Pharmacology II Exams Flashcards
Phenobarbital may not protect against ________seizure
Nonconvulsive primary generalized seizures
cerebellum controlls?
balance
Drugs that the metabolism of theophylline is inhibited by (choose 2):
Erythromycin
Cimetidine
Most potent H2 - receptor antagonists:
Femotidine
Theophylline partially blocks effects of NMBD by?
inhibition of phosphodiesterase
Gabapentin is eliminated by?
renal
adding Ketamine and theophylline together does what?
decreases seizure threshold
strongest predictor of PONV?
gender
MOA for benzos with PONV?
Decreasing synthesis and release of dopamine
Metoclopramide blocks _____ on receptor sites at CRTZ
dopamine
Clobazam is unique due to?
No sedation with long term use
According to ERAS, which patient would need a decrease in the dose of gabapentin from 600 mg to 300 mg?
30 year old female with OSA
Which of the following is true?
Levodopa replenishes dopamine stores in
the basal ganglia
The objective in treating Parkinson’s disease is to? (choose 2)
Decrease debilitating symptoms
Palliative Nature
80% of the dopamine in the brain is in the? (choose 2)
Caudate nucleus
Putamen
Gabapentin is given for?
partial and generalized seizures
All of the following are part of the afferent pathway involved in vomiting stimulation except?
Histaminergic pathway
works through
chemoreceptor trigger zone, cerebral cortex labyrinthovestibular center neurovegetative system
Which of the following medications is most effective in lowering triglycerides?
Fenofibrate (fibrates)
Mainstay treatment for hyperlipidemia?
Statins (lovastatin)
B2 effects with epinephrine? (choose 2)
- In presence of betablocker, bronchoconstriction due to alpha bronchial constriction
- Reduces vasoactive mediators for asthma
Antidepressant increase suicidal ideation in which two patient populations? (choose 2)
Adolescents
Children
Beta blocker with vasodilating effect?
Nobivolol (bystolic)
Levodopa question with newly started levodopa asking about symptoms?
Have you had a low blood pressure?
A drug that has effect of syncope w/ first dose, anticholinergic effects, and priapism?
prazosin (minipress)
Which drug is least protein bound?
gabapentin
What is seen with malnutrition or renal or hepatic disease, can result in increased plasma concentrations of unbound anti-epileptic drugs, resulting in toxicity?
Hypoalbuminemia
In pregnancy, hypoalbuminemia is due to ___ which offsets effect.
Progressive increase in central volume
Initial treatments for levodopa hypotension? (choose 2)
Compression stockings
Fluids
Patient with CAD, DM and CVA, getting a surgery done, what would the prudent SRNA assure?
Assure they are on a beta blocker
Only agent requiring routine monitoring?
Phenytoin
Gabapentin MOA?
enhanced GABA activity
Seizure medication for laboring pregnant woman?
Clobazam
Which is a pro drug?
Fenofibrate
Benzodiazepines increase the frequency of GABA mediated channels.
What does phenobarbital and other barbiturates do?
Increased duration of ion channel opening
Most Common adverse effect of statins?
myalgia
Phenobarbital principle site of action?
Chloride Ion Channel (Flood p. 347 Table 13.2)
Which of the following is naturally occurring?
Lovastatin
Which of the following is located outside the blood brain barrier, has contact with CSF, and allows substances in blood and CSF to interact?
CTZ
Teratogenesis occurs within
8 weeks
In which of the following is myopathy frequent?
Lovastatin
The astute SRNA knows that they will have to monitor blood glucose levels with what kind of drip?
epinephrine
Most common cholesterol in plasma?
LDL
Mrs. Smith was told to stop taking all her medications 4 days before surgery (including levodopa). What signs or symptoms would you expect to see the day of surgery?
Neuroleptic malignant like syndrome
New seizure drug’s elimination half time is 24hrs. How often do you expect medication given?
Q 12 hrs
Niacin most common side effect?
Flushing
Intubating someone what do you need to be careful about if they take which med?
Amlodipine
All these work on the vomiting center except
Alpha-gaminobutric acid
Hydrolysis of triglycerides occurs where?
Pancreas and small intestine
or intestinal endothelium
Flood p. 542
Anatomical sites that activate the vomiting center include all EXCEPT?
Not included: Hypothalamus
Anatomic sites that activate the vomiting center include: -vestibular apparatus,
- thalamus,
- cerebral cortex, and
- neurons within the GI tract (Flood, p. 693)
Which is true of niacin?
Hyperglycemia and abnormal glucose tolerance may occur in nondiabetic patients
The vomiting efferent signals via cranial nerves? (choose 3)
V, VII, IX, X, and XII
5, 7, 9, 10 & 12
Histamine receptor antagonist?
Promethazine
MOA of macrolides:
Prokinetic properties are attributed to their binding to motilin receptors in the stomach and doudenum
Early postop nausea occurs?
within 6 hours
The vomiting center is located in the?
medulla
Risk for PONV:
35 female lap procedure
4 year old Female strabismus surgery
What symptoms are associated with scopolamine 24- 48 hours?
visual disturbances
Prolong QT? (choose 3)
Metoclopramide
Droperidol
Ondansteron
What drug increases Triglycerides?
Cholestyramine
Medication for patients actively vomiting pt in PACU?
Dopamine antagonist
Controversial but believed to increase PONV?
Neostigmine
Medication to avoid with restless leg syndrome?
Reglan (metoclopramide)
Which drug has a serotogenic effect?
zofran
Reglan works by???? (choose 2)
Dopamine antagonist
Blocks histamine
Reglan works by?? (choose 3) (How does it work/ what does it do to the body/ it’s job)
Contract lowers esophageal sphincter
Increases small intestinal mobility
Relaxations of pylorus
MOA of Phenytoin?
Sodium channel blockade
Which of the following is an early complication with parenteral nutrition
Hypophosphatemia
Pyroxidine would be used in caution with what disease
parkinson’s disease
A deficiency in this vitamin would cause changes in hematopoiesis system and nervous system
Vitamin B12 Deficiency
Which of the following is an example of a fat soluble vitamin
Vitamin A
DEAK
You would caution the use of what drug with a patient taking St. John’s Wart?
Serotonin Antagonist
What medication was taken off the shelf because it causes prolonged QT, MI, stroke death.
Ephedra
True or False: Levodopa replenishes dopamine stores in the Medulla?
False, replenishes dopamine stores in the basal ganglia
Which of the following medications is most effective in lowering triglycerides?
Fenofibrate (Fibrates)
Which is a pro drug?
Fenofibrate
In neonates, doses of 1mg or greater may cause hemolytic anemia and increase the plasma concentrations of unbound bilirubin, thus increasing the risk of kernicterus.
Phytonadione
Antidepressant increase suicidal ideation in which two patient populations? (choose 2)
Adolescents
Children
Levodopa question with newly started levodopa asking about symptoms?
Have you had a low blood pressure?
Which is least protein bound?
Gabapentin
The vominting center is located in the?
medulla
Deficiency can cause of vitamin A can lead to
Night blindness
What factor is not synthesized by vitamin K
XII
This deficiency can lead to rickets
Vitamin D
Which of the following is not associated with enteral feeding
Decreased absorption in the small intestine
All of the following interfere with Warfarin EXCEPT
Golden Seal
Which of the following stimulates the release of Growth Hormone
Stress
What is the initial building block of corticosteroid synthesis
Cholesterol
Corticotropin releasing hormone and ACTH are: (Choose 2) (concentration and time of day)
High in the am
Low in the pm
Which of the following is released from the zona glomerulosa:
aldosterone
Which of the following is NOT true regarding absence of ACTH choose 2
Hyperpigmentation is associated with a low ACTH from primary adrenal insuffiency
Pallor is associated with Hyperpituitarism …
from ppt:
Hyperpigmentation in presence of adrenal insufficiency from primary adrenal gland disease reflects high concentrations of ACTH in plasma as the anterior pituitary attempts to stimulate corticosteroid secretion.
Pallor is the hallmark of HYPOpituitarism.
Estrogen most common side effect
Nausea
Yes, FLood p. 773 - “the most frequent unpleasant symptom with the use of estrogen is nausea”
Choose three things vasopressin does
Vasoconstriction
Reabsorption of water
Release of corticotropin
What is the side effect of iodine?
angioedema
When is radioactive iodine contraindicated?
26 year old parturient
What is given for DI?
DDAVP
What is the Prohormone to T3
T4 is a prohormone to T3
AVP and oxytocin are secreted from the ______ and transported via _____ to the ____.
Hypothalamus,
axons,
posterior pituitary
PTH has targeted effects on: (Choose 2)
Kidneys
GI
According to the ADA and WHO classification of diabetes which of the following is TRUE (Choose 2)
The underlying disease etiology
Not classified by age of onset
A patient diabetic patient with liver cirrhosis would more than likely be prescribed what sulfonylurea:
Acetohexamide
Consequences with diabetes usually resolves with a blood level less than:
200 mg/dL
Which of the following describes endocrine glands that secrete hormones adjacent to the site of origin:
Paracrine
Which of the following is the longest acting Sulfonylurea:
Chlorpropamide
All of the following are side effects of chronic corticosteroid therapy EXCEPT:
Acromegaly
What is the level of daily insulin secretion in a normal patient:
40 U/Day
True or False: Insulin is metabolized in the portal vein of the liver by second pass?
False
Which of the following does NOT cause hypoglycemia:
Metformin
What causes lactic acidosis
Metformin
he liver is _____ in insulin and uses _____ to produce _______ and be used as an energy source for skeletal and cardiac muscle
Insufficient, free fatty acids, ketones
First thing you see with thyroid dysfunction
Cardiac changes
Which of the following causes an aberrant production of AVP:
Oat cell carcinoma
This has reactions similar to disulfiram
Chlorpropamide
What would you expect in a patient with hyper/hypothyroidism: (Not the exact question but something about thyroid disease and anesthesia)
No alterations in MAC because there is no affect on O2
brain consumption
Which of the following is true regarding thyroid disease:
Hyperthyroidism causes 100% increase in O2 consumption
pancreatic cells come from
Beta
PTH increases
Renal absorption of calcium and inhibits renal reabsorption of phosphate.
You would except the O2 consumption in a patient with hyperthyroidism to increase by:
100%
Glucocorticoids permissive actions allow individual for response to stress
At low physiologic steroid concentrations
What is the cause of DI?
Inadequate secretion of vasopressin by posterior pituitary
Permissive action of glucocorticoids:
Occur at low physiological steroid concentrations and prepares the individual for stress
The Thyroid receives innervation from the:
Autonomic nervous system (Flood page 738)
How many parathyroid glands secrete PTH?
4 (Flood 739)
PTH has what kind of relationship with calcium?
Inverse (Flood 739)
Early nutritional support is proactive therapy: What 4 things does it help with?
Reduces disease severity
Diminish complications
Decrease Length of Stay
Favorably impacts patient outcome after severe injury
Greatest risk of hypoglycemia occurs with drugs with the longest elimination half times (choose 2)
Chlorpropamide and glyburide
The most common setting for symptomatic hypocalcemia is
within 12-24 hrs after surgery, particularly after total of or subtotal thyridectomy of 4 gland parathyroid exploration or removal.
hypocalcemia can cause:
Neuromuscular irritability
What can DDAVP NOT treat?
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Pyridoxine b6 can cause what toxic effect?
Neurotoxicity
Folic acid deficiency can cause
Megaloblastic anemia
Vitamin A is important for:
retina, integrity of mucous and epithelial surfaces, bone development and growth, reproduction, and embryonic development.
Hypothalamic and pituitary secretion is ______
Pulsatile
The most abundant anterior pituitary hormone is
Growth hormone (Somatotropin)
What hormone stimulates linear bone growth?
Growth hormone (Somatotropin)
PTH also increases renal tubular absorption of _______; inhibits renal re-absorption of _______.
Calcium, Phosphate
Normal Fibrinogen level in parturients?
> 400
Antithrombin affects the following factors:
12 (XII),11 (XI),10 (X), 9 (IX)
At what Hgb level would you plan to transfuse?
a. There is no single minimum acceptable hemoglobin level for transfusion
Half life of Fibrinogen:
~3.7 days
Clopidogrel (Choose 2):
a. Most widely used agent
b. Inability to adequately inhibit P2Y12-dependent platelet function, so resistance occurs in 20% to 30% of patients
Prodrugs:
Clopidogrel
dabigatran etexilate
Primary factor of Extrinsic pathway?
7 (VII)
What is needed to start the extrinsic pathway? (Choose 2):
a. Tissue Factor (Thromboplastin/Factor III)
b. Trauma
Major factor in the common pathway?
10 (X)
Factors can act as: (2)
a. Proteases
b. Catalysts to convert inactive to active form
- Which of the following is true regarding hemophilia (Choose 2)
a. VIII and Hemophilia A
b. IX and Hemophilia B
What is not true of vWF?
Used prophylactically
Cryoprecipitate should not be given for DIC because it lacks factor:
V (5)
Which of the following is true (choose 3) (what do you know about protein C, S, and Thrombin?)
a. Protein C and Protein S together break down 5a and 8a
b. Thrombin to activate Protein C
c. Protein C binds to protein S
When can HIT occur?
What do the antibodies to heparin bind to?
a. Can occur 4-5 days after heparin therapy
b. Antibodies to heparin form and bind factor IV (calcium)
Primary Hemostasis is:
platelet activation by injury to where platelets attach to damaged endothelium
- Inflammatory response that includes cytokine release is true of which of the following:
d. Procoagulant response
Factor IX is the _____ factor and is stored in the _____
Christmas, liver
Inactive enzymatic precursor
Zymogen
NOT true regarding coagulation testing (most common lab test, and PT or PTT?)
Most common lab test
PTT measures extrinsic
Which of the following according to ____ would require PRBC transfusion?
9 (all other levels were > 10)
What factors are included in Cryo?
Fibrinogen and vWF
XIII and VIII
While there is no literature to prove this, it is possible that storage of PRBCs can cause storage lesions after being stored:
14-21 days
Which of the following should be considered in the decision to transfuse? (Choose 3)
a. Target organ ischemia
b. Decreased cardiac reserve and increased myocardial oxygen consumption
c. Ability to transport O2
- A patient that is 50 kg would need how much cryo to increase fibrinogen 50-70 mg/dL
5 units (1 unit Cryo for every 10 kg of body weight)
- Which of the following is true regarding TRALI (Choose 2)
a. Onset within 6 hours of transfusion
b. Pulmonary artery occlusion less than or equal to 18 mm Hg
Which of the following is true regarding TACO?
a. Elevated JVP
b. High BNP
c. Pulmonary Edema
- True regarding FFP (Choose 3):
a. FFP can be frozen after 8 and 24 hours
b. After thawed, FFP can be stored an additional 4 days
c. FFP is what is left after RBCs and Platelets are removed
Which drug’s elimination half-time is 12-24 hrs?
Abciximab (Reopro)
TXA: Choose 3
a. inhibits plasmin at higher doses
b. most of the efficacy data are reported with TXA
c. Synthetic antifibrinolytic
- A patient is scheduled for surgery at 0800, they received their last dose of LMWH at midnight. What time would you reschedule their surgery for?
1200 noon (12hrs)
What would you consider lab values to be in DIC (Choose 2):
a. Decreased platelets and fibrinogen
b. Increased PTT and D-Dimer
- What is a cause of chronic DIC? (I just put the key words in to jog someone’s memory) All I know is that you can have normal labs with chronic
Tumor or large aneurysm with normal clotting labs (PT and PTT)
If a patient has an immediate reaction after heparin dosing you would expect?
HIT
What drug is an irreversible thrombin inhibitor that can possibly produce antibodies and need to be monitored with aPTT?
Lepirudin
What is true about heparin rebound?
a. 2-3 hours after 1st dose of Protamine
b. Can occur after initial dose of Protamine
The influence of renal and hepatic disease with heparin is:
Less than with other anticoagulants
In acute anemia, compensatory mechanisms rely on?
Cardiac reserve
DDVAP dose?
0.3mg/kg over 15-30mins
ASA guidelines for hemoglobin levels that require transfusion (This was two separate questions)
a. 5 (<6 in young healthy patient)
b. 9 (all other answers were >10, which are outside of guideline range for transfusion)
DIC involves (Choose 2):
a. Too much clotting
b. Too little clotting
- You are performing pre-op for a patient who has been on warfarin for 5 days; what lab would you check (that is only related to warfarin) and what, if anything, would you plan to give?
Check PT and give FFP
Patient received 10,000 units of heparin an hour prior; How much protamine do you give?
Patient still has 5,000 units of circulating heparin after one hour (heparin HALF life is one hour), and 1 mg protamine for every 100 units heparin (5,000/100 equals 50) = 50 mg protamine
What lab values would you expect to see in a patient with antiphospholipid syndrome: (Choose 2):
a. Prolonged PT, PTT, but patient is actually
* * hypercoagulable**
c. Caused by lupus anticoagulant antibody
Factors can be (Pick 2):
a. Proteases
b. Catalysts for transforming inactive into an active state
What is a zygomer:
inactive enzymatic precursor
What starts the Intrinsic pathway:
Factor 12
Correct sequence of intrinsic pathway: (choose 2)
a. 12 → kallikrein → 12a → ,11 → 11a
b. Occurs in the blood
What is true about heparin (Choose 2):
a. IV onset is immediate
b. Effects are produced by binding to antithrombin (AT)
- Patient on heparin infusion planning to go to surgery shortly; aPTT level is 157; what should you do?
Omit a dose
ACT is good for (Choose 2):
a. Heparin doses of > 1unit/mL
b. High doses of heparin
ACT is affected by:
a. Hypothermia, presence of contact activation inhibitors Aprotinin, may have been one more answer
Aprotinin:
use Kaolin ACT
Target ACT in CABG:
350-400
Which is not true of Arixtra? (fondaparinux)
a. It is a synthetic anticoagulant (true)
b. Half-life of 15 hours (true)
c. Metabolism does not occur and the drug is eliminated by the kidneys (true)
d. It is naturally occurring
d. It is naturally occurring
Question about PEs:
a. 3rd MCC of death in traumas who survive first 24 hrs
b. PE occur 2-22% of pts in major trauma
What drug Inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase that converts the vitamin K-dependent coagulation proteins (Factors II, VII, IX and X) into active forms in Oral or IV
Warfarin
What is true about warfarin? (Choose 2):
a. peak effect in 36-72 hours
b. 97% protein (albumin) bound
When to stop anticoagulants:
1-3 days pre-op to give prothrombin time to return to within 20% of normal range
What is true about Xarelto: Is this a choose 3?
a. >10,000 fold greater selectivity for factor Xa than for other related serine protease
b. Does not require AT as a cofactor
c. Has non-heparin-like molecule and may be suitable for pts with HIT
PCC compared to FFPs
a. quicker INR correction
b. have a lower infusion volume
c. and are more readily available without crossmatching
TXA dose:
Loading dose of 1gm over 10 mins then 1 gram over 8 hours
Question about aprotinin
a. Polypeptide serine protease inhibitor
Used for low risk CABG in canada-used for compassionate use in US
vWB: using DDAVP (Pick 2)
a. Will be ineffective in treatment of types 2 - 3 (the severe forms)
b. Will only be effective in mild form of vWB (type 1)
Source of factor III:
Platelets
What lab work would you expect to see in vitamin K deficiency?
Prolonged (increased) PT
What is true regarding propofol?
a. Baroreceptor reflex control of HR may be depressed by propofol
b. Stimulation produced by by direct laryngoscopy and in intubation of the trachea reverses the blood pressure effects of propofol
Propofol half life?
0.5-1.5 hours
Succinylcholine half life?
47 sec
What is true regarding cisatracurium? Pick 3
a. Hoffman elimination accounts for 77% of metabolism
b. Small amount is eliminated by renal
c. At regular doses it does not release histamine
Tylenol hepatic metabolism by?
a. NAPQ1 (N-acetyl-p-benzoquinonneimine)
Dosage of etomidate for a patient weighing ____ lbs?
0.2-0.4 mg/kg
Dosage of ketamine for a patient weighing __162___ lbs?
1-2 mg/kg
Profound block of Rocuronium can be reversed with how much sugammedex?
8 mg/kg
Sugammadex work on all of the following drugs except?
Cisatracurium
Sugammadex make 1:1 complexes, with greatest to least effects on?
Roc > Vec»_space; Pan
- Clearance of propofol from the plasma exceeds hepatic blood flow… elimination/metabolism?
a. Oxidative metabolism by cytochrome P450
b. Lungs by first pass
- Dose of Neostigmine for reversal?
40 mcg- 70 mcg/kg
Succ dosing causing bradycardia occurs within ___ min of repeated dose?
5
Do not mix meds with propofol, but sometimes _______ is used.
Lidocaine
Dose of Glyco when using neostigmine for reversal
7 to 15 mcg/kg
Phenylephrine is similar to?
Norepinephrine
Who is at greatest risk for postop hyperglycemia after 1 dose of dexamethasone?
Obesity
4 year old with Propofol bradycardia?
epinephrine (p 165)
Propofol
a. decreased cerebral metabolic rate for oxygen
b. Large doses of propofol to decrease cpp
Relatively selective modulator of GABAA has activity at glycine receptors.
Propofol
Paradoxical vocal cord motion?
midazolam 0.5-1mg
What is given orally 30 mins before induction to children?
Midazolam 0.5mg/kg
Esmolol initial dose?
0.5 mg/kg
Select 3 about Fentanyl?
a. prolonged elimination half time by cardiopulmonary bypass
b. 75% of initial Fentanyl first pass pulmonary uptake
c. Rapid onset and shorter duration of action than morphine
Fentanyl when given in a single dose, compared to morphine?
a. Has a shorter duration
b. Has a rapid onset
question about which drug has larger Vd?
Fentanyl greater lipid solubility
- Max dose of propofol in patient weighing 218 lbs (99 kg)?
1.5-2.5 mg/kg
Elimination of vecuronium (Choose 2):
a. Has parent compound present in bile
b. Primarily eliminated by the liver/elimination half time is dependent on hepatic blood flow
Anaphylaxis from propofol most likely from patients who also have an allergy to which type of med?
NMBDs
Responsible for hydrolysis of esmolol?
Plasma esterase
When giving etomidate, need to be cautious with patients who have which condition?
Seizures
Elimination of succinylcholine follows?
First order kinetics
In what patients is there a risk of hyperglycemia from administration of dexamethasone?
Obesity
Succinylcholine increases intragastric pressure by:
Increased vagal tone
Ketamine
Cerebral vasodilator
Increases SBP
Vecuronium metabolism/elimination:
More liver metabolism (70%) than renal
What 2 conditions can increase chances of hyperkalemia when using Succinylcholine:
a. G.B. syndrome
b. Severe Metabolic acidosis
Ephedrine has a duration of action ___times than epinephrine
10 times
Vecuronium eliminantion.
The liver is the principal organ of elimination
Which is true of precursors?
Dopamine is the precursor to epinephrine and epinephrine is precursor to norepinephrine
Esmolol as treatment for cocaine toxicity can lead to: (flood 483)
CV Collapse
Etomidate is known… or you would use it cautiously because it can result in: (flood-171)
Adrenocortical suppression
The SRNA would make a DART how? (hammon)
3ml total = 2 ml Succ (40mg), 1ml Atropine (0.4mg) in an IM injection
Succs is metabolized by (flood-325)
- butyrylcholinesterase
- plasma cholinesterase
Sufentanil has an 84-100% of chest wall rigidity making ventilation difficult. Give? (flood-223)
Neuromuscular blocking drug
Opioid antagonism-naloxone
Pick two for propofol (flood-163)
- Compared with thiopental, propofol decreases the prevalence of wheezing after induction of anesthesia
- Metabisulfite may cause bronchoconstriction in asthmatic patients
Something about cisatracurium differences from atracurium (flood-330)
cisatracurium is about four to five times as potent as atracurium
Which is true regarding Ephedrine? (flood-459)
Synthetic indirect acting sympathomimetic
Rapid administration of Phenylephrine, 1 mcg/kg IV (flood-460)
to GA pts with CAD can cause transient impairment of Left ventricular globe function
Usual dose of Succ:
1mg/kg
Rocuronium is primarily eliminated by
liver
and excreted in bile
Propofol does all of the following EXCEPT:
Relief of acute nociceptive pain
(It IS an Antiemetic, antipruritic, and an anticonvulsant)
Levodopa is converted to Dopamine by:
L-amino-acid decarboxylase (dopa decarboxylase enzyme)
identify the hypophyseal fossa in sella turcia of:
sphenoid bone
A total thyroidectomy and subsequent absence of calcitonin does what (p. 739)
Does not measurable influence the plasma concentrations of calcium because of the predominance of parathyroid hormone
What patient type would you use Pyridoxine with caution in: (p. 724)
Parkinson Disease
elimination half time of glucagon
3-6mins
Sulfonylureas cross the placenta and can produce (p. 754)
Fetal hypoglycemia
question about platelets Storage
There remains a permissive bacterial growth as platelets:
Reducing donor exposures by
- are stored at 22C
- apheresis platelets. (It used to come from multiple sources increasing the risk of exposure
normal platelet
150,000-400,000
Thawed Plasma maintains normal levels of all factors except
VIII which falls to 60%
Factor V falls to 80% of normal
10-15ml/kg of FFP will result in a rise of most coagulation proteins by
25-30%
DIC treatment (flood 624)
Remove underlying cause-institute anticoagulation in efforts to reduce further consumption of coag factors.
platelets
Lab test determine platelet
count NOT function
protamine found
found from Salmon sperm
- strong positive alkaline
Act values can be misleading during CABG due to
Hypothermia and hemodilution during CABG
What has a greater risk DVT
Hip surgery is greater than general surgery
First isolated from leeches
Lepirudin and Desirudin
aPTT =
activated partial thromboplastin time
normal = 30-35sec
PT =
prothrombin time