Pharmacology NSC 2500

Question 1

Isoproterenol is a drug that produces maximal contraction of cardiac muscle in a manner similar to adrenaline. Which of the following best describes isoproterenol?

Select one:

a.
Non-competitive antagonist

b.
Partial agonist

c.
Competitive antagonist

d.
Full agonist

Answer 1

d.

Full agonist

Question 2

An agonist is a substance that:

Select one:

a.
Interacts with the receptor without activating it to produce an effect

b.
Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect

c.
Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects

d.
Increases the concentration of another substance to produce an effect

Answer 2

interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects

Question 3

The principles of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion describe what?

Select one:

a.
The biochemical, physiologic, and molecular effects of drugs on the body

b.
Pharmacodynamics

c.
The dynamic interaction of a drug with its biological target

d.
The basic processes of the body that determine the duration and intensity of a drug’s effect

Answer 3

The basic processes of the body that determine the duration and intensity of a drug’s effect

Question 4

Pharmacokinetics is:

Select one:

a.
The study of mechanisms of drug action

b.
The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs

c.
The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs

d.
The study of methods of new drug development

Answer 4

The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs

Question 5

An antagonist has the following pharmacological property:

Select one:

a.
efficacy

b.
high blood protein binding

c.
potency

d.
affinity

Answer 5

affinity

Question 6

Pharmacokinetics is:

Select one:

a.
The branch of medicine concerned with the uses, effects, and modes of action of drugs

b.
The study of the basic processes of the body that determine the duration and intensity of a drug’s effect

c.
The study of a drugs interaction with its receptor to elicit an effect

d.
The profession that is associated with the provision of pharmaceuticals

Answer 6

The study of the basic processes of the body that determine the duration and intensity of a drug’s effect

Question 7

Potency refers to:

Select one:

a.
A drug’s ability to produce adverse reactions

b.
A drug’s tendency to produce toxic effects

c.
The narrowness of a drug’s range of actions

d.
The amount of drug required to produce an effect

Answer 7

The amount of drug required to produce an effect

Question 8

What does the term half-life mean?

Select one:

a.
The average length of time it takes for the drug to exert 50% of the desired biological effect

b.
The amount of time it takes for the drugs concentration in the circulation to be reduced by half

c.
Half of the amount of time it takes for the drugs concentration to reach a therapeutic level

d.
The amount of time it takes for the body to absorb and distribute half of the administered drug

Answer 8

The amount of time it takes for the drugs concentration in the circulation to be reduced by half

Question 9

‘Phantom limb’ pain is classified as:

Select one:

a.
Somatic nociceptive

b.
Central neuropathic

c.
Visceral nociceptive

d.
Peripheral neuropathic

Answer 9

Peripheral neuropathic

Question 10

Some groups of people develop a severe condition caused by the body’s response to a bacterial infection. This is known as:

Select one:

a.
Mantoux

b.
Tetanus

c.
Meningitis

d.
Sepsis

Answer 10

Sepsis

Question 11

Why is a fast acting drug, as can be achieved by IV administration, desirable for the induction of general anaesthesia?

Select one:

a.
To avoid stage 3 of anaesthesia

b.
Rapid progression from stage 1 to stage 3 anaesthesia

c.
Rapid progression from stage 1 to stage 4 anaesthesia

d.
To avoid stage 1 of anaesthesia

Answer 11

Rapid progression from stage 1 to stage 3 anaesthesia

Question 12

A drug could be classified as an antipyretic if it reduces:

Select one:

a.
pain

b.
oedema

c.
inflammation

d.
fever

Answer 12

fever

Question 13

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Select one:

a.
Bacteria found in the human body always cause disease

b.
All bacteria are pathogenic

c.
Bacteria found in the human body may sometimes cause disease

d.
All bacteria are beneficial to man

Answer 13

Bacteria found in the human body always cause disease

Question 14

The most correct term to describe an infectious disease that progresses slowly and persists for long periods, with continuous shedding of the pathogen is:

Select one:

a.
Chronic

b.
Acute

c.
Fulminating

d.
Latent

Answer 14

Chronic

Question 15

Which of the statements below is correct in describing Herd immunity?

Select one:

a.
could also be called “community immunity”

b.
unvaccinated individuals are indirectly protected by vaccinated individuals

c.
All of these choices are correct

d.
the more people immune to a disease the less likely it is to spread

Answer 15

All of these choices are correct

Question 16

Beta-lactams are an important class of antibiotic, which includes the penicillins. These antimicrobial agents work by:

Select one:

a.
inhibiting bacterial nucleic acid synthesis

b.
targeting bacterial ribosomes to prevent protein synthesis

c.
binding to bacterial RNA polymerase to stop the production of mRNA

d.
disrupting synthesis of the bacterial cell wall

Answer 16

disrupting synthesis of the bacterial cell wall

Question 17

Female hormonal contraception exists in multiple forms, but the main active hormone is present in all of them. Which hormone is this?

Select one:

a.
Oestrogen

b.
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

c.
Luteinising hormone (LH)

d.
Progesterone

Answer 17

Progesterone

Question 18

A person with hyperglycaemia will present with:

Select one:

a.
Polydipsia, polycythaemia and polyarteritis

b.
Polyadenitis, polyuria and polydipsia

c.
Polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia

d.
Polycythaemia, polyuria and polyphagia

Answer 18

Polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia

Question 19

The thyroid gland produces the thyroid hormones T3 and T4, which are dependent on the availability of:

Select one:

a.
iron absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract

b.
iodine produced in the liver

c.
parathyroid hormone to promote iodine binding

d.
iodine found in the diet

Answer 19

iodine found in the diet

Question 20

The pharmacological actions of theophylline in the treatment of COPD include:

Select one:

a.
Increase contractility of respiratory muscles

b.
Bronchodilation

c.
Increase mucociliary activity

d.
All of these statements are correct

Answer 20

Bronchodilation

Question 21

Treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension can include which treatment/s?

Select one:

a.
Anticoagulation

b.
Diuretics

c.
Vaccination

d.
All of these options are correct

Answer 21

All of these options are correct

Question 22

Which of the following is an obstructive lung condition?

Select one:

a.
Sarcoidosis

b.
Bronchiectasis

c.
Rheumatoid arthritis

d.
Atelectasis

Answer 22

Bronchiectasis

Question 23

All of the following groups of drugs are for thrombosis treatment EXCEPT:

Select one:

a.
Fibrinolitic drugs

b.
Anticoagulant drugs

c.
Antiplatelet drugs

d.
Antifibrinolytic drugs

Answer 23

Antifibrinolytic drugs

Question 24

The main cause of high blood pressure is:

Select one:

a.
Stress

b.
Obesity

c.
Aging

d.
Unknown

Answer 24

Unknown

Question 25

There are two basic types of systemic hypertension, primary (essential) hypertension and secondary hypertension. The vast majority of patients with hypertension (90-95%) have:

Select one:

a.
secondary hypertension

b.
both primary and secondary hypertension

c.
primary hypertension

d.
idiopathic secondary hypertension

Answer 25

primary hypertension

Question 26

Increased serum levels of which of the following may be associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis?

Select one:

a.
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL)

b.
High-density lipoproteins (HDL)

c.
Cholesterol

d.
Triglycerides

Answer 26

High-density lipoproteins (HDL)

Question 27

Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is:

Select one:

a.
A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids and low protein, which has a very low density and carries most triglycerides from the liver to the tissues

b.
A large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to the liver and adipose tissue where they are broken down

c.
A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease

d.
A lipoprotein that contains relatively small amounts of cholesterol and triglycerides and is associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease

Answer 27

A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease

Question 28

The most important goal of drug therapy in the course of acute myocardial infarction is to:

Select one:

a.
inhibit cardiac effects of angiotensin II and cardiac remodelling

b.
control heart rhythm and suppress arrhythmias

c.
improve the oxygen supply/demand ratio for the heart

d.
manage pain and associated anxiety to alleviate sympathetic activity

Answer 28

improve the oxygen supply/demand ratio for the heart

Question 29

How do β-blockers improve cardiac function in heart failure?

Select one:

a.
By decreasing cardiac remodeling

b.
By activating noradrenaline

c.
By increasing renin release

d.
By increasing heart rate

Answer 29

By decreasing cardiac remodeling

Question 30

Stage-1 hypertension is defined by systolic and/or diastolic blood pressure value of:

Select one:

a.
<120 mmHg systolic and <80 mmHg diastolic

b.
120-129 mmHg systolic and <80 mmHg diastolic

c.
130-139 mmHg systolic or 80-89 mmHg diastolic

d.
>139 mmHg systolic or >89 mmHg diastolic

Answer 30

130-139 mmHg systolic or 80-89 mmHg diastolic

Question 31

Stage-1 hypertension is defined by systolic and/or diastolic blood pressure value of:

Select one:

a.
<120 mmHg systolic and <80 mmHg diastolic

b.
120-129 mmHg systolic and <80 mmHg diastolic

c.
130-139 mmHg systolic or 80-89 mmHg diastolic

d.
>139 mmHg systolic or >89 mmHg diastolic

Answer 31

130-139 mmHg systolic or 80-89 mmHg diastolic

Question 32

Which of the below is the correct pairing?

Select one:

a.
Chronic Pain: maximum intensity of pain that can be tolerated

b.
Acute pain: persisting beyond expected duration of tissue healing

c.
Neck Pain: is the most common type of pain

d.
Pain threshold: minimum intensity when stimulus is perceived as painful

Answer 32

Pain threshold: minimum intensity when stimulus is perceived as painful

Question 33

The main causative agent of bacterial pharyngitis which is also known as ‘Strep throat’ is:

Select one:

a.
S. epidermidis

b.
S. pyogenes

c.
S. aureus

d.
S. marcescans

Answer 33

S. pyogenes

Question 34

Bordetella pertussis is the infective agent of what disease?

Select one:

a.
Whooping cough

b.
Atypical pneumonia

c.
Tuberculosis

d.
Tetanus

Answer 34

Whooping cough

Question 35

Positive feedforward loops are:

Select one:

a.
Homeostatic

b.
Maintained at an equilibrium

c.
Independent of outside influences

d.
Not homeostatic

Answer 35

Not homeostatic

Question 36

Which of the below is NOT an oral hypoglycaemic medication?

Select one:

a.
Methylxanthines

b.
Biguanides

c.
Sulfonylureas

d.
Thiazolidinediones

Answer 36

Methylxanthines

Question 37

The oral glucose tolerance test typically:

Select one:

a.
Shows a low serum concentration of glucose in someone with diabetes

b.
Involves an overnight fasting followed by an oral glucose load

c.
Measures how the body deals with glucose deprivation

d.
Directly measures the production of glucagon from a glucose load

Answer 37

Involves an overnight fasting followed by an oral glucose load

Question 38

Describe how an action potential is transmitted across a cholinergic synapse within a ganglion of the parasympathetic system. In your answer you should note the main neurotransmitter involved, its receptor, and the enzyme responsible for breaking down and clearing the neurotransmitter from the synapse.

Answer 38

https://www.mytutor.co.uk/answers/24390/A-Level/Biology/How-is-an-action-potential-transmitted-across-a-cholinergic-synapse/

Question 39

From the EC50 values listed, which drug would have the highest potency?

Select one:

a.
Drug A (EC50 = 2)

b.
Drug B (EC50 = 4)

c.
Drug C (EC50 = 8)

d.
Drug D (EC50 = 16)

Answer 39

Drug A (EC50 = 2) (the lower the number, the higher EC50 value

Question 40

A hydrophilic (water soluble) medicinal agent has the following property:

Select one:

a.
Is non-ionised (it has no electrical charge)

b.
Easy permeation through the blood-brain-barrier

c.
Can easily penetrate through cell membranes

d.
Low ability to penetrate through cell membranes

Answer 40

Low ability to penetrate through cell membranes

Question 41

An ideal drug should have the following important attributes:

Select one:

a.
Toxicity and efficacy

b.
Affinity and toxicity

c.
Potency and affinity

d.
Efficacy and a narrow therapeutic index

Answer 41

Potency and affinity

Question 42

If a drug has a half-life of 4 hours:

Select one:

a.
The plasma concentration of the drug will fall to 50% of the peak plasma concentration in 4 hours

b.
The drug will exhibit its maximum effect after 4 hours

c.
The initial dose of drug administered will be eliminated from the plasma in 4 hours

d.
Therapeutic plasma levels will be reached in 4 hours

Answer 42

The plasma concentration of the drug will fall to 50% of the peak plasma concentration in 4 hours

Question 43

Which route of administration is subject to first-pass metabolism?

Select one:

a.
Intramuscular

b.
Subcutaneous

c.
Intravenous

d.
Oral

Answer 43

Oral

Question 44

Which of the following best describes an agonist?

Select one:

a.
A specific regulatory molecule in the biologic system where a drug interacts

b.
A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity

c.
Any substance that brings about a change in biologic function through its enzymatic action

d.
A drug that binds to a receptor and prevents its activation

Answer 44

A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity

Question 45

Which route of administration listed is enteral?

Select one:

a.
Intramuscular

b.
Transdermal

c.
Subcutaneous

d.
Rectal

Answer 45

Rectal

Question 46

What route of administration should be avoided if a drug is subject to a high degree of first pass metabolism?

Select one:

a.
Oral

b.
Sublingual

c.
Intramuscular

d.
Intravenous

Answer 46

Oral

Question 47

Prokaryotic cells can be distinguished from eukaryotic cells because only the prokaryotic cells:

Select one:

a.
lack sub-cellular organelles

b.
have a cell wall

c.
reproduce by mitosis

d.
contain mitochondria

Answer 47

lack sub-cellular organelles

Question 48

Two classes of drugs commonly used as surgical pre-medications include:

Select one:

a.
Antirheumatics and opioids

b.
Benzodiazepines and opioids

c.
Dopamine agonists and opioids

d.
Histamine agonists and dopamine antagonists

Answer 48

Benzodiazepines and opioids

Question 49

The vaccine, Gardasil, is used to confer protection against which microorganism?

Select one:

a.
Human Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)

b.
Hepatitis B Virus (HBV)

c.
Polio Virus (OPV)

d.
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)

Answer 49

Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)

Question 50

Severe epiglotitis is associated with which of the following signs and symptoms?

Select one:

a.
All of these options are correct

b.
Stridor

c.
Poor ventilation and increased concentrations of carbon dioxide in the circulation

d.
Airway obstruction

Answer 50

All of these options are correct

Question 51

The main causative agent of bacterial pharyngitis which is also known as ‘Strep throat’ is:

Select one:

a.
S. epidermidis

b.
S. pyogenes

c.
S. aureus

d.
S. marcescans

Answer 51

S. pyogenes

Question 52

A vaccine is described as:

Select one:

a.
Protective against microorganisms and some cancers

b.
All of these choices are correct

c.
Stimulates activation of both B and T lymphocytes to create memory cells

d.
A biological substance that causes an immune response but not the disease

Answer 52

All of these choices are correct

Question 53

Medicines that result in an increase in blood glucose include:

Select one:

a.
Thyroid hormones

b.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

c.
Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors

d.
High-dose salicylates (NSAIDS)

Answer 53

Thyroid hormones

Question 54

Medicines that result in a decrease in blood glucose include:

Select one:

a.
Thiazide diuretics

b.
High-dose salicylates (NSAIDS)

c.
Thyroid hormones

d.
Βeta2 agonists

Answer 54

High-dose salicylates (NSAIDS)

Question 55

Microvascular dysfunction and disease seen in diabetes includes:

Select one:

a.
Nephropathy and retinopathy

b.
Myopathy and retinopathy

c.
Retinopathy and myopathy

d.
Nephropathy and myopathy

Answer 55

Nephropathy and retinopathy

Question 56

Which of the following is a factor affecting insulin absorption?

Select one:

a.
All of these factors affects insulin absorption

b.
Temperature

c.
Exercise of the injected area

d.
Site of injection

Answer 56

All of these factors affects insulin absorption

Question 57

The thyroid gland is dependent on the hypothalamic–pituitary axis for regulation. Increasing the concentration of thyroid hormone (by taking replacement thyroid hormone) would:

Select one:

a.
suppress hypothalamic release of TRH

b.
increase hypothalamic release of TRH

c.
increase pituitary release of TSH

d.
stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more T3 and T4

Answer 57

suppress hypothalamic release of TRH

Question 58

Salbutamol, a beta-2 adrenoreceptor agonist, is used to treat restrictive airway diseases because:

Select one:

a.
it prevents the production of mucous within the airways of the lungs

b.
it blocks mast cell activation, preventing histamine release

c.
It promotes relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscle to cause bronchodilation

d.
it activates muscarinic receptors to relax and open the airways

Answer 58

It promotes relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscle to cause bronchodilation

Question 59

A restrictive lung disease is best defined as a:

Select one:

a.
Increase in lung volume or compliance

b.
Reduction in lung volume or compliance

c.
Reduction in airflow to bronchial tree

d.
Increase in airflow to bronchial tree

Answer 59

Reduction in lung volume or compliance

Question 60

What term describes a gasping inhalation with a corresponding inefficient exhalation?

Select one:

a.
Kussmaul breathing

b.
Apneusis breathing

c.
Tachypnoea

d.
Hyperpnoea

Answer 60

Apneusis breathing

Question 61

Excessive use of a β2 adrenoceptor agonist may result in:

Select one:

a.
tachycardia

b.
fine muscle tremor

c.
All of these options are correct

d.
cardiac dysrhythmia

Answer 61

All of these options are correct

Question 62

Theophyline, a cAMP and cGMP phosphodiesterase inhibitor, is used in the treatment of

Select one:

a.
urinary retention

b.
Angina

c.
asthma

d.
Hypertension

Answer 62

asthma

Question 63

A 20-year-old woman has occasional asthma symptoms during the winter when she goes snowboarding. The medication of choice to relieve her asthma symptoms is:

Select one:

a.
a corticosteroid

b.
a methylxanthine

c.
a long-acting β2 adrenergic agonist

d.
a short-acting β2 adrenergic agonist

Answer 63

a short-acting β2 adrenergic agonist

Question 64

Which statement is MOST correct regarding Emphysema?

Select one:

a.
Emphysema is characterized by the loss of elasticity of the lung tissue and the destruction of supporting structures

b.
Emphysema is often caused by exposure to toxic chemicals or long-term exposure to tobacco smoke

c.
Emphysema is a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

d.
All of the options are correct

Answer 64

All of the options are correct

Question 65

The hyper-responsiveness in an individual’s bronchi to an allergen is best described as:

Select one:

a.
Bronchial dysrhythmia

b.
Allergic rhinitis

c.
Emphysema

d.
Bronchial asthma

Answer 65

Allergic rhinitis

Question 66

Metoprolol, a reversible competitive antagonist of ß1-adrenoceptors:

Select one:

a.
competes with uptake of noradrenaline into nerve endings

b.
competes with noradrenaline for binding to the ß1-adrenoceptor

c.
inhibits the metabolism of noradrenaline by monoamine oxidase

d.
prevents the release of noradrenaline from parasympathetic nerve endings

Answer 66

competes with noradrenaline for binding to the ß1-adrenoceptor

Question 67

Vasodilator drugs relax the smooth muscle in blood vessels, which causes the vessels to dilate. They are used in the treatment of:

Select one:

a.
hypertension, heart failure and angina

b.
angina, hypotension, and thrombosis

c.
oedema, hypertension, and thrombosis

d.
hypotension, oedema, and heart failure

Answer 67

hypertension, heart failure and angina

Question 68

What is the clinical term for angina caused by coronary vasospasm?

Select one:

a.
Myocardial infarction

b.
Classic angina

c.
Unstable angina

d.
Prinzmetal angina

Answer 68

Prinzmetal angina

Question 69

Thrombolytic drugs:

Select one:

a.
inhibit tissue plasminogen activators to dissolve clots

b.
inactivate plasmin so that fibrin cross-links break down

c.
induce cross-linking of fibrin molecules to compact and dislodge clots

d.
dissolve blood clots by activating plasminogen

Answer 69

dissolve blood clots by activating plasminogen

Question 70

Which of the following is a drug class used to treat hypertension?

Select one:

a.
Calcium channel sensitisers

b.
Beta adrenoceptor agonists

c.
Diuretics

d.
Angiotensin II receptor agonist

Answer 70

Diuretics ( i don’t think this is right. but that what feedback came back)

Question 71

Aspirin action as an anti-platelet drug is via:

Select one:

a.
Enhances thrombin activity and the factors involved in the clotting cascade

b.
Inhibits COX1 and thus thromboxane synthesis

c.
Converts inactive plasminogen into active plasmin

d.
Inhibits the enzyme cascade that produces plasmin

Answer 71

Inhibits COX1 and thus thromboxane synthesis

Question 72

Thrombolytic drugs:

Select one:

a.
inactivate plasmin so that fibrin cross-links break down

b.
induce cross-linking of fibrin molecules to compact and dislodge clots

c.
dissolve blood clots by activating plasminogen

d.
inhibit tissue plasminogen activators to dissolve clots

Answer 72

dissolve blood clots by activating plasminogen

Question 73

The most appropriate term for a condition where there is inadequate bone mineralisation in an adult is:

Select one:

a.
Osteoporosis

b.
Osteomalacia

c.
Osteopenia

d.
Rickets

Answer 73

Osteomalacia

Question 74

Corticosteroids are used for the treatment of all of the following, except which one?

Select one:

a.
Asthma

b.
Addison’s disease

c.
Cushing’s syndrome

d.
Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer 74

Cushing’s syndrome

Question 75

Endogenous glucocorticoids are produced by the:

Select one:

a.
Zona pellucida

b.
Zona glomerulosa

c.
Zona fasciculata

d.
Zona reticularis

Answer 75

Zona fasciculata

Question 76

An autoimmune disorder that attacks the thyroid and causes it to make more thyroid hormone than the body needs

Select one:

a.
Addison’s disease

b.
Grave’s disease

c.
Cushing’s syndrome

d.
Hasimoto’s disease

Answer 76

Grave’s disease

Question 77

The hormone interaction whereby the effects of two or more hormones together are more than the additive effect of each individual hormone is known as:

Select one:

a.
Agonistic

b.
Antagonistic

c.
Synergism

d.
Permissive

Answer 77

Synergism

Question 78

When a person is not receiving supplemental oxygen, how much of the air they breathe is made up of oxygen?

Select one:

a.
100%

b.
50.8%

c.
20.9%

d.
99.98%

Answer 78

c.

20.9%

Question 79

Which of these groups of drugs is used for asthma treatment?

Select one:

a.
Methylxanthines

b.
anti-muscarinic agents

c.
Beta2 - stimulants

d.
All of these are correct

Answer 79

All of these are correct

Question 80

A pulmonary thromboembolism may cause:

Select one:

a.
Increased pressure in the left atrium

b.
Increased pressure in the right atrium

c.
Increased pressure in the right ventricle

d.
Increased pressure in the left ventricle

Answer 80

Increased pressure in the right ventricle

Question 81

Long-term exposure to which of the following can increase the risk for COPD?

Select one:

a.
Airborne chemicals

b.
Pollutants

c.
Lung irritants

d.
All of the above

Answer 81

All of the above

Question 82

Bronchodilators have direct action on what type of receptor?

Select one:

a.
Beta-2

b.
Beta-1

c.
Alpha-2

d.
Alpha-1

Answer 82

Beta-2

Question 83

Explain what the bioavailability of a drug is. Include in your answer TWO different examples of factors that can alter drug bioavailability and briefly outline why.

Answer 83

Bioavailability; the amount/fraction/dose of the enteral/oral drug that reaches the systemic circulation as an intact drug (after first pass metabolism/ hepatic metabolism) refers to the bioavailability of the drug. Some drugs such as amoxicillin, metronidazole, fluconazole has same bioavailability or same doge of drug in the systematic circulation through administration of both iv or oral administration. Where as opiods such as morphine has low bioavailability meaning lower dose is required for parenteral route compared to enteral route ( after going through hepatic circulation, the drug dose or the fraction of drug is reduced when it reaches the systemic circulation).

Question 84

Describe the mechanism by which opioid drugs like morphine produce their analgesic effects. What is the consequence(s) of long-term use and abuse of opioids?

Answer 84

Opioids such as morphine acts on the neuronal cell membrane receptors in order to produce their analgesic action. it’s presynaptic action inhibits neurotransmitter release causing a major effect on nervous system.

long term opioids abuse can cause complication such as opioid addiction and respiratory distress. Morphine help the patient with severe pain in the pain management but also decreases the respiratory effort leading to respiratory distress in long term. It is common to get opioid addiction with common use.

Question 85

What is angina pectoris? Outline why this occurs, and describe one pharmacological approach that is used to alleviate the symptoms. (within your answer you should note a drug class used in this situation and its mechanism of action)

Answer 85

short answer question

Question 86

Describe the pathophysiology behind the development of osteoporosis. Then, highlight the mechanism of action of bisphosphonates to show why they are an effective treatment for this disease.

Answer 86

short answer question

Question 87

Asthma can be a significant medical emergency. Describe how β2-agonists are used to relieve an asthma attack and indicate why non-selective β-blockers are contraindicated in these patients

Answer 87

short answer question

Question 88

Briefly describe what each of the following pharmacokinetic terms refers to:

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism

Answer 88

short answer question

Question 89

Describe the mechanism of action of local anaesthetic agents. Why is it that local anaesthetics block pain but not other sensory modalities (such a touch, etc) ?

Answer 89

short answer question

Question 90

Compare and contrast the different roles of the pancreatic alpha and beta cells and the hormones that each produces. Use your answer to describe how these cells help to maintain glycaemic control.

Answer 90

short answer question

Question 91

Describe the two phases involved in the pathogenesis of asthma. What is one pharmacological approach that is used to treat asthma in an acute setting? (within your answer you should note a drug class used in this situation and its mechanism of action)

Answer 91

short answer question

Question 92

Statins, also known as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, are a class of lipid-lowering medications. Briefly outline their mechanism of action to show why they are an effective means to control hypercholesterolaemi

Answer 92

short answer question

Question 93

What is the primary objective in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease? Briefly describe how this is achieved.

Answer 93

short answer question

Question 94

Describe the features of a malignant tumour as compared to a benign tumour.

Answer 94

short answer question

Question 95

The comparison of the concentration at which a drug becomes toxic and the concentration at which the drug is effective

Answer 95

Therapeutic Index

Question 96

The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion

Answer 96

Pharmacokinetics (emcq)

Question 97

The process(es) by which a drug is cleared from an organism, either in an unaltered form or as a metabolite

Answer 97

Excretion

Question 98

The means through which endogenous ligands and (most) drugs exert a biological effect

Answer 98

receptor

Question 99

Describes the delivery of a drug by a means other than via the GI tract

Answer 99

Parenteral

Question 100

The separation of the active ingredient from the excipient (vehicle

Answer 100

Liberation

Question 101

The process of synthesising glucose in the body from non-carbohydrate sources

Answer 101

Gluconeogenesis

Question 102

The active form of thyroxine, approximately 80% is produced from the conversion of thyroxine by organs such as the liver and kidneys

Answer 102

Triiodothyronine

Question 103

A hormone produced by the thyroid gland that lowers the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood and promotes the formation of bone

Answer 103

Calcitonin

Question 104

Describes the formation of glycogen from glucose which takes place when blood glucose levels are sufficiently high to allow excess glucose to be stored in liver and muscle cells.

Answer 104

Glycogenesis

Question 105

ACTH, TSH, GH, and prolactin are all hormones that are produced by what?

Answer 105

Anterior pituitary

Question 106

The rare but potentially life-threatening complication that may arise with hyperthyroidism

Answer 106

Thyrotoxic crisis

Question 107

Which enzyme is responsible for the formation of prostanoids, including thromboxane A2 (TXA2), which plays a role in platelet recruitment and aggregation? →

Answer 107

Cyclooxygenase 1

Question 108

Often referred to as the “bad” cholesterol, high levels of this lipoprotein is associated with increased rick of atherosclerosis

Answer 108

Low density lipoprotein (LDL)

Question 109

What is the rate-controlling enzyme of the mevalonate pathway, which results in the endogenous production of cholesterol?

Answer 109

HMG-CoA reductase

Question 110

This term describes drugs that affect the conduction speed in the AV node, and subsequently the rate of electrical impulses in the heart

Answer 110

Dromotropic

Question 111

The lipoprotein class that carries cholesterol back to the liver. Low levels of this lipoprotein are associated with increased risk of atherosclerosis

Answer 111

High-density lipoprotein (HDL)

Question 112

The amount of ventricular stretch at the end of diastole; also known as the left ventricular end-diastolic pressure

Answer 112

Preload

Question 113

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

Select one:

a.
Influence of drugs on metabolism processes

b.
Drug biotransformation in the organism

c.
Influence of drugs on genes

d.
Complications of drug therapy

Answer 113

Drug biotransformation in the organism

Question 114

Which statement most correctly describes an agonist?

Select one:

a.
Has affinity for a receptor and binding elicits a response

b.
Exerts a biological response but does not posses affinity for a receptor

c.
Has affinity for a receptor and binding does not elicit a response

d.
Lacks affinity and does not elicit a response from a receptor

Answer 114

Has affinity for a receptor and binding elicits a response

Question 115

The term that best describes the strength of interaction between a drug and its receptor binding site is:

Select one:

a.
Selectivity

b.
Potency

c.
Affinity

d.
Specificity

Answer 115

Affinity

Question 116

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of all of the following, EXCEPT:

Select one:

a.
Absorption and distribution of drugs

b.
Drug and receptor interactions

c.
Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs

d.
Mechanisms of drug action

Answer 116

Absorption and distribution of drugs

Question 117

The correct sequence of pharmacokinetic phases a drug may pass through is:

Select one:

a.
Formulation, absorption, metabolism, excretion

b.
Disintegration, absorption, elimination, expiration

c.
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

d.
Administration, inhalation, absorption, excretion

Answer 117

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

Question 118

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of which of the following?

Select one:

a.
Distribution of drugs in the organism

b.
Biotransformation of drugs in the organism

c.
Mechanisms of drug action

d.
Excretion of drug from the organism

Answer 118

Mechanisms of drug action

Question 119

What is the mechanism of action for SSRIs when used to treat depression?

Select one:

a.
Selectively inhibit the presynaptic reuptake of serotonin

b.
Postsynaptic blockade of serotonin 5HT2 and 5HT3 receptors

c.
Competitively and reversibly inhibits monoamine oxidase

d.
Inhibit reuptake of noradrenaline and serotonin into presynaptic terminals

Answer 119

Selectively inhibit the presynaptic reuptake of serotonin

Question 120

Binding of acetylcholine to the cholinergic nicotinic receptor results in a conformational change that:

Select one:

a.
blocks the efflux of K+ ions, preventing repolarisation of the effector cells

b.
allows the efflux of K+ ions, resulting in hyperpolarisation of the effector cells

c.
allows the influx of Na+ ions, resulting in depolarisation of the effector cells

d.
blocks the influx of Na+ ions, preventing depolarisation of the effector cells

Answer 120

allows the influx of Na+ ions, resulting in depolarisation of the effector cells

Question 121

Which type of transient receptor potential channel is involved in nociception associated with mast cell degranulation?

Select one:

a.
TRPC6

b.
TRPV4

c.
TRPM4

d.
TRPA1

Answer 121

TRPM4

Question 122

Microorganisms produce a number of factors that help evade or compromise the body’s immune system. These factors are collectively known as:

Select one:

a.
Toxins

b.
Immunosuppression

c.
Virulence factors

d.
Hypersensitivities

Answer 122

c.

Virulence factors

Question 123

Staphylococcus aureus can be found in the nose and/or skin in at least what percentage of people?

Select one:

a.
15%

b.
25%

c.
33%

d.
55%

Answer 123

33%

Question 124

Local anaesthetics interrupt nerve conduction by which of the following mechanism?

Select one:

a.
Reversible blockade of potassium channels

b.
Irreversible blockade of sodium channels

c.
Reversible blockade of sodium channels

d.
Irreversible blockade of potassium channels

Answer 124

Reversible blockade of sodium channels

Question 125

Why is thiopentone not a drug of choice for providing anaesthesia throughout a surgical procedure?

Select one:

a.
It has a short half-life and a narrow therapeutic index

b.
Thiopentone is not used in general anaesthesia

c.
It does not maintain the state of surgical anaesthesia

d.
Has high lipid solubility & slow metabolism, leading to a prolonged recovery time

Answer 125

Has high lipid solubility & slow metabolism, leading to a prolonged recovery time

Question 126

The major mode of action of the antibiotic penicillin is to inhibit the synthesis of:

Select one:

a.
cell wall peptidoglycans

b.
nucleic acids

c.
mRNA

d.
proteins

Answer 126

cell wall peptidoglycans

Question 127

Phenylephrine is a selective alpha-1 adrenoreceptor agonist. Which of the below is MOST CORRECT regarding the main effects of the alpha1 adrenoreceptor?

Select one:

a.
Promotes potassium uptake in skeletal muscle

b.
Renin release (triggers the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system)

c.
Vasoconstriction and contraction of smooth muscle (eg. vas deferens and prostate)

d.
Cardiac acceleration (increases heart rate, stroke volume and cardiac output)

Answer 127

Vasoconstriction and contraction of smooth muscle (eg. vas deferens and prostate)

Question 128

The acetylcholine nicotinic receptor is an example of a:

Select one:

a.
kinase-linked receptor

b.
nuclear receptor

c.
G-protein coupled receptor

d.
ligand gated ion channel

Answer 128

ligand gated ion channel

Question 129

An autoimmune condition where inflammation and destruction of thyroid tissue reduces the thyroid’s ability to make hormones

Select one:

a.
Grave’s disease

b.
Cushing’s syndrome

c.
Hashimoto’s disease

d.
Addison’s disease

Answer 129

Hashimoto’s disease

Question 130

Which of the following is true for glucagon?

Select one:

a.
Inhibits glucose utilization by skeletal muscle

b.
Stimulates the secretion of insulin by beta cells

c.
Inhibits uptake of amino acids by cells.

d.
Stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver

Answer 130

Stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver

Question 131

Biguanides:

Select one:

a.
Block reabsorption of glucose from kidneys

b.
Decrease hepatic glucose production

c.
Increase insulin receptor numbers on target cells

d.
Stimulate insulin secretion

Answer 131

Decrease hepatic glucose production

Question 132

what concentration of blood glucose would be expected 2 hrs post glucose load in an OGTT which would indicate probable diabetes?

Select one:

a.
11.1 – 16.5 mmol/L

b.
7.8 – 11.0 mmol/L

c.
2.0 to 7.0 mmol/L

d.
3.0 – 7.7 mmol/L

Answer 132

11.1 – 16.5 mmol/L

Question 133

Insulin:

Select one:

a.
Enhances glucose oxidation for energy

b.
Inhibits glycogen and triglyceride formation

c.
Inhibits protein synthesis

d.
Enhances gluconeogenesis

Answer 133

Enhances glucose oxidation for energy

Question 134

The most correct term to describe homeostatic feedback is a No:

Select one:

a.
Positive feedback loop

b.
Negative feedback loop

c.
Permissive feedback loop

d.
Anticipatory feedback loop

Answer 134

Negative feedback loop

Question 135

What important role does acetylcholinesterase play within the cholinergic synapse?

Select one:

a.
Promotes neurotransmission and depolarisation of the post-synaptic cell

b.
Destroys acetylcholine a brief period after it is released by the pre-synaptic axon terminal

c.
Amplifies the effects of acetylcholine after it is released into the synapse

d.
Stimulates the production of acetylcholine

Answer 135

Destroys acetylcholine a brief period after it is released by the pre-synaptic axon terminal

Question 136

A deficiency of dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway contributes to the development of:

Select one:

a.
Parkinson’s disease

b.
drug dependence

c.
schizophrenia

d.
obesity

Answer 136

Parkinson’s disease

Question 137

The morphological changes seen in the wall of bronchus of the asthmatic patient DO NOT include:

Select one:

a.
hypertrophy of submucosal mucus glands

b.
decreased number of goblet cells in the mucosa

c.
accumulation of mucus in the bronchial lumen

d.
thickened basement membrane

Answer 137

decreased number of goblet cells in the mucosa

Question 138

Long-term exposure to which of the following can increase the risk for COPD?

Select one:

a.
Airborne chemicals

b.
Pollutants

c.
Lung irritants

d.
All of the above

Answer 138

All of the above

Question 139

Bronchodilators have direct action on what type of receptor?

Select one:

a.
Alpha-2

b.
Alpha-1

c.
Beta-1

d.
Beta-2

Answer 139

Beta-2

Question 140

A 20-year-old woman has occasional asthma symptoms during the winter when she goes snowboarding. The medication of choice to relieve her asthma symptoms is:

Select one:

a.
a short-acting β2 adrenergic agonist

b.
a corticosteroid

c.
a methylxanthine

d.
a long-acting β2 adrenergic agonist

Answer 140

a short-acting β2 adrenergic agonist

Question 141

The pharmacological actions of theophylline in the treatment of COPD include:

Select one:

a.
All of these statements are correct

b.
Increase mucociliary activity

c.
Bronchodilation

d.
Increase contractility of respiratory muscles

Answer 141

Bronchodilation

Question 142

Which of the following is an obstructive lung condition?

Select one:

a.
Rheumatoid arthritis

b.
Atelectasis

c.
Bronchiectasis

d.
Sarcoidosis

Answer 142

Bronchiectasis

Question 143

A benign tumour:

Select one:

a.
has rapid growth and cell division

b.
is a slowly expanding mass

c.
is frequently life threatening

d.
invades nearby tissues and blood vessels

Answer 143

is a slowly expanding mass

Question 144

Which of the following types of mutation to a proto-oncogene cannot give rise to an oncogene?

Select one:

a.
A translocation which puts the gene under the control of a more active promoter, producing over-expression

b.
A mutation which produces a modified protein that is always active

c.
A point mutation changing just one amino acid in the protein product

d.
Addition or deletion to a gene sequence resulting in an inactive protein product

Answer 144

Addition or deletion to a gene sequence resulting in an inactive protein product

Question 145

Which of the following is an example of a decreased rate arrhythmia?

Select one:

a.
fibrillation

b.
tachycardia

c.
bradycardia

d.
flutter

Answer 145

bradycardia

Question 146

High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is:

Select one:

a.
A lipoprotein that contains relatively high amounts of cholesterol and is associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease

b.
A lipoprotein containing a very large proportion of lipids and low protein, which has a very low density and carries most triglycerides from the liver to the tissues

c.
A large lipoprotein particle that is created by the absorptive cells of the small intestine. It transports lipids to the liver and adipose tissue where they are broken down

d.
A lipoprotein that contains relatively small amounts of cholesterol and triglycerides and is associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease

Answer 146

A lipoprotein that contains relatively small amounts of cholesterol and triglycerides and is associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease

Question 147

There are two basic types of systemic hypertension, primary (essential) hypertension and secondary hypertension. The vast majority of patients with hypertension (90-95%) have:

Select one:

a.
idiopathic secondary hypertension

b.
secondary hypertension

c.
both primary and secondary hypertension

d.
primary hypertension

Answer 147

primary hypertension

Question 148

Aspirin is beneficial and reduces the risk of blood clot formation because it:

Select one:

a.
Impairs the liver’s capacity to use Vitamin K

b.
Increases the levels of anti-thrombin III

c.
Inhibits COX enzymes and thus thromboxane synthesis

d.
Binds to platelets to prevent their interaction with fibrin

Answer 148

inhibits COX enzymes and thus thromboxane synthesis

Question 149

Which is important to monitor in patients taking digoxin?

Select one:

a.
Potassium

b.
Zinc

c.
Chloride

d.
Sodium

Answer 149

Potassium

Question 150

Which of the following best defines stroke volume?

Select one:

a.
peak arterial pressure reached during contraction of the ventricles.

b.
lowest arterial pressure reached while the ventricles are relaxed.

c.
Mean pressure in the veins

d.
the amount of blood ejected from the ventricle with each heart beat

Answer 150

the amount of blood ejected from the ventricle with each heart beat

Question 151

Alkylating agents such as cyclophosphamide exert their cytotoxic action by:

Select one:

a.
blocking steroid hormone receptors in hormone responsive tumours

b.
promoting cross-linking of DNA to stop replication

c.
inducing breakage of double-stranded DNA

d.
inhibition of cell replication machinery

Answer 151

promoting cross-linking of DNA to stop replication

Question 152

BRAF is a human gene that encodes a protein called B-Raf. More than 30 activating mutations in the BRAF gene are associated with human cancers. This is because:

Select one:

a.
The B-Raf protein promotes DNA repair

b.
The B-Raf protein halts DNA replication

c.
B-Raf is a pro-apoptotic protein

d.
BRAF is a proto-oncogene

Answer 152

BRAF is a proto-oncogene

Question 153

Describe the mechanism by which opioid drugs like morphine produce their analgesic effects. What is the consequence(s) of long-term use and abuse of opioids?

Answer 153

short answer question

Question 154

Compare and contrast the different roles of the pancreatic alpha and beta cells and the hormones that each produces. Use your answer to describe how these cells help to maintain glycaemic control.

Answer 154

short answer question

Question 155

Asthma can be a significant medical emergency. Describe how β2-agonists are used to relieve an asthma attack and indicate why non-selective β-blockers are contraindicated in these patients.

Answer 155

short answer question

Question 156

Statins, also known as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, are a class of lipid-lowering medications. Briefly outline their mechanism of action to show why they are an effective means to control hypercholesterolaemia.

Answer 156

short answer questions

Question 157

What is the primary objective in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease? Briefly describe how this is achieved.

Answer 157

short answer question

Question 158

Describe the features of a malignant tumour as compared to a benign tumour.

Answer 158

short answer question

Question 159

The ED50 value describes:

Select one:

a.
The concentration of a drug which induces a response halfway between baseline and maximum

b.
The dose required to cause a therapeutic effect (positive response) in 50% of a population

c.
The dose required to produce a lethal effect in 50% of a studied population

d.
The dose required to produce a toxic effect in 50% of the studied population

Answer 159

The dose required to cause a therapeutic effect (positive response) in 50% of a population

Question 160

Whist statement most correctly describes what the therapeutic index (TI) is:

Select one:

a.
A ratio used to evaluate the effectiveness of a drug

b.
A ratio used to evaluate the elimination of a drug

c.
A ratio used to evaluate the bioavailability of a drug

d.
A ratio used to evaluate the safety and usefulness of a drug

Answer 160

A ratio used to evaluate the safety and usefulness of a drug

Question 161

Which of these is a pharmacodynamic factor that could modify the response to a drug?

Select one:

a.
The persons age or gender

b.
Cardiovascular function and body water levels

c.
The number of receptors present

d.
Liver and/or kidney disease

Answer 161

The number of receptors present

Question 162

Potency refers to:

Select one:

a.
The narrowness of a drug’s range of actions

b.
A drug’s ability to produce adverse reactions

c.
A drug’s tendency to produce toxic effects

d.
The amount of drug required to produce an effect

Answer 162

The amount of drug required to produce an effect

Question 163

Pharmacodynamics involves the study of which of the following?

Select one:

a.
Excretion of drug from the organism

b.
Mechanisms of drug action

c.
Distribution of drugs in the organism

d.
Biotransformation of drugs in the organism

Answer 163

Mechanisms of drug action

Question 164

The EC50 value describes:

Select one:

a.
The dose required to produce a toxic effect in 50% of a population

b.
The dose required to have a therapeutic effect (positive response) in 50% of a population

c.
The concentration which induces a response halfway between baseline and maximum

d.
The dose that produces a lethal response in 50% of a population

Answer 164

The concentration which induces a response halfway between baseline and maximum

Question 165

Which route of administration listed is enteral?

Select one:

a.
Subcutaneous

b.
Intramuscular

c.
Transdermal

d.
Rectal

Answer 165

Rectal

Question 166

An antagonist has the following pharmacological property:

Select one:

a.
efficacy

b.
potency

c.
affinity

d.
high blood protein binding

Answer 166

affinity

Question 167

the most rapid effects of a drug are mediated by what class of receptor?

Select one:

a.
Kinase-linked receptors

b.
Ligand-gated ion channels

c.
Nuclear receptors

d.
G protein-coupled receptors

Answer 167

Ligand-gated ion channels

Question 168

If a drug has a half-life of 4 hours:

Select one:

a.
Therapeutic plasma levels will be reached in 4 hours

b.
The drug will exhibit its maximum effect after 4 hours

c.
The initial dose of drug administered will be eliminated from the plasma in 4 hours

d.
The plasma concentration of the drug will fall to 50% of the peak plasma concentration in 4 hours

Answer 168

The plasma concentration of the drug will fall to 50% of the peak plasma concentration in 4 hours

Question 169

An agonist is a substance that:

Select one:

a.
Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects

b.
Increases the concentration of another substance to produce an effect

c.
Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect

d.
Interacts with the receptor without activating it to produce an effect

Answer 169

Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects

Question 170

An agonist is a substance that:

Select one:

a.
Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce an effect

b.
Interacts with a receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing an effect

c.
Interacts with a receptor without producing any effect

d.
Increases the concentration of another substance to produce an effect

Answer 170

.

Interacts with a receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing an effect

Question 171

What does the term “bioavailability” mean?

Select one:

a.
Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial dose accounting for first-pass metabolism

b.
Fraction of an unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration

c.
Permeability through the brain-blood barrier of the fraction of the drug

d.
Plasma protein binding degree of substance following any route of administration

Answer 171

Fraction of an unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration

Question 172

A drug that binds to a cell receptor and activates a response is called:

Select one:

a.
An antagonist

b.
A channel blocker

c.
A receptor blocker

d.
An agonist

Answer 172

An agonist

Question 173

Four drugs each have one of the therapeutic indexes listed below. Which one would require the closest monitoring to avoid toxicity?

Select one:

a.
2

b.
5

c.
100

d.
50

Answer 173

2

Question 174

What does the term half-life mean?

Select one:

a.
The amount of time it takes for the body to absorb and distribute half of the administered drug

b.
Half of the amount of time it takes for the drugs concentration to reach a therapeutic level

c.
The average length of time it takes for the drug to exert 50% of the desired biological effect

d.
The amount of time it takes for the drugs concentration in the circulation to be reduced by half

Answer 174

The amount of time it takes for the drugs concentration in the circulation to be reduced by half

Question 175

Which of the following best describes an agonist?

Select one:

a.
A drug that binds to a receptor and prevents its activation

b.
A specific regulatory molecule in the biologic system where a drug interacts

c.
A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity

d.
Any substance that brings about a change in biologic function through its enzymatic action

Answer 175

.

A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity

Question 176

What are the two main route/s of administration of general anaesthetics in humans?

Select one:

a.
Intravenous and/or inhalation

b.
Intravenous and/or oral

c.
Subcutaneous or inhalation

d.
Intramuscular and/or oral

Answer 176

Intravenous and/or inhalation

Question 177

A vaccine is described as:

Select one:

a.
All of these choices are correct

b.
A biological substance that causes an immune response but not the disease

c.
Protective against microorganisms and some cancers

d.
Stimulates activation of both B and T lymphocytes to create memory cells

Answer 177

All of these choices are correct

Question 178

Which statement is most correct regarding the benefit of using propofol for inducing anaesthesia?

Select one:

a.
It has potent analgesic actions in addition to being a rapid onset general anaesthetic

b.
It has a very fast onset and is rapidly metabolised with a very short half life, giving a rapid recovery

c.
It has very fast onset because it is water soluble and readily passes the blood-brain-barrier

d.
It does not cause any respiratory depression and has a very short half life, so there is rapid recovery from anaesthesia

Answer 178

It has a very fast onset and is rapidly metabolised with a very short half life, giving a rapid recovery

Question 179

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Select one:

a.
All bacteria are pathogenic

b.
Bacteria found in the human body always cause disease

c.
Bacteria found in the human body may sometimes cause disease

d.
All bacteria are beneficial to man

Answer 179

Bacteria found in the human body may sometimes cause disease

Question 180

Characteristics that a general anaesthetic agent will ideally have include:

Select one:

a.
Rapid induction and recovery, low toxicity, narrow therapeutic index, cardiovascular depression

b.
Slow recovery, low toxicity, narrow therapeutic index, respiratory depression

c.
Rapid induction and recovery, low toxicity, wide therapeutic index, respiratory and cardiovascular depression

d.
Rapid induction, low toxicity, wide therapeutic index, analgesic properties

Answer 180

Rapid induction, low toxicity, wide therapeutic index, analgesic properties

Question 181

The type of toxin which is incorporated into a bacterial cell wall is:

Select one:

a.
a fibroprototoxin

b.
an exotoxin

c.
an endotoxin

d.
a gram toxin

Answer 181

an endotoxin

Question 182

Opioids are used as a pre-medication or adjuvant because they are:

Select one:

a.
an analgesic

b.
an antiemetic

c.
anti-cholinergic (to reverse paralysis)

d.
anti-muscarinic (to reduce salivation)

Answer 182

an analgesic

Question 183

Actions of hormones may be:

Select one:

a.
All of these are correct

b.
Autocrine

c.
Endocrine

d.
Paracrine

Answer 183

All of these are correct

Question 184

Insulin causes reduction in blood sugar level by the following mechanisms, EXCEPT:

Select one:

a.
Reduction of breakdown of glycogen

b.
Diminished gluconeogenesis

c.
Increased glucose uptake in the peripheral tissue

d.
Decreased glucose absorption from the gut

Answer 184

Decreased glucose absorption from the gut

Question 185

Vascular effects of chronic hyperglycaemia include:

Select one:

a.
Peripheral microvascular expansion

b.
Lipolysis and atherosclerotic plaque remodelling

c.
Structural changes of blood vessels and inadequate blood supply to tissues

d.
Vasodilation and increased cardiac output

Answer 185

Peripheral microvascular expansion (not sure)

Question 186

Which of the following would be the treatment of choice for hypothyroidism?

Select one:

a.
A thioureylene, such as carbimazole

b.
thyroxine/levo-thyroxine

c.
Iodine/Iodide

d.
A corticosteroid, such as hydrocortisone

Answer 186

thyroxine/levo-thyroxine

Question 187

Endogenous mineralocorticoids are produced by the:

Select one:

a.
Zona pellucida

b.
Zona reticularis

c.
Zona glomerulosa

d.
Zona fasciculata

Answer 187

Zona glomerulosa

Question 188

Corticosteroids such as prednisone:

Select one:

a.
can decrease blood glucose levels

b.
can promote immune responses

c.
can increase the risk of infection

d.
can speed up the wound healing

Answer 188

can increase the risk of infection ( i think)

it also increase blood glucose

Question 189

If diabetic ketoacidosis occurs,

Select one:

a.
blood pH increases.

b.
patient’s breath rate increases.

c.
blood pH decreases.

d.
both blood pH decreases and patient’s breath rate increases.

Answer 189

both blood pH decreases and patient’s breath rate increases.

Question 190

What is the enzyme responsible for breaking down acetylcholine in the synapse?

Select one:

a.
Acetyltransferase

b.
Lipase

c.
Monoamine oxidase

d.
Acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

Answer 190

Acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

Question 191

Which of the following is correct regarding adrenergic neurotransmission?

Select one:

a.
Monoamine oxidase (MAO) converts dopamine to noradrenaline in the nerve terminal.

b.
Tricyclic antidepressants and SNRIs prevent reuptake of noradrenaline into the nerve terminals.

c.
Adrenaline is the major neurotransmitter released from sympathetic nerve terminals.

d.
Noradrenaline is mainly released from the adrenal glands

Answer 191

I DONT KNOW BUT NOT C

Question 192

An elderly man was brought to the emergency room after he ingested a large quantity of carvedilol tablets, a non-selective beta adrenoreceptor antagonist (blocks α1, β1, and β2 adrenergic receptors).

Which of the following symptoms would you expect in this patient?

Select one:

a.
Increased heart rate (tachycardia)

b.
Reduced heart rate (bradycardia)

c.
Increased blood pressure

d.
Dilation of the pupil (mydriasis)

Answer 192

Reduced heart rate (bradycardia)

Question 193

A 22-year-old woman is being treated with amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, for depression. She, and her Family, should be cautioned about not seeing a therapeutic effect for:

Select one:

a.
1 week

b.
3 days

c.
3-4 weeks

d.
24 hours

Answer 193

3-4 weeks

Question 194

The overall aim of antidepressant therapy is to:

Select one:

a.
block the action of monoamines in CNS

b.
cause sedation so patient doesn’t get worried

c.
decrease serotonin levels in CNS synapses

d.
raise monoamine levels in CNS synapses

Answer 194

decrease serotonin levels in CNS synapses(not sure at all) not B though

Question 195

Metoprolol, an orally active and reversible competitive antagonist at β1-adrenoceptors:

Select one:

a.
inhibits the metabolism of noradrenaline by monoamine oxidase

b.
prevents the release of noradrenaline from parasympathetic nerve endings

c.
competes with noradrenaline for binding to the β1-adrenoceptor

d.
competes with uptake of noradrenaline into nerve endings

Answer 195

competes with noradrenaline for binding to the β1-adrenoceptor

Question 196

The biochemical theory of schizophrenia known as the Dopamine hypothesis refers to:

Select one:

a.
Allergic sensitivity to Dopamine

b.
Excess Dopamine activity

c.
Contaminated Dopamine

d.
Insufficient Dopamine activity

Answer 196

Excess Dopamine activity

Question 197

The primary neurotransmitter released by sympathetic postganglionic axons is:

Select one:

a.
Acetylcholine

b.
Adrenaline

c.
Noradrenaline

d.
Choline

Answer 197

Noradrenaline

Question 198

An example of how an indirect acting cholinergic drug might work would be:

Select one:

a.
Binding and activation of parasympathetic receptors

b.
Binding and inactivation of parasympathetic receptors

c.
Preventing the release of acetylcholine from the axon terminal

d.
Inhibition of the acetylcholinesterase enzyme

Answer 198

Inhibition of the acetylcholinesterase enzyme

Question 199

Men can be tested for Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) in their blood which may indicate the presence of early prostate cancer. How reliable is this test?

Select one:

a.
It achieves a 97% accurate level of detection of early disease

b.
It is highly specific in its identification of early prostate cancer

c.
It has no validity as a test of early prostate cancer

d.
Over 2 thirds (66%) of men with raised PSA levels will not have prostate cancer

Answer 199

Over 2 thirds (66%) of men with raised PSA levels will not have prostate cancer

Question 200

Which cancer therapy tries to selectively target the tumour and not affect the normal cells of the body?

Select one:

a.
chemotherapy

b.
surgery

c.
radiotherapy

d.
immunotherapy

Answer 200

immunotherapy

Question 201

The migration and invasion of cancer cells from the site of origin to another part of the body is called:

Select one:

a.
proliferation

b.
apoptosis

c.
oncogenesis

d.
metastasis

Answer 201

metastasis

Question 202

Which statement is most correct regarding castrate-resistant prostate cancer:

Select one:

a.
Is an androgen-independent phase of the disease

b.
Has reduced androgen receptor activity

c.
Relies on estrogen signalling

d.
Is still dependent on androgens for cancer cell growth and survival

Answer 202

not B (IDK)

Question 203

Which of the following is a possible reason for therapy resistance in cancer?

Select one:

a.
Development of mechanisms to inactivate a drug

b.
Gene amplification rendering a drug ineffective

c.
Increase in efficiency of transport mechanisms to remove drugs from the cell

d.
All of these are correct

Answer 203

All of these are correct

Question 204

Which of the following is NOT one of the ten hallmarks of cancer?

Select one:

a.
tumour-promoting inflammation

b.
Avoiding immune detection

c.
Inhibition and prevention of angiogenesis

d.
Resisting cell death

Answer 204

Inhibition and prevention of angiogenesis

Question 205

What diagnostic procedure is needed for diagnosis and 100% confirmation of breast cancer?

Select one:

a.
mammography

b.
tissue biopsy

c.
ultrasound

d.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Answer 205

tissue biopsy

Question 206

Cancer may be caused by any number of mutations that affect cell function and growth. These may include:

Select one:

a.
Activation of oncogenes and inactivation of tumour suppressors

b.
Spontaneous initiation of apoptosis

c.
Over-stimulation of DNA repair genes

d.
Inactivation of proto-oncogenes and oncogenes

Answer 206

Activation of oncogenes and inactivation of tumour suppressors