-10F -23C

211
Q

What is the NATO code for JP5

What is the flashpoint

A

F-44

140F 60C

212
Q

What is the NATO code for JP8

What is the flashpoint

A

F-34

100F 40C

213
Q

What are 3 hazards associated with jet fuel

A

Explosions, vapor inhalation, contact with skin or eyes, swallowing can cause death

214
Q

Explain the purpose of the APU

A

Furnish electrical power

215
Q

What is an NDI,

Give 3 examples

A

Non Destructive Inspection

Visual, optical, liquid penetrate, magnetic particle, eddy current, ultrasonic, radiographic

216
Q

What affects does icing have on the aircraft

A

Decreases lift and increases drag, weight, and stalling speed

Causes loss of engine power, aerodynamics efficiency, loss of control surfaces; brakes, and landing gear. Loss of vision, false indication, and communication

217
Q

State the purpose of the pitot-static system

A

Indication for altimeter, airspeed, rate of climb

218
Q

State the purpose of the airspeed indicator

A

Speed of the aircraft in relation to the air in which it is flying

219
Q

State the purpose of the altimeters

A

Displays the height above sea level

220
Q

State the purpose of the attitude indicator

A

Displays Relative position of the aircraft to earths horizon

Also called VGI vertical Gyro Indicator

221
Q

State the purpose of the turn and bank indicator

A

Displays correct execution of a turn and bank

222
Q

State the purpose of navigation systems

A

Direct, plot, and control the course or position of the aircraft

223
Q

State the purpose of the IFF system

A

Allows aircraft to identify as friendly automatically without interrogation

224
Q

State the purpose of RADAR

A

Used radio frequencies to detect objects at distances much greater than visually possible

225
Q

State the purpose of the magnetic compass

A

Direct reading magnetic compass for standby flight operations

226
Q

Describe bombs

A

Free falling explosives dropped from an aircraft over enemy targets to reduce the enemy’s war potential

227
Q

Describe Rockets

A

Weapon containing an explosive and propulsive section

228
Q

Describe missles

A

Vehicle containing an explosive, propulsive and guidance section

229
Q

Describe mines

A

Underwater explosives

230
Q

Describe torpedoes

A

Self propelled underwater missles used against surface and underwater targets

231
Q

Explain the purpose of circuit breakers

A

Circuit protection device when current exceeds a predetermined value

232
Q

Explain the purpose of a fuse

A

Protective device inline with a circuit, consists of a metal that will melt or break when current is increased beyond a specific value

233
Q

Explain voltage

A

Driving force of current

Designated by letter E in ohms law

234
Q

Explain Current

A

The flow of electrons l, directly proportional to applied voltage and inversely so to resistance

Designated by the letter I in ohms law

235
Q

Explain resistance

A

The opposing force to electrons

Designated by the letter R in ohms law

236
Q

What is a SMQ

A

Special Maintenance Qualification

Controls which NALCOMIS subsystems a user has access too

237
Q

Describe the mission of the HC platform

A

Helicopter combat support

Plane guard, sea-air rescue,mail delivery, personnel transfer

CH-53

238
Q

Describe the mission of the HCS platform

A

Helo combat support special squadron

Deployable combat rescue for Carrier and amphibious operations

H-60

239
Q

Describe the mission of the HM platform

A

Helo mine countermeasures

Ariel minesweepers and hunting

MH-53

240
Q

Describe the mission of the HS platform

A

Helo Antisubmarine

Carrier based ASW, plane guard, SAR, logistics

SH-60

241
Q

Describe the mission of the HSL platform

A

Helo anti submarine light

Small helos from smaller ships, SAR & Logistics

Sk-60

242
Q

Describe the mission of the HT platform

A

Helo Training

Training of naval aviators for rotary wing aircraft

TH-57

243
Q

Describe the mission of the VAQ platform

A

Tactical Electronic warfare

Exploits, suppresses, degrades, and deceives enemy electromagnetic systems including communication

EA-6B Prowler -> Growler

EP-3A –> P8

244
Q

Describe the mission of the VAW platform

A

Carrier Airborne Early Warning

Warning against missiles, weather, ships and aircraft

E-2

245
Q

Describe the mission of the VC platform

A

Fleet composite

Provides services such as simulations and target towing

H-53, VP-3A

246
Q

Describe the mission of the VF platform

A

Fighter

Used against aircraft and ground targets, Air support

F-14, F-16N

247
Q

Describe the mission of the VFA platform

A

Strike Fighter

Fighter/attack missions

F/A 18

248
Q

Describe the mission of the VMFA platform

A

Marine Fighter/Attack

Marine Corps F/A-18

249
Q

Describe the mission of the VP platform

A

Patrol

Land Based patrol and reconnaissance, ASW, SAR

P3/P-8A

250
Q

Describe the mission of the VQ platform

A

Fleet Air Reconnaissance

Electronic warfare support

EP-3, E-6

251
Q

Describe the mission of the VR platform

A

Aircraft Logistics Support

Transport of personnel and supplies

C-130

252
Q

Describe the mission of the VRC platform

A

Carrier Logistics Support

Transports personnel and supplies to carriers

C-2 greyhound

253
Q

Describe the mission of the VS platform

A

Carrier anti submarine warfare

Search and sea control, no longer employed for ASW

S-3

254
Q

Describe the mission of the VT platform

A

Fixed wing training for naval aviators

T-45

255
Q

Describe the mission of the VX/VXE platform

A

Air test and evaluation

Tests and evaluates operational capabilities of new aircraft and equipment in an operational environment

Antarctic development-VXE

256
Q

What are the 6 categories of hazmat

A 
Flammable or combustible 
Aerosol
Toxic 
Corrosive 
Oxidizing 
Compressed gasses

FATCOC

257
Q

Define HAZMAT

A

Hazardous Materials any material that may pose a hazard to human or environmental health

258
Q

Define HAZWASTE

A

Any discarded material that may be categorized as HAZMAT

259
Q

How often are HAZMAT storage locations inspected and what is being inspected for

A

Weekly and Quarterly

Corrosion, leakage, proper labeling, shelf life

260
Q

What is an MSDS, Where is it located, what does it include

A

Material Safety Data Sheet

Supply, HAZMAT storage areas, spill kits

Manufacturers information pertaining to health & safety, chemical and physical characteristics, and precautions for use

261
Q

What PPE is required when handling HM/HW

A

Eye protection
Respiratory devises
Gloves

262
Q

What is the AUL and what is its purpose

A

HAZMAT authorized use list

Current inventory of all HM for local acquisition and use

P-8A EAWS (12 decks)

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