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NUR 508 > Pharmacology Test 3 > Flashcards

Pharmacology Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Anticholinergic prototype

A

Atropine

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2
Q

Cholinergic prototype

A

Physostigmine

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3
Q

Dilated pupils, flushed face, slight fever (due to dehydration), dried bronchial secretions, confusion, memory loss, tachycardia, bronchorelaxation, decreased bowel sounds, contracted urethral sphincter and relaxed detrussor muscle

A

Anticholinergic effects

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4
Q

constricted pupils, no flushed face, fever, confusion or memory loss, decreased heart rate, bronchoconstriction, increased bronchial secretions, increased peristalsis, relaxed urethral sphincter and contracted detrussor muscle

A

Cholinergic effects

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5
Q

cholinergic neurotransmitter

A

acetylcholine

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6
Q

receptors activated by acetylcholine

A

muscarinic and nicotinic receptors

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7
Q

adrenoceptors refer to…?

A

sympathetic nervous system

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8
Q

cholinoceptors refer to…?

A

parasympathetic or cholinergic nervous system

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9
Q

constriction of pupil

A

miosis- cholinergic response

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10
Q

dilation of pupil

A

mydriasis- anticholinergic response

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11
Q

In dealing with accommodation, atropine (an anticholinergic) causes…?

A

blurred near vision and clear far vision

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12
Q

In dealing with accommodation, physostigmine (a cholinergic) causes…?

A

clear near vision and blurred far vision

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13
Q

when taking a history, note visual changes in what diagnosis?

A

glaucoma

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14
Q

alpha-1 adrenergic receptor agonist responsible for increasing BP and decreasing aqueous production is…?

A

epinephrine

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15
Q

alpha-2 adrenergic receptor agonist responsible for inhibiting release of nor-epi yielding decrease in pressure and a reduction in the production of aqueous humor is…?

A

clonidine

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16
Q

Beta-1 adrenergic receptor agonist responsible for increased heart rate, increased myocardial contractility, increased aqueous production AND may increase aqueous outflow is…?

A

epinephrine

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17
Q

Beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonist responsible for increased bronchorelaxation is…?

A

epinephrine

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18
Q

This adrenergic receptor antagonist decreases blood pressure…?

A

alpha-1 antagonist

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19
Q

this adrenergic receptor antagonist decreases heart rate, decreases myocardial contractility, reduces production of aqueous humor in ciliary body and increases IOP …?

A

beta-1 antagonist

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20
Q

this adrenergic receptor antagonist increases BP…?

A

alpha-2 antagonist

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21
Q

this adrenergic receptor antagonist decreases bronchial relaxation

A

beta-2 antagonist

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22
Q

when using beta adrenergic antagonist for POAG, do not prescribe for these patients…?

A

sinus bradycardia, sinus pauses, second or third degree AV block, overt CHF, or cardiogenic shock

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23
Q

in treating POAG, do not prescribe these drugs to patients…?

A

anticholinergics such as antihistamines or TCAs, or atropine

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24
Q

antibiotics- topical and/or systemic
topical anti-inflammatory agents- corticosteroid, cyclosporine

this drug regimen is used to treat…?

A

blepharitis

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25
inflammation of lash follicles at eyelid margin is...?
blepharitis
26
doxycycline 100mg po BID x 10 days or azithromax 1 Gm x one is used to treat...?
chlamydial conjunctivitis (trichoma)
27
erythromycin 0.5%, zithromax 1%, or polymyxin B/TMP 10,000 units/mg is used to treat...?
bacterial conjunctivitis
28
major complication of ocular corticosteroid therapy is...?
infection
29
alpha-1 antagonist used to treat BPH...?
flomax (tamsulosin)
30
anticholinergic, antispasmodic used to treat incontinence/OAB...?
oxybutynin (ditropan)
31
sedating antihistamines are used to treat parkinson's disease by __________acetylcholine levels and ______ dopamine levels
decreasing, increasing
32
vomiting, coma, abdominal pain, diarrhea, miosis, salivation, fasciculations, sweating, hypothermia, and tachycardia (in children) are symptoms of...?
organophosphate poisoning
33
antidote for organophosphate poisoning
pralidoxime
34
sedating antihistamines
cross BBB
35
non-sedating antihistamines
do not cross BBB
36
QT interval drugs are at risk of causing...?
torsades de pointes
37
use QT interval drugs cautiously in these patients
elderly, cardiac patients, bradycardic, or patients at risk of hypokalemia or hypomagnesemia
38
before using QT interval drugs, be careful not to co-administer with what type of drug?
P450 inhibitors
39
Cimetidine (H-2 antagonist) is not safest choice of drug because...?
it is a P450 inhibitor
40
this H-2 antagonist crosses the BBB causing confusion
cimetidine
41
taking this drug leads to increased levels of circulating acetylcholine by binding to nicotinic receptors.
chantix
42
chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways
asthma
43
this IgE mediated response is strongest identifiable predisposing factor for developing asthma
atopy- atopic eczema
44
short burst dosing with corticosteroid prednisone, low dose ICS, and SABA are used to treat...?
mild persistent asthma
45
short burst corticoid dosing, low/med dose ICS with LABA, and SABA are used to treat...?
moderate persistent asthma
46
short burst corticosteroid dosing, med/high dose ICS with LABA, possible immunomodulator (omalizumab- Xolair) or possible leukotriene modulator (montelukast, zileuton) is used to treat...?
severe persistent asthma
47
atrovent, albuterol, proventil...
quick relief medications (SABAs) used to treat asthma
48
COPD consists of ________ & __________?
emphysema & chronic bronchitis
49
bronchodilators, O2 therapy, beta-agonist nebs are used to treat...?
COPD in the prehospital setting
50
O2 therapy, bronchodilators, beta-agonist, abx, Mg, steroids, anticholinergic agent, and possibly theophylline are used to treat...?
COPD in the hospital setting
51
first line abx used to treat bronchitis
amoxicillin or bactrim
52
second line abx used to treat bronchitis
azithromax or fluoroquinolones
53
Normal BP classification
120 or less AND 80 or less
54
prehypertension BP classification
120-139 OR 80-89
55
stage 1 HTN BP classification
140-159 OR 90-99
56
stage 2 HTN BP classification
160 or higher OR 100 or higher
57
BP treatment goals for non-diabetics
less than 140/90
58
BP treatment goals for diabetics
less than 130/80
59
without compelling indications: initial drug of choice for stage one HTN
thiazide for most- may consider ACEI, ARB, BB, or CCB if intolerant of thiazide
60
without compelling indications, initial drug of choice for stage 2 HTN
two drug combo for most; usually thiazide+ ACEI, ARB, BB, or CCB
61
initial drugs of choice for HTN + HF
thiazide, BB, ACEI, ARB, ALDO antagonist
62
initial drugs of choice for HTN + Post MI
BB, ACEI, ALDO antagonist
63
initial drugs of choice for HTN + high CVD risk
thiazide, BB, ACEI, CCB
64
initial drugs of choice for HTN + DM
thiazide, BB, ACEI, ARB, CCB
65
initial drugs of choice for HTN + CKD
ACEI, ARB
66
initial drugs of choice for HTN + recurrent stroke prevention
thiazide, ACEI
67
first DOC in HTN + DM with proteinuria and CHF with diastolic dysfunction
ACEIs
68
drug NOT used to treat CHF
CCBs
69
drug class not used to treat HTN, used to treat BPH by relaxing urinary sphincter
alpha 1 antagonists
70
drug associated with rebound HTN
clonidine
71
only time digoxin is used to treat CHF
stage 3
72
optimal LDL cholesterol levels
<100 mg/dl
73
optimal HDL cholesterol levels
>40 mg/dl
74
central obesity, insulin resistance, glucose intolerance, HTN, and dyslipidemia comprise
metabolic syndrome (need 3 from list)
75
ASA, nitrates, BB
three drug regimen for angina
76
ASA, nitrates, BB, CCB
four drug regimen for angina
77
non-dihydropyridines
diltiazem, verapamil
78
in children, target organ damage from HTN
LVH, cognitive defects
79
drugs of choice to treat HTN in pediatrics
ACEI, ARB

NUR 508 (2 decks)

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