Pharmacology NSC 2500 Flashcards
1
Q
Isoproterenol is a drug that produces maximal contraction of cardiac muscle in a manner similar to adrenaline. Which of the following best describes isoproterenol?
Select one:
a.
Non-competitive antagonist
b.
Partial agonist
c.
Competitive antagonist
d.
Full agonist
A
d.
Full agonist
2
Q
An agonist is a substance that:
Select one:
a.
Interacts with the receptor without activating it to produce an effect
b.
Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
c.
Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects
d.
Increases the concentration of another substance to produce an effect
A
interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects
3
Q
The principles of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion describe what?
Select one:
a.
The biochemical, physiologic, and molecular effects of drugs on the body
b.
Pharmacodynamics
c.
The dynamic interaction of a drug with its biological target
d.
The basic processes of the body that determine the duration and intensity of a drug’s effect
A
The basic processes of the body that determine the duration and intensity of a drug’s effect
4
Q
Pharmacokinetics is:
Select one:
a.
The study of mechanisms of drug action
b.
The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
c.
The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
d.
The study of methods of new drug development
A
The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
5
Q
An antagonist has the following pharmacological property:
Select one:
a.
efficacy
b.
high blood protein binding
c.
potency
d.
affinity
A
affinity
6
Q
Pharmacokinetics is:
Select one:
a.
The branch of medicine concerned with the uses, effects, and modes of action of drugs
b.
The study of the basic processes of the body that determine the duration and intensity of a drug’s effect
c.
The study of a drugs interaction with its receptor to elicit an effect
d.
The profession that is associated with the provision of pharmaceuticals
A
The study of the basic processes of the body that determine the duration and intensity of a drug’s effect
7
Q
Potency refers to:
Select one:
a.
A drug’s ability to produce adverse reactions
b.
A drug’s tendency to produce toxic effects
c.
The narrowness of a drug’s range of actions
d.
The amount of drug required to produce an effect
A
The amount of drug required to produce an effect
8
Q
What does the term half-life mean?
Select one:
a.
The average length of time it takes for the drug to exert 50% of the desired biological effect
b.
The amount of time it takes for the drugs concentration in the circulation to be reduced by half
c.
Half of the amount of time it takes for the drugs concentration to reach a therapeutic level
d.
The amount of time it takes for the body to absorb and distribute half of the administered drug
A
The amount of time it takes for the drugs concentration in the circulation to be reduced by half
9
Q
‘Phantom limb’ pain is classified as:
Select one:
a.
Somatic nociceptive
b.
Central neuropathic
c.
Visceral nociceptive
d.
Peripheral neuropathic
A
Peripheral neuropathic
10
Q
Some groups of people develop a severe condition caused by the body’s response to a bacterial infection. This is known as:
Select one:
a.
Mantoux
b.
Tetanus
c.
Meningitis
d.
Sepsis
A
Sepsis
11
Q
Why is a fast acting drug, as can be achieved by IV administration, desirable for the induction of general anaesthesia?
Select one:
a.
To avoid stage 3 of anaesthesia
b.
Rapid progression from stage 1 to stage 3 anaesthesia
c.
Rapid progression from stage 1 to stage 4 anaesthesia
d.
To avoid stage 1 of anaesthesia
A
Rapid progression from stage 1 to stage 3 anaesthesia
12
Q
A drug could be classified as an antipyretic if it reduces:
Select one:
a.
pain
b.
oedema
c.
inflammation
d.
fever
A
fever
13
Q
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Select one:
a.
Bacteria found in the human body always cause disease
b.
All bacteria are pathogenic
c.
Bacteria found in the human body may sometimes cause disease
d.
All bacteria are beneficial to man
A
Bacteria found in the human body always cause disease
14
Q
The most correct term to describe an infectious disease that progresses slowly and persists for long periods, with continuous shedding of the pathogen is:
Select one:
a.
Chronic
b.
Acute
c.
Fulminating
d.
Latent
A
Chronic
15
Q
Which of the statements below is correct in describing Herd immunity?
Select one:
a.
could also be called “community immunity”
b.
unvaccinated individuals are indirectly protected by vaccinated individuals
c.
All of these choices are correct
d.
the more people immune to a disease the less likely it is to spread
A
All of these choices are correct
16
Q
Beta-lactams are an important class of antibiotic, which includes the penicillins. These antimicrobial agents work by:
Select one:
a.
inhibiting bacterial nucleic acid synthesis
b.
targeting bacterial ribosomes to prevent protein synthesis
c.
binding to bacterial RNA polymerase to stop the production of mRNA
d.
disrupting synthesis of the bacterial cell wall
A
disrupting synthesis of the bacterial cell wall
17
Q
Female hormonal contraception exists in multiple forms, but the main active hormone is present in all of them. Which hormone is this?
Select one:
a.
Oestrogen
b.
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
c. Luteinising hormone (LH)
d.
Progesterone
A
Progesterone
18
Q
A person with hyperglycaemia will present with:
Select one:
a.
Polydipsia, polycythaemia and polyarteritis
b.
Polyadenitis, polyuria and polydipsia
c.
Polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia
d.
Polycythaemia, polyuria and polyphagia
A
Polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia
19
Q
The thyroid gland produces the thyroid hormones T3 and T4, which are dependent on the availability of:
Select one:
a.
iron absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
b.
iodine produced in the liver
c.
parathyroid hormone to promote iodine binding
d.
iodine found in the diet
A
iodine found in the diet
20
Q
The pharmacological actions of theophylline in the treatment of COPD include:
Select one:
a.
Increase contractility of respiratory muscles
b.
Bronchodilation
c.
Increase mucociliary activity
d.
All of these statements are correct
A
Bronchodilation
21
Q
Treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension can include which treatment/s?
Select one:
a.
Anticoagulation
b.
Diuretics
c.
Vaccination
d.
All of these options are correct
A
All of these options are correct
22
Q
Which of the following is an obstructive lung condition?
Select one:
a.
Sarcoidosis
b.
Bronchiectasis
c.
Rheumatoid arthritis
d.
Atelectasis
A
Bronchiectasis
23
Q
All of the following groups of drugs are for thrombosis treatment EXCEPT:
Select one:
a.
Fibrinolitic drugs
b.
Anticoagulant drugs
c.
Antiplatelet drugs
d.
Antifibrinolytic drugs
A
Antifibrinolytic drugs
24
Q
The main cause of high blood pressure is:
Select one:
a.
Stress
b.
Obesity
c.
Aging
d.
Unknown
A
Unknown
25
There are two basic types of systemic hypertension, primary (essential) hypertension and secondary hypertension. The vast majority of patients with hypertension (90-95%) have:
Select one:
a.
secondary hypertension
b.
both primary and secondary hypertension
c.
primary hypertension
d.
idiopathic secondary hypertension
primary hypertension
26
Increased serum levels of which of the following may be associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis?
Select one:
a.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
b.
High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
c.
Cholesterol
d.
Triglycerides
High-density lipoproteins (HDL)
27
Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is:
Select one:
a.
A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids and low protein, which has a very low density and carries most triglycerides from the liver to the tissues
b.
A large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to the liver and adipose tissue where they are broken down
c.
A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease
d.
A lipoprotein that contains relatively small amounts of cholesterol and triglycerides and is associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease
A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease
28
The most important goal of drug therapy in the course of acute myocardial infarction is to:
Select one:
a.
inhibit cardiac effects of angiotensin II and cardiac remodelling
b.
control heart rhythm and suppress arrhythmias
c.
improve the oxygen supply/demand ratio for the heart
d.
manage pain and associated anxiety to alleviate sympathetic activity
improve the oxygen supply/demand ratio for the heart
29
How do β-blockers improve cardiac function in heart failure?
Select one:
a.
By decreasing cardiac remodeling
b.
By activating noradrenaline
c.
By increasing renin release
d.
By increasing heart rate
By decreasing cardiac remodeling
30
Stage-1 hypertension is defined by systolic and/or diastolic blood pressure value of:
Select one:
a.
<120 mmHg systolic and <80 mmHg diastolic
b.
120-129 mmHg systolic and <80 mmHg diastolic
c.
130-139 mmHg systolic or 80-89 mmHg diastolic
d.
>139 mmHg systolic or >89 mmHg diastolic
130-139 mmHg systolic or 80-89 mmHg diastolic
31
Stage-1 hypertension is defined by systolic and/or diastolic blood pressure value of:
Select one:
a.
<120 mmHg systolic and <80 mmHg diastolic
b.
120-129 mmHg systolic and <80 mmHg diastolic
c.
130-139 mmHg systolic or 80-89 mmHg diastolic
d.
>139 mmHg systolic or >89 mmHg diastolic
130-139 mmHg systolic or 80-89 mmHg diastolic
32
Which of the below is the correct pairing?
Select one:
a.
Chronic Pain: maximum intensity of pain that can be tolerated
b.
Acute pain: persisting beyond expected duration of tissue healing
c.
Neck Pain: is the most common type of pain
d.
Pain threshold: minimum intensity when stimulus is perceived as painful
Pain threshold: minimum intensity when stimulus is perceived as painful
33
The main causative agent of bacterial pharyngitis which is also known as ‘Strep throat’ is:
Select one:
a.
S. epidermidis
b.
S. pyogenes
c.
S. aureus
d.
S. marcescans
S. pyogenes
34
Bordetella pertussis is the infective agent of what disease?
Select one:
a.
Whooping cough
b.
Atypical pneumonia
c.
Tuberculosis
d.
Tetanus
Whooping cough
35
Positive feedforward loops are:
Select one:
a.
Homeostatic
b.
Maintained at an equilibrium
c.
Independent of outside influences
d.
Not homeostatic
Not homeostatic
36
Which of the below is NOT an oral hypoglycaemic medication?
Select one:
a.
Methylxanthines
b.
Biguanides
c.
Sulfonylureas
d.
Thiazolidinediones
Methylxanthines
37
The oral glucose tolerance test typically:
Select one:
a.
Shows a low serum concentration of glucose in someone with diabetes
b.
Involves an overnight fasting followed by an oral glucose load
c.
Measures how the body deals with glucose deprivation
d.
Directly measures the production of glucagon from a glucose load
Involves an overnight fasting followed by an oral glucose load
38
Describe how an action potential is transmitted across a cholinergic synapse within a ganglion of the parasympathetic system. In your answer you should note the main neurotransmitter involved, its receptor, and the enzyme responsible for breaking down and clearing the neurotransmitter from the synapse.
https://www.mytutor.co.uk/answers/24390/A-Level/Biology/How-is-an-action-potential-transmitted-across-a-cholinergic-synapse/
39
From the EC50 values listed, which drug would have the highest potency?
Select one:
```
a.
Drug A (EC50 = 2)
```
```
b.
Drug B (EC50 = 4)
```
```
c.
Drug C (EC50 = 8)
```
```
d.
Drug D (EC50 = 16)
```
Drug A (EC50 = 2) (the lower the number, the higher EC50 value
40
A hydrophilic (water soluble) medicinal agent has the following property:
Select one:
a.
Is non-ionised (it has no electrical charge)
b.
Easy permeation through the blood-brain-barrier
c.
Can easily penetrate through cell membranes
d.
Low ability to penetrate through cell membranes
Low ability to penetrate through cell membranes
41
An ideal drug should have the following important attributes:
Select one:
a.
Toxicity and efficacy
b.
Affinity and toxicity
c.
Potency and affinity
d.
Efficacy and a narrow therapeutic index
Potency and affinity
42
If a drug has a half-life of 4 hours:
Select one:
a.
The plasma concentration of the drug will fall to 50% of the peak plasma concentration in 4 hours
b.
The drug will exhibit its maximum effect after 4 hours
c.
The initial dose of drug administered will be eliminated from the plasma in 4 hours
d.
Therapeutic plasma levels will be reached in 4 hours
The plasma concentration of the drug will fall to 50% of the peak plasma concentration in 4 hours
43
Which route of administration is subject to first-pass metabolism?
Select one:
a.
Intramuscular
b.
Subcutaneous
c.
Intravenous
d.
Oral
Oral
44
Which of the following best describes an agonist?
Select one:
a.
A specific regulatory molecule in the biologic system where a drug interacts
b.
A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity
c.
Any substance that brings about a change in biologic function through its enzymatic action
d.
A drug that binds to a receptor and prevents its activation
A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity
45
Which route of administration listed is enteral?
Select one:
a.
Intramuscular
b.
Transdermal
c.
Subcutaneous
d.
Rectal
Rectal
46
What route of administration should be avoided if a drug is subject to a high degree of first pass metabolism?
Select one:
a.
Oral
b.
Sublingual
c.
Intramuscular
d.
Intravenous
Oral
47
Prokaryotic cells can be distinguished from eukaryotic cells because only the prokaryotic cells:
Select one:
a.
lack sub-cellular organelles
b.
have a cell wall
c.
reproduce by mitosis
d.
contain mitochondria
lack sub-cellular organelles
48
Two classes of drugs commonly used as surgical pre-medications include:
Select one:
a.
Antirheumatics and opioids
b.
Benzodiazepines and opioids
c.
Dopamine agonists and opioids
d.
Histamine agonists and dopamine antagonists
Benzodiazepines and opioids
49
The vaccine, Gardasil, is used to confer protection against which microorganism?
Select one:
a.
Human Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)
b.
Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)
```
c.
Polio Virus (OPV)
```
d.
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
50
Severe epiglotitis is associated with which of the following signs and symptoms?
Select one:
a.
All of these options are correct
b.
Stridor
c.
Poor ventilation and increased concentrations of carbon dioxide in the circulation
d.
Airway obstruction
All of these options are correct
51
The main causative agent of bacterial pharyngitis which is also known as ‘Strep throat’ is:
Select one:
a.
S. epidermidis
b.
S. pyogenes
c.
S. aureus
d.
S. marcescans
S. pyogenes
52
A vaccine is described as:
Select one:
a.
Protective against microorganisms and some cancers
b.
All of these choices are correct
c.
Stimulates activation of both B and T lymphocytes to create memory cells
d.
A biological substance that causes an immune response but not the disease
All of these choices are correct
53
Medicines that result in an increase in blood glucose include:
Select one:
a.
Thyroid hormones
b.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
```
c.
Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors
```
d.
High-dose salicylates (NSAIDS)
Thyroid hormones
54
Medicines that result in a decrease in blood glucose include:
Select one:
a.
Thiazide diuretics
b.
High-dose salicylates (NSAIDS)
c.
Thyroid hormones
d.
Βeta2 agonists
High-dose salicylates (NSAIDS)
55
Microvascular dysfunction and disease seen in diabetes includes:
Select one:
a.
Nephropathy and retinopathy
b.
Myopathy and retinopathy
c.
Retinopathy and myopathy
d.
Nephropathy and myopathy
Nephropathy and retinopathy
56
Which of the following is a factor affecting insulin absorption?
Select one:
a.
All of these factors affects insulin absorption
b.
Temperature
c.
Exercise of the injected area
d.
Site of injection
All of these factors affects insulin absorption
57
The thyroid gland is dependent on the hypothalamic–pituitary axis for regulation. Increasing the concentration of thyroid hormone (by taking replacement thyroid hormone) would:
Select one:
a.
suppress hypothalamic release of TRH
b.
increase hypothalamic release of TRH
c.
increase pituitary release of TSH
d.
stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more T3 and T4
suppress hypothalamic release of TRH
58
Salbutamol, a beta-2 adrenoreceptor agonist, is used to treat restrictive airway diseases because:
Select one:
a.
it prevents the production of mucous within the airways of the lungs
b.
it blocks mast cell activation, preventing histamine release
c.
It promotes relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscle to cause bronchodilation
d.
it activates muscarinic receptors to relax and open the airways
It promotes relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscle to cause bronchodilation
59
A restrictive lung disease is best defined as a:
Select one:
a.
Increase in lung volume or compliance
b.
Reduction in lung volume or compliance
c.
Reduction in airflow to bronchial tree
d.
Increase in airflow to bronchial tree
Reduction in lung volume or compliance
60
What term describes a gasping inhalation with a corresponding inefficient exhalation?
Select one:
a.
Kussmaul breathing
b.
Apneusis breathing
c.
Tachypnoea
d.
Hyperpnoea
Apneusis breathing
61
Excessive use of a β2 adrenoceptor agonist may result in:
Select one:
a.
tachycardia
b.
fine muscle tremor
c.
All of these options are correct
d.
cardiac dysrhythmia
All of these options are correct
62
Theophyline, a cAMP and cGMP phosphodiesterase inhibitor, is used in the treatment of
Select one:
a.
urinary retention
b.
Angina
c.
asthma
d.
Hypertension
asthma
63
A 20-year-old woman has occasional asthma symptoms during the winter when she goes snowboarding. The medication of choice to relieve her asthma symptoms is:
Select one:
a.
a corticosteroid
b.
a methylxanthine
c.
a long-acting β2 adrenergic agonist
d.
a short-acting β2 adrenergic agonist
a short-acting β2 adrenergic agonist
64
Which statement is MOST correct regarding Emphysema?
Select one:
a.
Emphysema is characterized by the loss of elasticity of the lung tissue and the destruction of supporting structures
b.
Emphysema is often caused by exposure to toxic chemicals or long-term exposure to tobacco smoke
c.
Emphysema is a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
d.
All of the options are correct
All of the options are correct
65
The hyper-responsiveness in an individual’s bronchi to an allergen is best described as:
Select one:
a.
Bronchial dysrhythmia
b.
Allergic rhinitis
c.
Emphysema
d.
Bronchial asthma
Allergic rhinitis
66
Metoprolol, a reversible competitive antagonist of ß1-adrenoceptors:
Select one:
a.
competes with uptake of noradrenaline into nerve endings
b.
competes with noradrenaline for binding to the ß1-adrenoceptor
c.
inhibits the metabolism of noradrenaline by monoamine oxidase
d.
prevents the release of noradrenaline from parasympathetic nerve endings
competes with noradrenaline for binding to the ß1-adrenoceptor
67
Vasodilator drugs relax the smooth muscle in blood vessels, which causes the vessels to dilate. They are used in the treatment of:
Select one:
a.
hypertension, heart failure and angina
b.
angina, hypotension, and thrombosis
c.
oedema, hypertension, and thrombosis
d.
hypotension, oedema, and heart failure
hypertension, heart failure and angina
68
What is the clinical term for angina caused by coronary vasospasm?
Select one:
a.
Myocardial infarction
b.
Classic angina
c.
Unstable angina
d.
Prinzmetal angina
Prinzmetal angina
69
Thrombolytic drugs:
Select one:
a.
inhibit tissue plasminogen activators to dissolve clots
b.
inactivate plasmin so that fibrin cross-links break down
c.
induce cross-linking of fibrin molecules to compact and dislodge clots
d.
dissolve blood clots by activating plasminogen
dissolve blood clots by activating plasminogen
70
Which of the following is a drug class used to treat hypertension?
Select one:
a.
Calcium channel sensitisers
b.
Beta adrenoceptor agonists
c.
Diuretics
d.
Angiotensin II receptor agonist
Diuretics ( i don't think this is right. but that what feedback came back)
71
Aspirin action as an anti-platelet drug is via:
Select one:
a.
Enhances thrombin activity and the factors involved in the clotting cascade
b.
Inhibits COX1 and thus thromboxane synthesis
c.
Converts inactive plasminogen into active plasmin
d.
Inhibits the enzyme cascade that produces plasmin
Inhibits COX1 and thus thromboxane synthesis
72
Thrombolytic drugs:
Select one:
a.
inactivate plasmin so that fibrin cross-links break down
b.
induce cross-linking of fibrin molecules to compact and dislodge clots
c.
dissolve blood clots by activating plasminogen
d.
inhibit tissue plasminogen activators to dissolve clots
dissolve blood clots by activating plasminogen
73
The most appropriate term for a condition where there is inadequate bone mineralisation in an adult is:
Select one:
a.
Osteoporosis
b.
Osteomalacia
c.
Osteopenia
d.
Rickets
Osteomalacia
74
Corticosteroids are used for the treatment of all of the following, except which one?
Select one:
a.
Asthma
b.
Addison's disease
c.
Cushing's syndrome
d.
Rheumatoid arthritis
Cushing's syndrome
75
Endogenous glucocorticoids are produced by the:
Select one:
a.
Zona pellucida
b.
Zona glomerulosa
c.
Zona fasciculata
d.
Zona reticularis
Zona fasciculata
76
An autoimmune disorder that attacks the thyroid and causes it to make more thyroid hormone than the body needs
Select one:
a.
Addison's disease
b.
Grave's disease
c.
Cushing's syndrome
d.
Hasimoto's disease
Grave's disease
77
The hormone interaction whereby the effects of two or more hormones together are more than the additive effect of each individual hormone is known as:
Select one:
a.
Agonistic
b.
Antagonistic
c.
Synergism
d.
Permissive
Synergism
78
When a person is not receiving supplemental oxygen, how much of the air they breathe is made up of oxygen?
Select one:
a.
100%
b.
50.8%
c.
20.9%
d.
99.98%
c.
| 20.9%
79
Which of these groups of drugs is used for asthma treatment?
Select one:
a.
Methylxanthines
b.
anti-muscarinic agents
c.
Beta2 - stimulants
d.
All of these are correct
All of these are correct
80
A pulmonary thromboembolism may cause:
Select one:
a.
Increased pressure in the left atrium
b.
Increased pressure in the right atrium
c.
Increased pressure in the right ventricle
d.
Increased pressure in the left ventricle
Increased pressure in the right ventricle
81
Long-term exposure to which of the following can increase the risk for COPD?
Select one:
a.
Airborne chemicals
b.
Pollutants
c.
Lung irritants
d.
All of the above
All of the above
82
Bronchodilators have direct action on what type of receptor?
Select one:
a.
Beta-2
b.
Beta-1
c.
Alpha-2
d.
Alpha-1
Beta-2
83
Explain what the bioavailability of a drug is. Include in your answer TWO different examples of factors that can alter drug bioavailability and briefly outline why.
Bioavailability; the amount/fraction/dose of the enteral/oral drug that reaches the systemic circulation as an intact drug (after first pass metabolism/ hepatic metabolism) refers to the bioavailability of the drug. Some drugs such as amoxicillin, metronidazole, fluconazole has same bioavailability or same doge of drug in the systematic circulation through administration of both iv or oral administration. Where as opiods such as morphine has low bioavailability meaning lower dose is required for parenteral route compared to enteral route ( after going through hepatic circulation, the drug dose or the fraction of drug is reduced when it reaches the systemic circulation).
84
Describe the mechanism by which opioid drugs like morphine produce their analgesic effects. What is the consequence(s) of long-term use and abuse of opioids?
Opioids such as morphine acts on the neuronal cell membrane receptors in order to produce their analgesic action. it's presynaptic action inhibits neurotransmitter release causing a major effect on nervous system.
long term opioids abuse can cause complication such as opioid addiction and respiratory distress. Morphine help the patient with severe pain in the pain management but also decreases the respiratory effort leading to respiratory distress in long term. It is common to get opioid addiction with common use.
85
What is angina pectoris? Outline why this occurs, and describe one pharmacological approach that is used to alleviate the symptoms. (within your answer you should note a drug class used in this situation and its mechanism of action)
short answer question
86
Describe the pathophysiology behind the development of osteoporosis. Then, highlight the mechanism of action of bisphosphonates to show why they are an effective treatment for this disease.
short answer question
87
Asthma can be a significant medical emergency. Describe how β2-agonists are used to relieve an asthma attack and indicate why non-selective β-blockers are contraindicated in these patients
short answer question
88
Briefly describe what each of the following pharmacokinetic terms refers to:
Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
short answer question
89
Describe the mechanism of action of local anaesthetic agents. Why is it that local anaesthetics block pain but not other sensory modalities (such a touch, etc) ?
short answer question
90
Compare and contrast the different roles of the pancreatic alpha and beta cells and the hormones that each produces. Use your answer to describe how these cells help to maintain glycaemic control.
short answer question
91
Describe the two phases involved in the pathogenesis of asthma. What is one pharmacological approach that is used to treat asthma in an acute setting? (within your answer you should note a drug class used in this situation and its mechanism of action)
short answer question
92
Statins, also known as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, are a class of lipid-lowering medications. Briefly outline their mechanism of action to show why they are an effective means to control hypercholesterolaemi
short answer question
93
What is the primary objective in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease? Briefly describe how this is achieved.
short answer question
94
Describe the features of a malignant tumour as compared to a benign tumour.
short answer question
95
The comparison of the concentration at which a drug becomes toxic and the concentration at which the drug is effective
Therapeutic Index
96
The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion
Pharmacokinetics (emcq)
97
The process(es) by which a drug is cleared from an organism, either in an unaltered form or as a metabolite
Excretion
98
The means through which endogenous ligands and (most) drugs exert a biological effect
receptor
99
Describes the delivery of a drug by a means other than via the GI tract
Parenteral
100
The separation of the active ingredient from the excipient (vehicle
Liberation
101
The process of synthesising glucose in the body from non-carbohydrate sources
Gluconeogenesis
102
The active form of thyroxine, approximately 80% is produced from the conversion of thyroxine by organs such as the liver and kidneys
Triiodothyronine
103
A hormone produced by the thyroid gland that lowers the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood and promotes the formation of bone
Calcitonin
104
Describes the formation of glycogen from glucose which takes place when blood glucose levels are sufficiently high to allow excess glucose to be stored in liver and muscle cells.
Glycogenesis
105
ACTH, TSH, GH, and prolactin are all hormones that are produced by what?
Anterior pituitary
106
The rare but potentially life-threatening complication that may arise with hyperthyroidism
Thyrotoxic crisis
107
Which enzyme is responsible for the formation of prostanoids, including thromboxane A2 (TXA2), which plays a role in platelet recruitment and aggregation? →
Cyclooxygenase 1
108
Often referred to as the “bad” cholesterol, high levels of this lipoprotein is associated with increased rick of atherosclerosis
Low density lipoprotein (LDL)
109
What is the rate-controlling enzyme of the mevalonate pathway, which results in the endogenous production of cholesterol?
HMG-CoA reductase
110
This term describes drugs that affect the conduction speed in the AV node, and subsequently the rate of electrical impulses in the heart
Dromotropic
111
The lipoprotein class that carries cholesterol back to the liver. Low levels of this lipoprotein are associated with increased risk of atherosclerosis
High-density lipoprotein (HDL)
112
The amount of ventricular stretch at the end of diastole; also known as the left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
Preload
113
What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
Select one:
a.
Influence of drugs on metabolism processes
b.
Drug biotransformation in the organism
c.
Influence of drugs on genes
d.
Complications of drug therapy
Drug biotransformation in the organism
114
Which statement most correctly describes an agonist?
Select one:
a.
Has affinity for a receptor and binding elicits a response
b.
Exerts a biological response but does not posses affinity for a receptor
c.
Has affinity for a receptor and binding does not elicit a response
d.
Lacks affinity and does not elicit a response from a receptor
Has affinity for a receptor and binding elicits a response
115
The term that best describes the strength of interaction between a drug and its receptor binding site is:
Select one:
a.
Selectivity
b.
Potency
c.
Affinity
d.
Specificity
Affinity
116
Pharmacodynamics involves the study of all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a.
Absorption and distribution of drugs
b.
Drug and receptor interactions
c.
Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
d.
Mechanisms of drug action
Absorption and distribution of drugs
117
The correct sequence of pharmacokinetic phases a drug may pass through is:
Select one:
a.
Formulation, absorption, metabolism, excretion
b.
Disintegration, absorption, elimination, expiration
c.
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
d.
Administration, inhalation, absorption, excretion
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
118
Pharmacodynamics involves the study of which of the following?
Select one:
a.
Distribution of drugs in the organism
b.
Biotransformation of drugs in the organism
c.
Mechanisms of drug action
d.
Excretion of drug from the organism
Mechanisms of drug action
119
What is the mechanism of action for SSRIs when used to treat depression?
Select one:
a.
Selectively inhibit the presynaptic reuptake of serotonin
b.
Postsynaptic blockade of serotonin 5HT2 and 5HT3 receptors
c.
Competitively and reversibly inhibits monoamine oxidase
d.
Inhibit reuptake of noradrenaline and serotonin into presynaptic terminals
Selectively inhibit the presynaptic reuptake of serotonin
120
Binding of acetylcholine to the cholinergic nicotinic receptor results in a conformational change that:
Select one:
a.
blocks the efflux of K+ ions, preventing repolarisation of the effector cells
b.
allows the efflux of K+ ions, resulting in hyperpolarisation of the effector cells
c.
allows the influx of Na+ ions, resulting in depolarisation of the effector cells
d.
blocks the influx of Na+ ions, preventing depolarisation of the effector cells
allows the influx of Na+ ions, resulting in depolarisation of the effector cells
121
Which type of transient receptor potential channel is involved in nociception associated with mast cell degranulation?
Select one:
a.
TRPC6
b.
TRPV4
c.
TRPM4
d.
TRPA1
TRPM4
122
Microorganisms produce a number of factors that help evade or compromise the body’s immune system. These factors are collectively known as:
Select one:
a.
Toxins
b.
Immunosuppression
c.
Virulence factors
d.
Hypersensitivities
c.
| Virulence factors
123
Staphylococcus aureus can be found in the nose and/or skin in at least what percentage of people?
Select one:
a.
15%
b.
25%
c.
33%
d.
55%
33%
124
Local anaesthetics interrupt nerve conduction by which of the following mechanism?
Select one:
a.
Reversible blockade of potassium channels
b.
Irreversible blockade of sodium channels
c.
Reversible blockade of sodium channels
d.
Irreversible blockade of potassium channels
Reversible blockade of sodium channels
125
Why is thiopentone not a drug of choice for providing anaesthesia throughout a surgical procedure?
Select one:
a.
It has a short half-life and a narrow therapeutic index
b.
Thiopentone is not used in general anaesthesia
c.
It does not maintain the state of surgical anaesthesia
d.
Has high lipid solubility & slow metabolism, leading to a prolonged recovery time
Has high lipid solubility & slow metabolism, leading to a prolonged recovery time
126
The major mode of action of the antibiotic penicillin is to inhibit the synthesis of:
Select one:
a.
cell wall peptidoglycans
b.
nucleic acids
c.
mRNA
d.
proteins
cell wall peptidoglycans
127
Phenylephrine is a selective alpha-1 adrenoreceptor agonist. Which of the below is MOST CORRECT regarding the main effects of the alpha1 adrenoreceptor?
Select one:
a.
Promotes potassium uptake in skeletal muscle
```
b.
Renin release (triggers the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system)
```
c.
Vasoconstriction and contraction of smooth muscle (eg. vas deferens and prostate)
```
d.
Cardiac acceleration (increases heart rate, stroke volume and cardiac output)
```
Vasoconstriction and contraction of smooth muscle (eg. vas deferens and prostate)
128
The acetylcholine nicotinic receptor is an example of a:
Select one:
a.
kinase-linked receptor
b.
nuclear receptor
c.
G-protein coupled receptor
d.
ligand gated ion channel
ligand gated ion channel
129
An autoimmune condition where inflammation and destruction of thyroid tissue reduces the thyroid's ability to make hormones
Select one:
a.
Grave's disease
b.
Cushing's syndrome
c.
Hashimoto's disease
d.
Addison's disease
Hashimoto's disease
130
Which of the following is true for glucagon?
Select one:
a.
Inhibits glucose utilization by skeletal muscle
b.
Stimulates the secretion of insulin by beta cells
c.
Inhibits uptake of amino acids by cells.
d.
Stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver
Stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver
131
Biguanides:
Select one:
a.
Block reabsorption of glucose from kidneys
b.
Decrease hepatic glucose production
c.
Increase insulin receptor numbers on target cells
d.
Stimulate insulin secretion
Decrease hepatic glucose production
132
what concentration of blood glucose would be expected 2 hrs post glucose load in an OGTT which would indicate probable diabetes?
Select one:
a.
11.1 – 16.5 mmol/L
b.
7.8 – 11.0 mmol/L
c.
2.0 to 7.0 mmol/L
d.
3.0 – 7.7 mmol/L
11.1 – 16.5 mmol/L
133
Insulin:
Select one:
a.
Enhances glucose oxidation for energy
b.
Inhibits glycogen and triglyceride formation
c.
Inhibits protein synthesis
d.
Enhances gluconeogenesis
Enhances glucose oxidation for energy
134
The most correct term to describe homeostatic feedback is a No:
Select one:
a.
Positive feedback loop
b.
Negative feedback loop
c.
Permissive feedback loop
d.
Anticipatory feedback loop
Negative feedback loop
135
What important role does acetylcholinesterase play within the cholinergic synapse?
Select one:
a.
Promotes neurotransmission and depolarisation of the post-synaptic cell
b.
Destroys acetylcholine a brief period after it is released by the pre-synaptic axon terminal
c.
Amplifies the effects of acetylcholine after it is released into the synapse
d.
Stimulates the production of acetylcholine
Destroys acetylcholine a brief period after it is released by the pre-synaptic axon terminal
136
A deficiency of dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway contributes to the development of:
Select one:
a.
Parkinson’s disease
b.
drug dependence
c.
schizophrenia
d.
obesity
Parkinson’s disease
137
The morphological changes seen in the wall of bronchus of the asthmatic patient DO NOT include:
Select one:
a.
hypertrophy of submucosal mucus glands
b.
decreased number of goblet cells in the mucosa
c.
accumulation of mucus in the bronchial lumen
d.
thickened basement membrane
decreased number of goblet cells in the mucosa
138
Long-term exposure to which of the following can increase the risk for COPD?
Select one:
a.
Airborne chemicals
b.
Pollutants
c.
Lung irritants
d.
All of the above
All of the above
139
Bronchodilators have direct action on what type of receptor?
Select one:
a.
Alpha-2
b.
Alpha-1
c.
Beta-1
d.
Beta-2
Beta-2
140
A 20-year-old woman has occasional asthma symptoms during the winter when she goes snowboarding. The medication of choice to relieve her asthma symptoms is:
Select one:
a.
a short-acting β2 adrenergic agonist
b.
a corticosteroid
c.
a methylxanthine
d.
a long-acting β2 adrenergic agonist
a short-acting β2 adrenergic agonist
141
The pharmacological actions of theophylline in the treatment of COPD include:
Select one:
a.
All of these statements are correct
b.
Increase mucociliary activity
c.
Bronchodilation
d.
Increase contractility of respiratory muscles
Bronchodilation
142
Which of the following is an obstructive lung condition?
Select one:
a.
Rheumatoid arthritis
b.
Atelectasis
c.
Bronchiectasis
d.
Sarcoidosis
Bronchiectasis
143
A benign tumour:
Select one:
a.
has rapid growth and cell division
b.
is a slowly expanding mass
c.
is frequently life threatening
d.
invades nearby tissues and blood vessels
is a slowly expanding mass
144
Which of the following types of mutation to a proto-oncogene cannot give rise to an oncogene?
Select one:
a.
A translocation which puts the gene under the control of a more active promoter, producing over-expression
b.
A mutation which produces a modified protein that is always active
c.
A point mutation changing just one amino acid in the protein product
d.
Addition or deletion to a gene sequence resulting in an inactive protein product
Addition or deletion to a gene sequence resulting in an inactive protein product
145
Which of the following is an example of a decreased rate arrhythmia?
Select one:
a.
fibrillation
b.
tachycardia
c.
bradycardia
d.
flutter
bradycardia
146
High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is:
Select one:
a.
A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease
b.
A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids and low protein, which has a very low density and carries most triglycerides from the liver to the tissues
c.
A large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to the liver and adipose tissue where they are broken down
d.
A lipoprotein that contains relatively small amounts of cholesterol and triglycerides and is associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease
A lipoprotein that contains relatively small amounts of cholesterol and triglycerides and is associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease
147
There are two basic types of systemic hypertension, primary (essential) hypertension and secondary hypertension. The vast majority of patients with hypertension (90-95%) have:
Select one:
a.
idiopathic secondary hypertension
b.
secondary hypertension
c.
both primary and secondary hypertension
d.
primary hypertension
primary hypertension
148
Aspirin is beneficial and reduces the risk of blood clot formation because it:
Select one:
a.
Impairs the liver’s capacity to use Vitamin K
b.
Increases the levels of anti-thrombin III
c.
Inhibits COX enzymes and thus thromboxane synthesis
d.
Binds to platelets to prevent their interaction with fibrin
inhibits COX enzymes and thus thromboxane synthesis
149
Which is important to monitor in patients taking digoxin?
Select one:
a.
Potassium
b.
Zinc
c.
Chloride
d.
Sodium
Potassium
150
Which of the following best defines stroke volume?
Select one:
a.
peak arterial pressure reached during contraction of the ventricles.
b.
lowest arterial pressure reached while the ventricles are relaxed.
c.
Mean pressure in the veins
d.
the amount of blood ejected from the ventricle with each heart beat
the amount of blood ejected from the ventricle with each heart beat
151
Alkylating agents such as cyclophosphamide exert their cytotoxic action by:
Select one:
a.
blocking steroid hormone receptors in hormone responsive tumours
b.
promoting cross-linking of DNA to stop replication
c.
inducing breakage of double-stranded DNA
d.
inhibition of cell replication machinery
promoting cross-linking of DNA to stop replication
152
BRAF is a human gene that encodes a protein called B-Raf. More than 30 activating mutations in the BRAF gene are associated with human cancers. This is because:
Select one:
a.
The B-Raf protein promotes DNA repair
b.
The B-Raf protein halts DNA replication
c.
B-Raf is a pro-apoptotic protein
d.
BRAF is a proto-oncogene
BRAF is a proto-oncogene
153
Describe the mechanism by which opioid drugs like morphine produce their analgesic effects. What is the consequence(s) of long-term use and abuse of opioids?
short answer question
154
Compare and contrast the different roles of the pancreatic alpha and beta cells and the hormones that each produces. Use your answer to describe how these cells help to maintain glycaemic control.
short answer question
155
Asthma can be a significant medical emergency. Describe how β2-agonists are used to relieve an asthma attack and indicate why non-selective β-blockers are contraindicated in these patients.
short answer question
156
Statins, also known as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, are a class of lipid-lowering medications. Briefly outline their mechanism of action to show why they are an effective means to control hypercholesterolaemia.
short answer questions
157
What is the primary objective in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease? Briefly describe how this is achieved.
short answer question
158
Describe the features of a malignant tumour as compared to a benign tumour.
short answer question
159
The ED50 value describes:
Select one:
a.
The concentration of a drug which induces a response halfway between baseline and maximum
b.
The dose required to cause a therapeutic effect (positive response) in 50% of a population
c.
The dose required to produce a lethal effect in 50% of a studied population
d.
The dose required to produce a toxic effect in 50% of the studied population
The dose required to cause a therapeutic effect (positive response) in 50% of a population
160
Whist statement most correctly describes what the therapeutic index (TI) is:
Select one:
a.
A ratio used to evaluate the effectiveness of a drug
b.
A ratio used to evaluate the elimination of a drug
c.
A ratio used to evaluate the bioavailability of a drug
d.
A ratio used to evaluate the safety and usefulness of a drug
A ratio used to evaluate the safety and usefulness of a drug
161
Which of these is a pharmacodynamic factor that could modify the response to a drug?
Select one:
a.
The persons age or gender
b.
Cardiovascular function and body water levels
c.
The number of receptors present
d.
Liver and/or kidney disease
The number of receptors present
162
Potency refers to:
Select one:
a.
The narrowness of a drug’s range of actions
b.
A drug’s ability to produce adverse reactions
c.
A drug’s tendency to produce toxic effects
d.
The amount of drug required to produce an effect
The amount of drug required to produce an effect
163
Pharmacodynamics involves the study of which of the following?
Select one:
a.
Excretion of drug from the organism
b.
Mechanisms of drug action
c.
Distribution of drugs in the organism
d.
Biotransformation of drugs in the organism
Mechanisms of drug action
164
The EC50 value describes:
Select one:
a.
The dose required to produce a toxic effect in 50% of a population
b.
The dose required to have a therapeutic effect (positive response) in 50% of a population
c.
The concentration which induces a response halfway between baseline and maximum
d.
The dose that produces a lethal response in 50% of a population
The concentration which induces a response halfway between baseline and maximum
165
Which route of administration listed is enteral?
Select one:
a.
Subcutaneous
b.
Intramuscular
c.
Transdermal
d.
Rectal
Rectal
166
An antagonist has the following pharmacological property:
Select one:
a.
efficacy
b.
potency
c.
affinity
d.
high blood protein binding
affinity
167
the most rapid effects of a drug are mediated by what class of receptor?
Select one:
a.
Kinase-linked receptors
b.
Ligand-gated ion channels
c.
Nuclear receptors
d.
G protein-coupled receptors
Ligand-gated ion channels
168
If a drug has a half-life of 4 hours:
Select one:
a.
Therapeutic plasma levels will be reached in 4 hours
b.
The drug will exhibit its maximum effect after 4 hours
c.
The initial dose of drug administered will be eliminated from the plasma in 4 hours
d.
The plasma concentration of the drug will fall to 50% of the peak plasma concentration in 4 hours
The plasma concentration of the drug will fall to 50% of the peak plasma concentration in 4 hours
169
An agonist is a substance that:
Select one:
a.
Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects
b.
Increases the concentration of another substance to produce an effect
c.
Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
d.
Interacts with the receptor without activating it to produce an effect
Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects
170
An agonist is a substance that:
Select one:
a.
Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce an effect
b.
Interacts with a receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing an effect
c.
Interacts with a receptor without producing any effect
d.
Increases the concentration of another substance to produce an effect
.
| Interacts with a receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing an effect
171
What does the term “bioavailability” mean?
Select one:
a.
Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial dose accounting for first-pass metabolism
b.
Fraction of an unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration
c.
Permeability through the brain-blood barrier of the fraction of the drug
d.
Plasma protein binding degree of substance following any route of administration
Fraction of an unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration
172
A drug that binds to a cell receptor and activates a response is called:
Select one:
a.
An antagonist
b.
A channel blocker
c.
A receptor blocker
d.
An agonist
An agonist
173
Four drugs each have one of the therapeutic indexes listed below. Which one would require the closest monitoring to avoid toxicity?
Select one:
a.
2
b.
5
c.
100
d.
50
2
174
What does the term half-life mean?
Select one:
a.
The amount of time it takes for the body to absorb and distribute half of the administered drug
b.
Half of the amount of time it takes for the drugs concentration to reach a therapeutic level
c.
The average length of time it takes for the drug to exert 50% of the desired biological effect
d.
The amount of time it takes for the drugs concentration in the circulation to be reduced by half
The amount of time it takes for the drugs concentration in the circulation to be reduced by half
175
Which of the following best describes an agonist?
Select one:
a.
A drug that binds to a receptor and prevents its activation
b.
A specific regulatory molecule in the biologic system where a drug interacts
c.
A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity
d.
Any substance that brings about a change in biologic function through its enzymatic action
.
| A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity
176
What are the two main route/s of administration of general anaesthetics in humans?
Select one:
a.
Intravenous and/or inhalation
b.
Intravenous and/or oral
c.
Subcutaneous or inhalation
d.
Intramuscular and/or oral
Intravenous and/or inhalation
177
A vaccine is described as:
Select one:
a.
All of these choices are correct
b.
A biological substance that causes an immune response but not the disease
c.
Protective against microorganisms and some cancers
d.
Stimulates activation of both B and T lymphocytes to create memory cells
All of these choices are correct
178
Which statement is most correct regarding the benefit of using propofol for inducing anaesthesia?
Select one:
a.
It has potent analgesic actions in addition to being a rapid onset general anaesthetic
b.
It has a very fast onset and is rapidly metabolised with a very short half life, giving a rapid recovery
c.
It has very fast onset because it is water soluble and readily passes the blood-brain-barrier
d.
It does not cause any respiratory depression and has a very short half life, so there is rapid recovery from anaesthesia
It has a very fast onset and is rapidly metabolised with a very short half life, giving a rapid recovery
179
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
Select one:
a.
All bacteria are pathogenic
b.
Bacteria found in the human body always cause disease
c.
Bacteria found in the human body may sometimes cause disease
d.
All bacteria are beneficial to man
Bacteria found in the human body may sometimes cause disease
180
Characteristics that a general anaesthetic agent will ideally have include:
Select one:
a.
Rapid induction and recovery, low toxicity, narrow therapeutic index, cardiovascular depression
b.
Slow recovery, low toxicity, narrow therapeutic index, respiratory depression
c.
Rapid induction and recovery, low toxicity, wide therapeutic index, respiratory and cardiovascular depression
d.
Rapid induction, low toxicity, wide therapeutic index, analgesic properties
Rapid induction, low toxicity, wide therapeutic index, analgesic properties
181
The type of toxin which is incorporated into a bacterial cell wall is:
Select one:
a.
a fibroprototoxin
b.
an exotoxin
c.
an endotoxin
d.
a gram toxin
an endotoxin
182
Opioids are used as a pre-medication or adjuvant because they are:
Select one:
a.
an analgesic
b.
an antiemetic
c.
anti-cholinergic (to reverse paralysis)
d.
anti-muscarinic (to reduce salivation)
an analgesic
183
Actions of hormones may be:
Select one:
a.
All of these are correct
b.
Autocrine
c.
Endocrine
d.
Paracrine
All of these are correct
184
Insulin causes reduction in blood sugar level by the following mechanisms, EXCEPT:
Select one:
a.
Reduction of breakdown of glycogen
b.
Diminished gluconeogenesis
c.
Increased glucose uptake in the peripheral tissue
d.
Decreased glucose absorption from the gut
Decreased glucose absorption from the gut
185
Vascular effects of chronic hyperglycaemia include:
Select one:
a.
Peripheral microvascular expansion
b.
Lipolysis and atherosclerotic plaque remodelling
c.
Structural changes of blood vessels and inadequate blood supply to tissues
d.
Vasodilation and increased cardiac output
Peripheral microvascular expansion (not sure)
186
Which of the following would be the treatment of choice for hypothyroidism?
Select one:
a.
A thioureylene, such as carbimazole
b.
thyroxine/levo-thyroxine
c.
Iodine/Iodide
d.
A corticosteroid, such as hydrocortisone
thyroxine/levo-thyroxine
187
Endogenous mineralocorticoids are produced by the:
Select one:
a.
Zona pellucida
b.
Zona reticularis
c.
Zona glomerulosa
d.
Zona fasciculata
Zona glomerulosa
188
Corticosteroids such as prednisone:
Select one:
a.
can decrease blood glucose levels
b.
can promote immune responses
c.
can increase the risk of infection
d.
can speed up the wound healing
can increase the risk of infection ( i think)
it also increase blood glucose
189
If diabetic ketoacidosis occurs,
Select one:
a.
blood pH increases.
b.
patient’s breath rate increases.
c.
blood pH decreases.
d.
both blood pH decreases and patient’s breath rate increases.
both blood pH decreases and patient’s breath rate increases.
190
What is the enzyme responsible for breaking down acetylcholine in the synapse?
Select one:
a.
Acetyltransferase
b.
Lipase
c.
Monoamine oxidase
d.
Acetylcholinesterase (AChE)
Acetylcholinesterase (AChE)
191
Which of the following is correct regarding adrenergic neurotransmission?
Select one:
```
a.
Monoamine oxidase (MAO) converts dopamine to noradrenaline in the nerve terminal.
```
b.
Tricyclic antidepressants and SNRIs prevent reuptake of noradrenaline into the nerve terminals.
c.
Adrenaline is the major neurotransmitter released from sympathetic nerve terminals.
d.
Noradrenaline is mainly released from the adrenal glands
I DONT KNOW BUT NOT C
192
An elderly man was brought to the emergency room after he ingested a large quantity of carvedilol tablets, a non-selective beta adrenoreceptor antagonist (blocks α1, β1, and β2 adrenergic receptors).
Which of the following symptoms would you expect in this patient?
Select one:
a.
Increased heart rate (tachycardia)
b.
Reduced heart rate (bradycardia)
c.
Increased blood pressure
d.
Dilation of the pupil (mydriasis)
Reduced heart rate (bradycardia)
193
A 22-year-old woman is being treated with amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, for depression. She, and her Family, should be cautioned about not seeing a therapeutic effect for:
Select one:
a.
1 week
b.
3 days
c.
3-4 weeks
d.
24 hours
3-4 weeks
194
The overall aim of antidepressant therapy is to:
Select one:
a.
block the action of monoamines in CNS
b.
cause sedation so patient doesn’t get worried
c.
decrease serotonin levels in CNS synapses
d.
raise monoamine levels in CNS synapses
decrease serotonin levels in CNS synapses(not sure at all) not B though
195
Metoprolol, an orally active and reversible competitive antagonist at β1-adrenoceptors:
Select one:
a.
inhibits the metabolism of noradrenaline by monoamine oxidase
b.
prevents the release of noradrenaline from parasympathetic nerve endings
c.
competes with noradrenaline for binding to the β1-adrenoceptor
d.
competes with uptake of noradrenaline into nerve endings
competes with noradrenaline for binding to the β1-adrenoceptor
196
The biochemical theory of schizophrenia known as the Dopamine hypothesis refers to:
Select one:
a.
Allergic sensitivity to Dopamine
b.
Excess Dopamine activity
c.
Contaminated Dopamine
d.
Insufficient Dopamine activity
Excess Dopamine activity
197
The primary neurotransmitter released by sympathetic postganglionic axons is:
Select one:
a.
Acetylcholine
b.
Adrenaline
c.
Noradrenaline
d.
Choline
Noradrenaline
198
An example of how an indirect acting cholinergic drug might work would be:
Select one:
a.
Binding and activation of parasympathetic receptors
b.
Binding and inactivation of parasympathetic receptors
c.
Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the axon terminal
d.
Inhibition of the acetylcholinesterase enzyme
Inhibition of the acetylcholinesterase enzyme
199
Men can be tested for Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) in their blood which may indicate the presence of early prostate cancer. How reliable is this test?
Select one:
a.
It achieves a 97% accurate level of detection of early disease
b.
It is highly specific in its identification of early prostate cancer
c.
It has no validity as a test of early prostate cancer
d.
Over 2 thirds (66%) of men with raised PSA levels will not have prostate cancer
Over 2 thirds (66%) of men with raised PSA levels will not have prostate cancer
200
Which cancer therapy tries to selectively target the tumour and not affect the normal cells of the body?
Select one:
a.
chemotherapy
b.
surgery
c.
radiotherapy
d.
immunotherapy
immunotherapy
201
The migration and invasion of cancer cells from the site of origin to another part of the body is called:
Select one:
a.
proliferation
b.
apoptosis
c.
oncogenesis
d.
metastasis
metastasis
202
Which statement is most correct regarding castrate-resistant prostate cancer:
Select one:
a.
Is an androgen-independent phase of the disease
b.
Has reduced androgen receptor activity
c.
Relies on estrogen signalling
d.
Is still dependent on androgens for cancer cell growth and survival
not B (IDK)
203
Which of the following is a possible reason for therapy resistance in cancer?
Select one:
a.
Development of mechanisms to inactivate a drug
b.
Gene amplification rendering a drug ineffective
c.
Increase in efficiency of transport mechanisms to remove drugs from the cell
d.
All of these are correct
All of these are correct
204
Which of the following is NOT one of the ten hallmarks of cancer?
Select one:
a.
tumour-promoting inflammation
b.
Avoiding immune detection
c.
Inhibition and prevention of angiogenesis
d.
Resisting cell death
Inhibition and prevention of angiogenesis
205
What diagnostic procedure is needed for diagnosis and 100% confirmation of breast cancer?
Select one:
a.
mammography
b.
tissue biopsy
c.
ultrasound
d.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
tissue biopsy
206
Cancer may be caused by any number of mutations that affect cell function and growth. These may include:
Select one:
a.
Activation of oncogenes and inactivation of tumour suppressors
b.
Spontaneous initiation of apoptosis
c.
Over-stimulation of DNA repair genes
d.
Inactivation of proto-oncogenes and oncogenes
Activation of oncogenes and inactivation of tumour suppressors
