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Clinical sciences > Pharmacology/Perio > Flashcards

Pharmacology/Perio Flashcards

1
Q

What is the initiating factor of periodontal disease?

A
  • microbial plaque
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2
Q

Pathogenesis of perio

A
  • plaque presents microbial challenge
  • upregulate host immune response
  • tissue destruction
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3
Q

Plaque-induced gingival disease
- systemic factors

A
  • endocrine changes (puberty, pregnancy, diabetes)
  • blood dyscrasias (leukemia)
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4
Q

Plaque-induced gingival diseases
- medications

A
  • DIGE with CCBs, dilantin and cyclosporine
  • oral contraceptives
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5
Q

Plaque-induced gingival diseases
- modified by malnutrition

A
  • vitamin C deficiency (scurvy)
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6
Q

Aspirin anaglesic mechanism

A
  • inhibit COX 1 and 2 (Prostaglandin synthesis)
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7
Q

Aspirin antipyretic mechanism

A
  • inhibit PG synthesis in hypothalamus
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8
Q

Aspirin affecting bleeding time mechanism

A
  • inhibit TXA2 synthesis which inhibits platelet aggregation
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9
Q

Therapeutic effects of steroids (analgesic)

A
  • inhibit phospholipase A2 (AA synthesis)
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10
Q

What is the “rule of 2s” in regards to corticosteroids?

A
  • 20 mg cortisone (daily) or its equivalent
  • 2 consecutive weeks
  • Within 2 years
  • could experience adrenal suppression
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11
Q

Narcotic/opiod mechanism of action

A
  • mu-opioid receptor agonist
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12
Q

Therapeutic & side effects of morphine

A

Miosis
Out of it
Respiratory Depression
Pneumonia
Hypotension
Infrequency
Nausea and vomiting
Euphoria and dysphoria

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13
Q

What is first order kinetics?

A
  • constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit of time
  • most common
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14
Q

What is zero order kinetics?

A
  • constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit of time
  • less common
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15
Q

what is induction?

A
  • Drug #1 induces liver cytochrome enzymes resulting in an increased metabolism and reduced effect of drug #2
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16
Q

What is inhibition?

A
  • Drug #1 competes for metabolism or directly inhibits liver cytochrome enzymes resulting in decreased metabolism and increased toxicity of drug #2
17
Q

What is the therapeutic index?

A

TD50/ED50
-The higher the number, the safer the drug

18
Q

2 classifications of receptors in the ANS and their mode of action

A
  • ionotropic = ion channel
  • metabotropic = G-protein coupled receptor
19
Q

2 types of receptors in the ANS and what binds to them

A
  • Cholinergic = binds acetylcholine
  • Adrenergic = binds Epi/NE
20
Q

What are the 2 forms of Cholinergic receptors?

A
  • Nicotinic = binds nicotine; ionotropic
  • muscarinic = binds muscarine; metabotropic
21
Q

What type of receptors are all preganglionic nerves reaching?

A
  • Nicotinic = ionotropic
22
Q

In the PNS, what type of receptor is the post-ganglionic receptor?

A
  • muscarinic = metabotropic
23
Q

What type of receptor are the post-ganglionic nerves reaching in the SNS?

A
  • adrenergic = metabotropic
24
Q

What does the M2 muscarinic receptor do?

A
  • Causes bradycardia
25
Q

What does the M3 muscarinic receptor do?

A

SLUDS
- salivation
- lachrymation (tears)
- urination
- defecation
- sweating

BAM
- bronchoconstriction
- abdominal cramps (digestion)
- miosis

26
Q

Common M agonists (non selective, all M receptors affected)

A
  • pilocarpine (direct)
  • organophosphate (indirect) - inhibits cholinesterase, treated with Pralidoxime
27
Q

Common M antagonist (antimuscarinics)

A
  • Atropine, reduces saliva
28
Q

What are the types of Adrenergic receptors?

A
  • Alpha1- smooth muscle
  • Alpha2 - smooth muscle
  • Beta1 - heart
  • Beta2 - smooth muscle
29
Q

Function of Alpha1 receptor?

A
  • vasoconstriction
  • urinary retention
  • pupil dilation (mydriasis)
30
Q

Function of Alpha2 receptor?

A
  • vasoconstriction
31
Q

Function of Beta1 receptor?

A
  • tachycardia
  • renin release from kidney
32
Q

Function of Beta2 receptor?

A
  • bronchodilation
  • vasodilation
  • stops peristalsis
33
Q

What is a common complication with thiazide diuretics?

A
  • hypokalemia (low potassium)
34
Q

What is a common complication with K+ sparing diuretics?

A
  • hyperkalemia
35
Q

What is a common oral complication of Ca+ channel blockers?

A
  • Drug induced gingival hyperplasia
36
Q

Describe Renin, Angiotensinogen, Aldosterone system

A

Kidney in response to LOW BP
- Renin is released
- Angiotensinogen –> Angiotensin 1
- ACE converts Angiotensin 1 –> 2
- Angiotensin 2 = Causes vasoconstriction which raises the BP
- Angiotensin 2 also causes the release of aldosterone = Na resorption

37
Q

Characteristics of Parkinson’s disease

A
  • dopamine deficiency in the brain
  • Treated with Levodopa and Carbidopa
38
Q
A

Clinical sciences (4 decks)

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