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NUR 508 > Pharmacology Test 3 > Flashcards

Pharmacology Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Anticholinergic prototype

A

Atropine

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2
Q

Cholinergic prototype

A

Physostigmine

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3
Q

Dilated pupils, flushed face, slight fever (due to dehydration), dried bronchial secretions, confusion, memory loss, tachycardia, bronchorelaxation, decreased bowel sounds, contracted urethral sphincter and relaxed detrussor muscle

A

Anticholinergic effects

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4
Q

constricted pupils, no flushed face, fever, confusion or memory loss, decreased heart rate, bronchoconstriction, increased bronchial secretions, increased peristalsis, relaxed urethral sphincter and contracted detrussor muscle

A

Cholinergic effects

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5
Q

cholinergic neurotransmitter

A

acetylcholine

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6
Q

receptors activated by acetylcholine

A

muscarinic and nicotinic receptors

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7
Q

adrenoceptors refer to…?

A

sympathetic nervous system

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8
Q

cholinoceptors refer to…?

A

parasympathetic or cholinergic nervous system

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9
Q

constriction of pupil

A

miosis- cholinergic response

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10
Q

dilation of pupil

A

mydriasis- anticholinergic response

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11
Q

In dealing with accommodation, atropine (an anticholinergic) causes…?

A

blurred near vision and clear far vision

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12
Q

In dealing with accommodation, physostigmine (a cholinergic) causes…?

A

clear near vision and blurred far vision

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13
Q

when taking a history, note visual changes in what diagnosis?

A

glaucoma

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14
Q

alpha-1 adrenergic receptor agonist responsible for increasing BP and decreasing aqueous production is…?

A

epinephrine

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15
Q

alpha-2 adrenergic receptor agonist responsible for inhibiting release of nor-epi yielding decrease in pressure and a reduction in the production of aqueous humor is…?

A

clonidine

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16
Q

Beta-1 adrenergic receptor agonist responsible for increased heart rate, increased myocardial contractility, increased aqueous production AND may increase aqueous outflow is…?

A

epinephrine

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17
Q

Beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonist responsible for increased bronchorelaxation is…?

A

epinephrine

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18
Q

This adrenergic receptor antagonist decreases blood pressure…?

A

alpha-1 antagonist

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19
Q

this adrenergic receptor antagonist decreases heart rate, decreases myocardial contractility, reduces production of aqueous humor in ciliary body and increases IOP …?

A

beta-1 antagonist

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20
Q

this adrenergic receptor antagonist increases BP…?

A

alpha-2 antagonist

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21
Q

this adrenergic receptor antagonist decreases bronchial relaxation

A

beta-2 antagonist

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22
Q

when using beta adrenergic antagonist for POAG, do not prescribe for these patients…?

A

sinus bradycardia, sinus pauses, second or third degree AV block, overt CHF, or cardiogenic shock

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23
Q

in treating POAG, do not prescribe these drugs to patients…?

A

anticholinergics such as antihistamines or TCAs, or atropine

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24
Q

antibiotics- topical and/or systemic
topical anti-inflammatory agents- corticosteroid, cyclosporine

this drug regimen is used to treat…?

A

blepharitis

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25
Q

inflammation of lash follicles at eyelid margin is…?

A

blepharitis

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26
Q

doxycycline 100mg po BID x 10 days or azithromax 1 Gm x one is used to treat…?

A

chlamydial conjunctivitis (trichoma)

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27
Q

erythromycin 0.5%, zithromax 1%, or polymyxin B/TMP 10,000 units/mg is used to treat…?

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

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28
Q

major complication of ocular corticosteroid therapy is…?

A

infection

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29
Q

alpha-1 antagonist used to treat BPH…?

A

flomax (tamsulosin)

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30
Q

anticholinergic, antispasmodic used to treat incontinence/OAB…?

A

oxybutynin (ditropan)

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31
Q

sedating antihistamines are used to treat parkinson’s disease by __________acetylcholine levels and ______ dopamine levels

A

decreasing, increasing

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32
Q

vomiting, coma, abdominal pain, diarrhea, miosis, salivation, fasciculations, sweating, hypothermia, and tachycardia (in children) are symptoms of…?

A

organophosphate poisoning

33
Q

antidote for organophosphate poisoning

A

pralidoxime

34
Q

sedating antihistamines

A

cross BBB

35
Q

non-sedating antihistamines

A

do not cross BBB

36
Q

QT interval drugs are at risk of causing…?

A

torsades de pointes

37
Q

use QT interval drugs cautiously in these patients

A

elderly, cardiac patients, bradycardic, or patients at risk of hypokalemia or hypomagnesemia

38
Q

before using QT interval drugs, be careful not to co-administer with what type of drug?

A

P450 inhibitors

39
Q

Cimetidine (H-2 antagonist) is not safest choice of drug because…?

A

it is a P450 inhibitor

40
Q

this H-2 antagonist crosses the BBB causing confusion

A

cimetidine

41
Q

taking this drug leads to increased levels of circulating acetylcholine by binding to nicotinic receptors.

A

chantix

42
Q

chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways

A

asthma

43
Q

this IgE mediated response is strongest identifiable predisposing factor for developing asthma

A

atopy- atopic eczema

44
Q

short burst dosing with corticosteroid prednisone, low dose ICS, and SABA are used to treat…?

A

mild persistent asthma

45
Q

short burst corticoid dosing, low/med dose ICS with LABA, and SABA are used to treat…?

A

moderate persistent asthma

46
Q

short burst corticosteroid dosing, med/high dose ICS with LABA, possible immunomodulator (omalizumab- Xolair) or possible leukotriene modulator (montelukast, zileuton) is used to treat…?

A

severe persistent asthma

47
Q

atrovent, albuterol, proventil…

A

quick relief medications (SABAs) used to treat asthma

48
Q

COPD consists of ________ & __________?

A

emphysema & chronic bronchitis

49
Q

bronchodilators, O2 therapy, beta-agonist nebs are used to treat…?

A

COPD in the prehospital setting

50
Q

O2 therapy, bronchodilators, beta-agonist, abx, Mg, steroids, anticholinergic agent, and possibly theophylline are used to treat…?

A

COPD in the hospital setting

51
Q

first line abx used to treat bronchitis

A

amoxicillin or bactrim

52
Q

second line abx used to treat bronchitis

A

azithromax or fluoroquinolones

53
Q

Normal BP classification

A

120 or less AND 80 or less

54
Q

prehypertension BP classification

A

120-139 OR 80-89

55
Q

stage 1 HTN BP classification

A

140-159 OR 90-99

56
Q

stage 2 HTN BP classification

A

160 or higher OR 100 or higher

57
Q

BP treatment goals for non-diabetics

A

less than 140/90

58
Q

BP treatment goals for diabetics

A

less than 130/80

59
Q

without compelling indications: initial drug of choice for stage one HTN

A

thiazide for most- may consider ACEI, ARB, BB, or CCB if intolerant of thiazide

60
Q

without compelling indications, initial drug of choice for stage 2 HTN

A

two drug combo for most; usually thiazide+ ACEI, ARB, BB, or CCB

61
Q

initial drugs of choice for HTN + HF

A

thiazide, BB, ACEI, ARB, ALDO antagonist

62
Q

initial drugs of choice for HTN + Post MI

A

BB, ACEI, ALDO antagonist

63
Q

initial drugs of choice for HTN + high CVD risk

A

thiazide, BB, ACEI, CCB

64
Q

initial drugs of choice for HTN + DM

A

thiazide, BB, ACEI, ARB, CCB

65
Q

initial drugs of choice for HTN + CKD

A

ACEI, ARB

66
Q

initial drugs of choice for HTN + recurrent stroke prevention

A

thiazide, ACEI

67
Q

first DOC in HTN + DM with proteinuria and CHF with diastolic dysfunction

A

ACEIs

68
Q

drug NOT used to treat CHF

A

CCBs

69
Q

drug class not used to treat HTN, used to treat BPH by relaxing urinary sphincter

A

alpha 1 antagonists

70
Q

drug associated with rebound HTN

A

clonidine

71
Q

only time digoxin is used to treat CHF

A

stage 3

72
Q

optimal LDL cholesterol levels

A

<100 mg/dl

73
Q

optimal HDL cholesterol levels

A

> 40 mg/dl

74
Q

central obesity, insulin resistance, glucose intolerance, HTN, and dyslipidemia comprise

A

metabolic syndrome (need 3 from list)

75
Q

ASA, nitrates, BB

A

three drug regimen for angina

76
Q

ASA, nitrates, BB, CCB

A

four drug regimen for angina

77
Q

non-dihydropyridines

A

diltiazem, verapamil

78
Q

in children, target organ damage from HTN

A

LVH, cognitive defects

79
Q

drugs of choice to treat HTN in pediatrics

A

ACEI, ARB

NUR 508 (2 decks)

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