Pharmacology Final Exam Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Define idiosyncratic reaction.

A

An abnormal and unexpected response to a medication other than an allergic reaction this is peculiar to an individual. (AKA Type B reaction).

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2
Q

Define pharmacodynamics.

A

The study of the biochemical and physiologic interactions of drugs at their sites of activity. It examines the effect of the drug on the body.

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3
Q

Define pharmacokinetics.

A

The study of what happens to a drug from the time it is put into the body until the parent drug and all metabolites have left the body. The drug absorption into, distribution and metabolism within, and excretion from the body.

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4
Q

Define empiric therapy.

A

The administration of antibiotics based on the practitioner’s judgment of the pathogens most likely to be causing an apparent infection; it involves the presumptive treatment of an infections to avoid treatment delay before specific culture information has been obtained.

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5
Q

Define prophylactic.

A

Antibiotics taken before anticipated exposure to an infectious organism in an effort to prevent the development of infection.

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6
Q

Define antiseptic vs disinfectant.

A

An antiseptic inhibits the growth of microorganisms but doesn’t necessarily kill them and is applied exclusively to living tissue. A disinfectant is able to kill organisms and is used only on nonliving objects to destroy organisms that may be present.

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7
Q

Define chronic pain.

A

Pain that is ongoing and usually lasts longer than 3-6 months.

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8
Q

Define acute pain.

A

Pain that can be mild and last just a moment or be sever and last less that 6 weeks.

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9
Q

What is somatic pain?

A

Pain that originates from skeletal muscles, ligaments, or joints.

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10
Q

What is phantom pain?

A

Pain experienced in the area of a body part that has been surgically or traumatically removed.

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11
Q

What is neuropathic pain?

A

Pain that results from a disturbance of function in a nerve.

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12
Q

Define adverse effect.

A

An unexpected medical problem that happens during treatment with a drug or other therapy.

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13
Q

Define autonomy.

A

Individual decision making in nursing practice. The freedom to assess and provide actions appropriate for patient care and to establish standards, set goals, monitor practice, and measure outcomes.

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14
Q

Define beneficence.

A

Doing good and the right thing for the patient.

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15
Q

Define justice.

A

Fairness.

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16
Q

Define veracity.

A

Being completely truthful with patients.

17
Q

Give three examples of anticoagulants.

A

Heparin, Tissue plasminogen activates (TPA), and Coumadin (warfarin).

18
Q

What is the antidote for heparin?

A

Protamine sulfate.

19
Q

What is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin)?

A

Vitamin K, FFP, Recombiant factor Vlla, or activated prothrombin complex concentrate.

20
Q

Name the five types of diuretics.

A

Loop, osmotic, thiazide, potassium-sparing, and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (CAIs).

21
Q

What are 5 common loop diuretics, what are they useful for, and how do they work?

A

Bumetanide (Bumex), Ethacrynic Acid (Edecrin), Furosemide (Lasix) and Torsemide (Demadex). They are most helpful with edema, promoting diuresis, and resulting in potassium and sodium depletion.

22
Q

What are 4 common osmotic diuretics, what are they commonly used for, and how do they work?

A

Mannitol (osmitrol; most commonly used), Urea, Organic acids, and glucose. They are usually indicated for early phases of renal failure, reduce intracranial pressure, and treatment of cerebral edema. Osmotics work mostly in the proximal tubule by pulling water into the renal tubules from the surrounding tissue.

23
Q

What are 2 common thiazide diuretics, what are they commonly used for, and how do they work?

A

Hydrochlorothiazide (Esidrix, Hydrodiuril), and chlorothiazide (Diuril). They are commonly used for hypertension, edematous states, hypercalciuria, and diabetes insipidus. Thiazides work on the distal convoluted tubule by inhibiting the resorption of of sodium, chloride, and potassium ions, resulting in water, sodium, and chloride being excreted.

24
Q

What are 3 common potassium-sparing diuretics, what are they commonly used for, and how do they work?

A

Amiloride (Midamor), spironolactone (Aldactone), and Triamterene (Dyrenium). They are used for hypertension, and some cases of HF. They work by completely blocking aldosterone receptors and inhibiting their action and promote the excretion of sodium and water. They prevent potassium from being pumped into the tubule.

25
Q

What are common carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretics, what are they commonly used for, and how do they work?

A

Acetazolamide (diamox; most commonly used). It is used for long term management of glaucoma, lowering intracranial pressure, edema, and high-altitude sickness. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (CAIs) work by preventing the exchange of H+ ions with sodium and water, making them available for exchange with sodium and water in the proximal tubules.

26
Q

Name four types of antibiotics.

A

Tetracycline, sulfonamides, cephalosporins, and quinolones.

27
Q

How do sulfonamides work?

A

They inhibit bacterial growth and are considered bacteriostatic antibiotics. They work by interfering with the bacterial synthesis of folic acid.

28
Q

How do cephalosporins work?

A

They are like penicillin and are considered bactericidal, working by interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis.

29
Q

How does tetracycline work?

A

They are bacteriostatic drugs that inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30S bacterial ribosome. They can be used to treat chlamydia, rickettsia, and mycoplasma organisms, and both gram negative and gram positive bacterias. They are contraindicated for pregnant women and children under the age of 8 years old.

30
Q

How do quinolones work?

A

(AKA fluoroquinolones) Are very potent bactericidal croad-spectrum antibiotics. They destroy becteria by altering their deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) .

31
Q

Name three kinds of antihypertensives.

A

Ace inhibitors, beta blockers, and vasodilators.

32
Q

What is the indicated used of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)?

A

They are are first-line drugs in treatment of both HF and hypertension. Enalapril is one example. Some adverse effects are a non-productive cough. They are contraindicated for unborn fetuses and neonates.

33
Q

What is the indicated use of beta blockers?

A

Angina, MI, cardiac dysrhythmias, hypertension, and HF. They reduce SNS stimulation of the heart, including HR and the force of myocardial contraction (systole).

34
Q

What is the indicated use for vasodilators?

A

They work directly on arteriolar and/or venous smooth muscle. They are used to treat hypertension. They are contraindicated for patient with MI, HF, cerebral edema, etc.

35
Q

What is the reversal agent for opioids?

A

Naloxone