Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

M2 Fall > Pharmacology Unit 3 > Flashcards

Pharmacology Unit 3 Flashcards

1
Q

omeprazole

A

proton pump inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

esomeprazole

A

proton pump inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

lansoprazole

A

proton pump inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

cimetidine

A

H2 receptor antagonist; decrease gastric acid production; 4-5hr duration; high dose decrease testosterone binding and estrdiol hydroxylation causing galactorrhea in women and feminization in men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ranitidine

A

H2 receptor antagonist; decrease gastric acid production; 6-8 hr duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

famotidine

A

H2 receptor anatagonist; decrease gastric acid production; 10-12 hr duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

misoprostol

A

synthetic PGE1 analog; reduce 80-90% of basal or food-indiced acid production; short acting; prevention of NSAID-induced gastric ulcers; adverse: diarrhea, exacerbate IBD, contractions in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

sucralfate

A

barrier to protect epithelial cell layer; sucorse + AlOH3; stcks to duodenal ulcers; activated by acid, avoid antaacids or PPIs; Adverse: constipation, block drug absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

aluminum hydroxide

A

antacid; slow acting, delays emptying and motility; Adverse: constipation, nausea, phosphate loss, binds tetracycline, rebound acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

magnesium hydroxide

A

antacid; fast acting; stimulates gastric emptying and motility; avoid in renal disease, rebound acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Mg-trisilicate

A

antacid; adverse: avoid in renal disease, silica is absorbed and may cause renal stones, rebound acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

calcium carbonate

A

antacid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

pirenzepine

A

muscarinic antagonist; decrease gastric acid production; decrease vagal transmission to enteric nerve by blocking ganglionic transmission (M1), decr stimulation of parietal and ECL cells; reduce basal acid production 40-50%; rarely used for significant anticholinergic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

bethanechol

A

cholinergic agonist; GI prokinetic agent; selective M2, M3 receptors to produce GI contraction;
Used to help urination post-surgical;
Adverse: cholinergic effects, disrupt natural reflex of oral contraction and anal relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

neostigmine methylsulfate

A

AChE inhibitor; GI prokinetic agent; eccentuate normal ACh release to incr GI motility; used in ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

metoclopramide

A

Dopamine receptor antagonist; GI prokinetic agent, incr normal ACh release; incr lower esophageal sphincter tone, used in GERD; also antiemetic and laxative; adverse: antidopamine effects, parkinsonian symptoms, dystonias, tardive dyskenesia in chronic use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

tegaserod

A

5-HT4 partial agonist; GI prokinetic agent; stimulate intrinsic sensory neurons (chemical/mechanical stimulation) increase motility in IBS and chronic constipation/bloating, mildly effective; adverse: fatal cardiac arrhythmia, restricted distribution by FDA; last line therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

cisapride

A

5-HT4 partial agonist; GI prokinetic agent; also adenylate cyclase stimulant; used in GERD; adverse: fatal cardiac arrhythmia, restricted distribution by FDA; last line therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Erythromycin (macrolide abx)

A

motilin agonist (stimulate upper small bowel motility produced by EC cells); GI prokinetic agent; cause gastric dumping and emtpying in ileus, scleroderma, and pseudo-obstructions; acute use only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

magnesium citrate

A

osmotic laxative; may stimulate motility through CCK receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

magnesium hydroxide

A

osmotic laxative; may stimulate motility through CCK receptors; milk of magnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

polyethyl glycol

A

osmotic laxative; alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

lactulose

A

osmotic laxative; used for constipation from opioid and vincristine use; bacterial fermentation can drop pH and trap NH4 in colon of patients with hepatic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

mannitol

A

osmotic laxative; used for constipation from opioid and vincristine use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

sorbitol

A

osmotic laxative; used for constipation from opioid and vincristine use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

docusate

A

stool wetting/softener; surfactant that allows fatty substance and water in stool; do not increase frequency of defecation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

bisacodyl

A

irritant laxative; used orally or rectally; overdose leads to catharsis; stimulate motility; dont chew to avoid gastric irritation (target is small intestine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

castor oil

A

irritant laxative; smooth muscle stimulant; ricinoleic acid speeds motility in small bowel; 4ml for laxative effect-16ml for catharsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

methylcellulose

A

bulk laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

polycarbophil

A

bulk laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

psyllium

A

bulk laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

bismuth subsalicylate (pepto-bismol)

A

antidiarrheal; salicylate released in stomach and absorbed sytemically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

diphenoxylate difenoxin

A

antidiarrheal; opioid piperidine derivatives; can have CNS effects; packaged with atropine to discourage abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

loperamide

A

antidiarrheal; opioid poorly absorbed mu agonist; stops bowel motility; 50x morphine potency; doesnt enter CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

octreotide

A

antidiarrheal; somatostatin derivative; parenteral block secretory diarrhea of hormone secreting tumors; inhibit gastrin and serotonin; Uses: post-surgical dumping, diarrhea assoc chemotherpay, pncreatitis; adverse: nausea, vomiting, bloating, injection site pain, gall stones with long term use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

chlorpromazine

A

antiemetic; phenothiazine dopamine receptor antagonist; target D2 in CTZ and H1; uses: nausea, emesis, morning sickness (H1); adverse: parkinsonian symptoms, dysphoria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

cyclizine

A

antiemetic; Antihistamine (h1); also has anticholinergic effects used in abdominal cancer; used in morning sickness, postop emesis; acts in STN and vestibular apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

A

antiemetic; antiemetic; Antihistamine (h1); used in morning sickness, postop emesis; acts in STN and vestibular apparatus;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)

A

antiemetic; salt of dephenhydramine and chlorotheophylinate (stimulant to stop sedation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

dolasetron

A

antiemetic; 5-HT3 antagonist (CTZ, STN, and small intestine); oral and parenteral; 8 hr half-life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

hydroxyzine

A

antiemetic; Antihistamine (h1); used in morning sickness, postop emesis; acts in STN and vestibular apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

granisetron

A

antiemetic; 5-HT3 antagonist (CTZ, STN, and small intestine); oral and parenteral; 10 hr half-life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

metochlopramide

A

antiemetic; dopamine antagonist; prevents emesis and promotes defecation (prokinetic effect); preferred in chemotherpay induced nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

ondansetron

A

antiemetic; 5-HT3 antagonist (CTZ, STN, and small intestine); oral and parenteral; 4 hr half-life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

palonosetron

A

antiemetic; 5-HT3 antagonist (CTZ, STN, and small intestine) (highest affinity in class); parenteral only; 40 hr half-life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

prochlorperazine

A

antiemetic; phenothiazine dopamine receptor antagonist; target D2 in CTZ and H1; uses: nausea, emesis, morning sickness (H1); adverse: parkinsonian symptoms, dysphoria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

promethazine

A

antiemetic; Antihistamine (h1); used in morning sickness, postop emesis; acts in STN and vestibular apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

scopolamine

A

antiemetic; muscarinic (ACh) antagonist; parenteral or transdermal patch; acts on M receptor in vestibular apparatus; minimal CTZ effect (not effective with chemo-induced nausea; uses: short and long term motion sickness, post op emesis; adverse: xerostomia, blurred vision, may cause uncontrolled behavior when used with anxiety or pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

apomorphine

A

emetic agent; acts on CTZ; subQ; superseded by acrtivated charcoal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

ipecac

A

emetic agent; acts on CTZ; superseded by activated charcoal; oral use shrotly after ingestion of drug or toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

6-mercaptopurine

A

IBD thiopurine therpay; converted to 6-thiioguanine, inhibits DNA synthesis; immunosupressive; maintain remission of IBD and help fistulas in Crohns; adverse: pancreatitis, marrow supression, fever, rash, arthralgia, n/v

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

adalimumab

A

IBD immune modulator; human anti-TNF-a ab; may be less effective than infliximab; parenteral; for crohns and UC; adverse: incr infecctions (URIs), lack of repsonse to Tb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

alosetron

A

IBS tx focues on motility; 5-HT3 antagoinst; decr bowel motility; used for diarrhea predominant in IBS; adverse: constipation -> ischemic colitis; dangerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

azathioprine

A

IBD thiopurine; converted to 6-mercaptopurine -> 6-thioguanine -> inhibit DNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

budesonide

A

IBD glucocorticoid; oral; 200X more portent than hydrocortisone but not well absorbed from bowel -topical tx for bowel; adverse: typical ssteroid effects, well tolerated (only 10% bioavailable and most removed by first pass)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

infliximab

A

IBD immune modulator; anti-TNF-a “humanized” ab; interferes with inflammatory process; parenteral; for crohns and UC; adverse: incr infecctions (URIs), lack of repsonse to Tb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

mesalamine

A

IBD 5-ASA therapy; pH senstive capsule released in ileum, delayed releasse capsule releases in jejunum; uses: IBD flar-ups, maintenance of remission of UC; adverse: interstitial nephritis, headache, dyspepsia, rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

olsalazine

A

IBD 5-ASA therapy; prodrug converted in in colon to mesalamine; uses: IBD flar-ups, maintenance of remission of UC; adverse: diarrhea, headache, dyspepsia, rash; better tolerated than sulfsalazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

prednisone

A

IBD glucocorticoid; oral use for acurte exacerbation and severe disease; target infalmmation and immune response; adverse: typical steroid effect (immunosupression, endocrine disruption, steroid psychoses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

sulfasalazine

A

IBD 5-ASA therapy; prodrug converted in in colon to mesalamine; uses: IBD flar-ups, maintenance of remission of UC; adverse: due to sulfa group - headache, nausea, fatigue, allergic rxn, contraindicated in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

heparin sulfate

A

anticoagulant; measured effect by PTT; binds anti-thrombin III and inactivation IXa, Xa, and IIa; administered as initial bolus followed by continuous infusion; Adverse: bleeding, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (less with LMW); antagonized by protamine sulfate; FFP does not correct heparin effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

warfarin

A

anticoagulant; antagonizes vit K dependant gamma-carboxylation of procoagulants II, VII, IX, X and proteins C and S; blocks regeneration of reduced K; Monitored by INR (PT); antagonized by menadione (vit K); given oral; interacts with basically ALL drugs; adverse: bleeding (exaggerated by NSAID use), clotting with initial therpay withut heparin; teratogenic (not for pregnancy), cause skin necrosis (high dose); FFP can correct warfarin effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

dalteparin

A

LMW heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

enoxaparin

A

LMW heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

fondaparinux

A

ultra-LMW heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

argatroban

A

direct thrombin inhibitor; IV; short acting; hepatically cleared; indication when heparin is needed and there is hx of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

bivalirudin

A

direct thrombin inhibitor; IV; synthetic hirudin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

dabigatran etexilate

A

direct thrombin inhibitor; oral; no antogonist!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

t-PA

A

thrombolytic; activated plasminogen -> plasim -> fibrin degredation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

streptokinase

A

thrombolytic; from B-hemolytic strep; forms complex with plasminogen -> activation; adverse: anaphylaxis and fever; must be given at arge dose to overcome neutralizing abs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

urokinase

A

thrombolytic; isolated from human cells (no neutralizing abs); activates plasminogen; rapidly metabolized (10-15 min half-life)0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

abciximab

A

anti-platelet; Anti-c7E3 ab; binds glycoprotine IIb/IIIa receptor and inhibits fibrinogen bindings platelets and platelet aggreagation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

aspirin

A

anti-platelet; irreversilby inhibits COX for life of platelet -> thromboxane A2 production -> decr platelet aggregation, vasoconstriction; half-life 4hr but effect can last days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

clopidogrel

A

anti-platelet; oral;adverse: thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

ticlopidine

A

anti-platelet; oral; prodrug converted to active metabolite by P450; blocks ADP receptor on platelet; blocks shape change and aggregation; useds: prevent thrombosis and cerebral vascular diseae; adverse: neutropenia in 1% pts

76
Q

tirofiban

A

anti-platelet; small molecule inhibitor on IIb/IIIa on platelets; given continous IV with very short duration of action (reversible)

77
Q

candesartan

A

AT1R antagonist; HTN and heart failure

78
Q

irbesartan

A

AT1R antagonist; HTN and heart failure

79
Q

losartan

A

AT1R antagonist; HTN and heart failure

80
Q

valsartan

A

AT1R antagonist; HTN and heart failure

81
Q

captopril

A

ACE inhibitor; mild-moderate HTN and heart failure

82
Q

enalapril

A

ACE inhibitor; mild-moderate HTN and heart failure

83
Q

lisinopril

A

ACE inhibitor; mild-moderate HTN and heart failure

84
Q

aliskerin

A

non-peptide direct renin inhibitor for essential hypertension; adverse; same associated with ARBs and ACE inhibitors + GI/allergic symptoms; uses: HTN in combo with RAS inhibitors (ACEi or ARBs); adverse: diabetic/renal impairment, hyperkalemia, dry cough, angioedema (rare)

85
Q

conivaptan

A

vasopressin (V1/V2) receptor antagonist; approved for treatment of hyponatremia from SIADH; IV administration in hospitalized pts

86
Q

tolvaptan

A

vasopressin (V2) receptor antagonist; used for tx of hypervolemic and euvolemic hyponatremia resistant to fluid restriction in heart failure, cirrhosis, and SIADH

87
Q

atenolol

A

B1 selective antagonist; nonvasodilating: unopposed alpha effect in periphery; uses: HTN, CHD, angina

88
Q

metoprolol

A

B1 selective antagonist; nonvasodilating: unopposed alpha effect in periphery; uses: HTN, CHD, angina; sustained-release reduces risk of death in heart failure

89
Q

propranolol

A

non-selective B1,2 antagonist; uses: HTN, CHD, angina

90
Q

doxazosin

A

alpha1-receptor antagonist; htn, pheochromocytoma

91
Q

prazosin

A

alpha1-receptor antagonist; htn, pheochromocytoma

92
Q

terazosin

A

alpha1-receptor antagonist; htn, pheochromocytoma

93
Q

carvedilol

A

mixed a/b antagonist; vasodilating beta blocker; used in htn and heart failure; antioxidant and anitproliferative; dont promote DM

94
Q

labetolol

A

mixed a/b antagonist; vasodilating beta blocker; chronic htn and htn emergency; NOT heart failure; dont promote DM

95
Q

reserpine

A

sympatholytic; deplete NE in nerve endings, inhibit reuptake; decrease peripheral resistance and CO; uses: rare: mild-mod HTN; adverse: postural hypotension, sedation, dry mouth, nightmares, mental depression

96
Q

a-methyldopa

A

a2 receptor agonist; central-mediated anti-htn; target a2 in brainstem -> decr sympathetic outflow, incr vagal tone to heart;; uses: mild-mod (drug resistant) HTN; adverse: withdrawal, sedation, xerostamia, nightmares, depression, ortho hypo

97
Q

clonidine

A

a2 receptor agonist; central-mediated anti-htn; target a2 in brainstem -> decr sympathetic outflow, incr vagal tone to heart

98
Q

guanebenz

A

a2 receptor agonist; central-mediated anti-htn; target a2 in brainstem -> decr sympathetic outflow, incr vagal tone to heart

99
Q

fosinopril

A

ACE inhibitor; mild-moderate HTN and heart failure

100
Q

diatezam

A

Ca blocker; cardioselective; class IV anti-arrhythmic; oral/IV use: re-entry SVT involving AV node, slow AV conduction; adverse: bradycardia, hypotension (vascular tone), negative inotrope->avoid in HF, shock

101
Q

verapamil

A

Ca blocker; cardioselective; class IV anti-arrhythmic; oral/IV use: re-entry SVT involving AV node, slow AV conduction; adverse: bradycardia, hypotension (vascular tone), negative inotrope->avoid in HF, shock

102
Q

amlodipine

A

Ca blocker; vasoselective

103
Q

nicardipine

A

Ca blocker; vasoselective

104
Q

nifedipine

A

Ca blocker; vasoselective

105
Q

nimodipine

A

Ca blocker; vasoselective; more lipophilic -> used in cerebral hemorrhage and vasospasm

106
Q

ambrisentan

A

ETA endothelin receptor blocker; uses: pulmonary htn; adverse: edema, headache, inhibit spermatogenesis, resp tract infections, decr hematocrit, hepatic effects

107
Q

bosentan

A

nonselective endothelin receptor blocker; uses: pulmonary htn; adverse: edema, headache, inhibit spermatogenesis, resp tract infections, decr hematocrit, hepatic effects

108
Q

diazoxide

A

vasodilator; IV; activate K channel->hyperpolarize-> relax VSM; uses: htn emergency and maligant htn; adverse: relfex incr tachy, CO, renin, fluid retention, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia

109
Q

epoprostenol

A

prostacyclin analog; direct vasodilator via cAMP, counter thromboxane A2; uses: pulmonary htn, potent antihypertensive with continuous infusion (IV),

110
Q

hydralazine

A

vasodilator; reduce intracellular Ca; preferential effect on arterioles vs arteies and veins; decr peripheral resistance, MAP; Uses: mild-mod HTN; adverse: reflex tachy, incr CO -> angina, ischemia, headache, anorexia, dizzy, sweating, incr renin, immune response -> lupus

111
Q

minoxidil

A

vasodilator; preferentail effect on arterioles vs veins; activate K channel -> hyperpolarize -> relax VSM; uses: mild-mod htn; adverse:reflex tachy, CO, renin, fluid retention (contraindicated in HF), pericardial effusion/tamponade; abnormal hair growth (used for alopecia as rogaine)

112
Q

nitroglycerin

A

direct nitrovasodilator; preferential effect on veins; NO->GC->cGMP->dilation; uses: produce hypotension in surgery and hypertensive emergency, tx for angina; short duration, tolerance; adverse: headache

113
Q

nitroprusside

A

direct nitrovasodilator; generates NO->GC->cGMP->dilate veins and arteries, decr preload and afterload; uses: produce hypotension in surgery and hypertensive emergency; adverse: rapid decr in MAP, cyanide accumulation-> impair renal function

114
Q

chlorothiazide

A

thiazide diuretic; DCT Na/K symporter; uses: htn; adverse: hypokalemia, gout (low uric acid excretion), sulfa allergies

115
Q

chlorthalidone

A

thiazide diuretic; DCT Na/K symporter; uses: htn; adverse: hypokalemia, gout (low uric acid excretion), sulfa allergies

116
Q

hydrochlorothiazide

A

thiazide diuretic; DCT Na/K symporter; uses: htn; adverse: hypokalemia, gout (low uric acid excretion), sulfa allergies

117
Q

bumetanide

A

loop diuretic; TAL Na/K/2Cl symporter; adverse: hypokalemia, gout

118
Q

ethacrynic acid

A

loop diuretic; TAL Na/K/2Cl symporter; ototoxic; adverse: hypokalemia, gout

119
Q

furosemide

A

loop diuretic; TAL Na/K/2Cl symporter; preferred tx for “congestive” heart failure; adverse: hypokalemia, gout

120
Q

amiloride

A

K sparing diuretic; ENaC inhibitor; used in combo with thiazide diuretic; adverse: hyperkalemia

121
Q

eplerenone

A

K sparing diuretic; aldosterone R inhibitor

122
Q

spironolactone

A

K sparing diuretic; aldosterone R inhibitor

123
Q

triamterene

A

K sparing diuretic; ENaC inhibitor

124
Q

acebutolol

A

cardioselective B1-antagonist; CHD, angina

125
Q

atenolol

A

cardioselective B1-antagonist; CHD, ; class II antiarrhythmic; oral/IV use: atrial arrhythmia, slow AV conduction, prevent sudden death post MI

126
Q

esmolol

A

cardioselective B1-antagonist; CHD, angina; class II antiarrhythmic; IV short half-life use: atrial arrhythmia, alsow AV conduction

127
Q

metoprolol

A

cardioselective B1-antagonist; CHD, angina; class II antiarrhythmic oral/IV use: atrial arrhythmia, slow AV conduction, prevent sudden death post MI

128
Q

nadolol

A

nonselective B antagonist; CHD, angina

129
Q

pindolol

A

nonselective partial B agonist; CHD, angina

130
Q

propranolol

A

nonselective B antagonist; CHD, angina; Class II antiarrhythmic; oral/IV use: atrial arrhythmia, slow AV conduction; negative inotrope->avoid in HF, bronchospam-> avoid in asthma

131
Q

timolol

A

nonselective B antagonist

132
Q

avanafil

A

PDE5 inhibitor; erectile dysfunction; onset: 15 min, 5-10 hr half-life

133
Q

tadalafil

A

PDE5 inhibitor; erectile dysfunction; onset: 15-30min, 17 hr half-life; low dose daily use “weekend drug”

134
Q

sildenafil (Viagra)

A

PDE5 inhibitor; erectile dysfunction, primary pulmonary htn; onset: 1 hr, 4 hr half-life

135
Q

vardenafil

A

PDE5 inhibitor; onset: 45 min, 4 hr half-life

136
Q

verapamil

A

Ca channel blocker; cardioselective; uses: CHD, htn, supraventricular arrhythmia; adverse: negative chronotropic/inotropic effects -> can cause heart failure, arrhythmias, heart block, braycardia; avoid use in heart failure

137
Q

diltiazem

A

Ca channel blocker; cardioselective; uses: CHD, htn, supraventricular arrhythmia; adverse: negative chronotropic/inotropic effects -> can cause heart failure, arrhythmias, heart block, braycardia

138
Q

amlodipine

A

Ca channel blocker; vasoselective (dihydropyridine)

139
Q

felodipine

A

Ca channel blocker; vasoselective (dihydropyridine)

140
Q

nicardipine

A

Ca channel blocker; vasoselective (dihydropyridine)

141
Q

nifedipine

A

Ca channel blocker; vasoselective (dihydropyridine); Adverse: can worsen acute MI, gingival hyperplasia

142
Q

nimodipine

A

Ca channel blocker; vasoselective (dihydropyridine; more lipophilic -> used in cerebral hemorrhage and vasospasm

143
Q

isosorbide dinitriate

A

direct nitrovasodilator; venodilator; incr venous capacitance; short acting uses: angina, heart failure (combined with hydralazine - not as effective as ACEI in incr survival);

144
Q

prasugrel

A

thienopyridineanti-platelet therapy for CAD; requires hepatic biotransformation; irreversible ADP antagonist at P2Y receptor; blocks GPIIa/IIIb and platelet aggregation; uses: combo with aspirin in acute coronary syndrome stents, MI, stroke; more bioavailability, 10x higher level of active metabolite, longer duration of action

145
Q

clopidogrel

A

thienopyridineanti-platelet therapy for CAD; requires hepatic biotransformation; irreversible ADP antagonist at P2Y receptor; blocks GPIIa/IIIb and platelet aggregation; uses: combo with aspirin in acute coronary syndrome stents, MI, stroke; adverse: neutropenia, genetic variability in metabolism; 85% inactivated

146
Q

ranolazine

A

partial fatty acid oxidation inhibitor; new class of antianginal; inhibits late Na current to reduce Na ans Ca overlaod in ischemic myocytes; shift ATP production from FA to glycolysis; minimal effects on heart; reserved for refractory chronic angina

147
Q

cholestyramine

A

bile acid sequestrant; bind bile acid and prevent absorption, upregulates LDL receptor in liver; adverse: dyspepsia, constipation, decr absorption of other drugs

148
Q

colestipol

A

bile acid sequestrant; bind bile acid and prevent absorption, upregulates LDL receptor in liver; adverse: dyspepsia, constipation, decr absorption of other drugs

149
Q

atorvastatin

A

HMG CoA R inhibitor

150
Q

fluvastatin

A

HMG CoA R inhibitor; active drug

151
Q

lovastatin

A

HMG CoA R inhibitor; prodrug; adverse: myositis

152
Q

simvastatin

A

HMG CoA R inhibitor; prodrug; upregulation of LDL receptor; decr cholesterol synthesis; Adverse: marked first pass metabolism, hepatotoxic, rhabdomyolysis

153
Q

pravastatin

A

HMG CoA R inhibitor; active drug

154
Q

clofibrate

A

fibric acid; incr activity of lipoprotein lipase ->clears chylomicrons and VLDLs quickly; decr trig > cholesterol; raises HDL; adverse: GI, myositis

155
Q

gemfibrozil

A

fibric acid; incr activity of lipoprotein lipase ->clears chylomicrons and VLDLs quickly; decr trig > cholesterol; raises HDL; adverse: GI, myositis

156
Q

ezetimibe

A

absorbed and glucuronidated -> excreted in bile -> imparis intestinal absorption of cholesterol

157
Q

nicotinic acid

A

water soluble vitamin; inhibits VLDL secretion->decr production of LDL; decr trigs>cholesterol;adverse: decr fibrinogen->bleeding, PG mediated vasodilation (immediate release), glucose intolerance, hyperuricemia, PUD, hepatic dysfunction (sustained release); timed release with aspirin limits effect

158
Q

probucol

A

incr LDL catabolism, block LDL oxidation; modest cholesterol reduction; adverse: prolong QT interval ->arrhythmias, lowers HDL; not on US market

159
Q

rizatriptan

A

5HT1 agonist; acute migraines/cluster headaches

160
Q

sumatriptan

A

5HT1 agonist; acute migraines, cluster headaches; highly effective; decr release of inflammatory vasodilatory peptides; vasocaonstriction through receptors in cranial blood vessels; adverse: few recurrent migraines, coronary spasm, CI in hepatic failure (metabolism route); same for all triptans

161
Q

zolmitriptan

A

5HT1 agonist; more lipophilic than sumatriptan, longer half-life

162
Q

cyproheptadine

A

nonselective serotonin 5-HT1,2 antagonist; for carcinoid tumor; also H1 antagonist; adverse: drowsiness, GI disturbance

163
Q

ketanserin

A

5-HT2 receptor antagonist;lowers MAP in HTN pts; not approved in US; blocks 5-HT2 on VSM, blocks a1 on VSM;

164
Q

ergonovine

A

5HT2 partial agonist/weak antagonist; diagnostic tool in vasospastic angina; control postpartum/postabortal hemorrhage (vasoconstriction); adverse: vasospasm, GI disturbance

165
Q

ergotamine

A

partial 5HT1/2 agonist; VSM constrictor; effect for migraines through 5HT1 effects

166
Q

methysergide

A

5TH2 antagonist/5HT1 partial agonist; tx for carcinoid tumor; adverse: CNS disturbance, hallucinations

167
Q

quinopril

A

ACE inhibitor; approved for heart failure

168
Q

digoxin

A

cardiac glycoside; inhibits Na/K ATPase -> increased intracellular Ca-> positive inotropic effect-> reflex decr SNS activity-> incr renal perfusion; sensitize cariac baroreceptors, incr vagal tone -> decr SNS; inhibit NA/K in kindey->incr Na excretion-> decr renin production; heart failure, arrhythmias- slows ventricular response in a fib/flutter; adverse: arrhythmias, heartblock; used at dose below cardiac effect, does not incr survival in HF patients

169
Q

digitoxin

A

cardiac glycoside

170
Q

dobutamine

A

beta agonist of choice for systolic dysfunction and congestion; does not activate dopamine receptors; inotropic effect predominates, little chronotropic effect

171
Q

dopamine

A

beta agonist (alpha at high dose); positive inotropic/chronotropic effect; short term use in decompensated HF; adverse: tachycardia can cause ischemia in CAD, dopamine receptor activation

172
Q

inamrinone

A

cAMP PDE inhibitor; short term support of circulation in advanced HF; incr intracellular Ca; balanced venous/arterial dilation; incr CO, decr afterload

173
Q

milrinone

A

cAMP PDE inhibitor; short term support of circulation in advanced HF; more favorable side effect profile; selective for PDE3; best PDE for short term pareneral inotropic support

174
Q

disopyramide

A

Class 1A Na channel blocker; oral; uses: ventr arrhyth, recurrent atrial arrhyth; adverse: anti-muscarinic, negative inotrope-> avoid in heart failure

175
Q

procainamide

A

Class 1A Na channel blocker; oral/IV; uses: ventricular arrhyth, recurrent atrial arrhyth; adverse: lupus effects, nausea

176
Q

lidocaine

A

Class 1B Na channel blocker; IV; acute vent arrhyth; adverse: CNS toxicity, active metabolite cleared by kidney-> avoid in renal failure

177
Q

mexiletine

A

Class 1B Na channel blocker; oral; use: when lidocaine works acutely, use for chronic vent arrhyth; adverse: CNS toxicity

178
Q

flecainide

A

Class 1C Na channel blocker; oral; use: recurrent atrial arrhth; adverse: arrhythmogenic, avoid with structual heart disease or post MI (A fib in otherwise nl heart)

179
Q

propafenone

A

Class 1C Na channel blocker; oral; use: recurrent atrial arrhth; adverse: arrhythmogenic, avoid with structual heart disease or post MI (A fib in otherwise nl heart)

180
Q

amiodarone

A

Class III K channel blocker; oral/IV use: atrial/vent arrhyth; less arrhythmogenic in pts with HF or post MI; adverse: accumulate in tissue, causing dose related pulmonary, liver, thyroid, eye, skin toxicity; regular monitoring; bradycardia B-blocking effects

181
Q

dofetilide

A

Class III K channel blocker; oral use: atrial arrhythmia; adverse: prolonged QT-> torsade de pointe; should be started in hospital

182
Q

ibutilide

A

Class III K channel blocker; IV use: acute conversion of atrial fib/flutter; adverse: prolonged QT-> torsade de pointe; should be started in hospital

183
Q

sotalol

A

Class III K channel blocker; oral use: atrial/vent arrhythmia; adverse: prolonged QT-> torsade de pointe - should be started in hospital; bradycardia B-blocking effect

184
Q

adenosine

A

acitvates K channels and inhibits Ca channels (Gi-> decr intracelluluar Ca; IV short half-life use: SVT, a fib/flutter; aids in diagnosis (blocks AV node for ~10 sec); adverse: brief asystole, heart block

185
Q

glycerin

A

irritant laxative; suppository acts as hydroscopic agent and lubricant; increases water retention and stimulates peristalsis and evacuation reflex

186
Q

bisoprolol

A

selective B1 antagonist; reduces risk of death in heart failure

187
Q

quinidine

A

Class 1A Na channel blocker; oral/IV; uses: vent arrhth, recurrent atrial arrhth; adverse: diarrhea, anit-muscarinic

M2 Fall (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions