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Nursing Fundamentals > Key Terms > Flashcards

Key Terms Flashcards

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1
Q

What is dyspnea?

A

Shortness of breath, usually associated with exercise or excitement but in some patients, may be unrelated.

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2
Q

What is eupnea?

A

Normal respiration that are quiet, effortless, and rhythmical.

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3
Q

What is hyperpnea?

A

Respirations that are labored, increased in depth, and increased in rate (usually 20+ breaths per minute and during exercise).

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4
Q

What is orthopnea?

A

Shortness of breathing that occurs when lying flat.

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5
Q

What is hematocrit and what does it indicate?

A

Hematocrit is the percentage of RBCs in the blood. It determines blood viscosity, meaning as the hematocrit increases and blood flow slows.

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6
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

An increase number of circulating WBCs.

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7
Q

What is the normal sodium serum level?

A

Between 135-145 mEq/L

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8
Q

What are lactated ringers and what do they contain?

A

An isotonic solution use primarily for maintaining or replacing fluid. It contains sodium chloride, sodium lactate, potassium chloride, and calcium chloride dehydrate.

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9
Q

When would lactated ringers be administered?

A

Used in both adult and pediatric patients as a source of electrolyte and water for hydration.

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10
Q

Which observation is most indicative of a localized infection?

A

Swelling

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11
Q

How often should a tetanus shot be administered?

A

Every 10 years.

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12
Q

When is the Z-track method used?

A

When giving IM injections to prevent medication from leaking back out.

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13
Q

What fluid replacement would be best to administer to a patient with hyponatremia?

A

5% dextrose and 0.9% NaCl (normal saline).

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14
Q

What is an angiogram?

A

An angiogram is detects blockages in your arteries by taking radiographs while the injections of a contrast dye is administered intravenously.

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15
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism?

A

A blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in your lungs.

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16
Q

What do antiembloism stockings do?

A

Prevent DVT (deep vein thrombosis) and pulmonary embolisms by compressing the patient’s superficial leg veins.

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17
Q

Is an order needed for antiembalism stockings?

A

Yes

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18
Q

What is aseptic technique?

A

Sterile techniques used to PREVENT the transfer of microorganisms.

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19
Q

What are the 9 pulse sites?

A
  1. Temporal
  2. Carotid
  3. Apical
  4. Brachial
  5. Radial
  6. Femoral
  7. Popliteal
  8. Posterior tibial
  9. Dorsalis pedis
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20
Q

What are the three things a nurse assesses about a pulse point?

A
  1. Rate (60-100 BPM)
  2. Strength (+0 if absent, +1 if weak, +2 if normal, +3 if bounding).
  3. Rhythm (regular or irregular)
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21
Q

How many seconds do you have to count an apical pulse?

A

60 seconds.

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22
Q

What does CAUTI stand for?

A

Catheter associated urinary tract infections. (75% of UTI’s acquired in the hospital are CAUTI and 15%-25% patients at the hospital with have a catheter inserted).

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23
Q

What is the normal range for pulse oximeter reading?

A

90%-100%

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24
Q

What is a biopsy?

A

A procedure to remove a piece of tissue or a sample of cells from the body for laboratory analysis. It is usually done to determine if a cancer or another condition is present.

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25
Q

What foods would be included on a clear-liquid diet?

A

An liquid that can be seen through (does not have to be clear in color). Some examples: water, juice with no pulp, jello, broth (fat free), carbonated drinks, tea/coffee, honey/sugar, hard candy, ice-pops.

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26
Q

What would indicate the use of a clear -liquid diet?

A

Pre/post operation or if there is a digestive problem. Should not be used longer than a few days.

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27
Q

What kind of fats are avoided on a low fat diet?

A

Saturated fats, trans fats, and cholesterol.

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28
Q

What kind of fats are encouraged on a low fat diet?

A

Monosaturated fats and polysaturated fats.

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29
Q

Who would benefit use of a low-fat diet?

A

If someone has trouble digesting or absorbing fat or to lower cholesterol.

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30
Q

What is a low-reside diet?

A

A diet that is low in fiber.

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31
Q

What foods are avoided on a low-residue diet?

A

Whole grain, bran, or nuts, beans, pea, excess amounts of dairy, prune juice, juices with pulp.

32
Q

What foods are included on a low-residue diet?

A

White breads, refined cereal, rice, 2 cups (or less) of milk a day, cooked/canned vegetables, and tender/well cooked meats.

33
Q

Who would be placed on a low-residue diet?

A

A patient with diverticulitis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s Disease, or bowl inflammation.

34
Q

What is diverticulitis?

A

Small pouches called diverticula can form on the lining of the intestines, usually in the lower part of the large intestine (colon). When these pouches become inflamed or infected, it is called diverticulitis and can cause nausea, fever, abdominal pain, and change in bowl habits.

35
Q

What is ulcerative colitis?

A

An inflammatory bowl disease that effects the inner most lining of your lower, large intestine (colon), that causes long lasting inflammation and ulcers in the digestive tract.

36
Q

What is Chrohn’s disease?

A

An inflammatory bowl disease (IBD) affecting different areas of the digestive tract and causing abdominal pain, sever diarrhea, malnutrition, fatigue, and weight loss.

37
Q

When are sterile dressing changes preformed?

A

During a PICC or central line dressing care.

38
Q

Is wet to damp a sterile or clean procedure?

A

Clean

39
Q

What is an EKG/ECG

A

Electrocardiogram. It measures the electrical impulses of the heartbeat.

40
Q

When is an EKG?ECG used?

A

To measure the time it takes for an electrical impulse to travel through the heart to determine the regularity/irregularity and speed. It also measures the amount of electricity traveling through the heart muscles to determine which parts are overworked.

41
Q

What does the “P” wave show?

A

The depolarization of the right and left atrium. The atria contract a split second after the P wave begins.

42
Q

What does the “QRS” complex show?

A

The electrical impulses as it travels through the ventricles and indicates ventricular depolarization. The “QRS” complex begins right before the ventricles contract.

43
Q

What does the “T” wave show?

A

Ventricular repolarization.

44
Q

What is a soap-suds enema?

A

A kind of enema that is a combination of distilled water and soap that is used to mildly irritate the bowl, causing a bowel movement.

45
Q

When is using an enema indicated?

A

To remove excess fecal matter and accumulated toxins, colon cleansing, constipation treatment, excessive potassium and ammonia removal, medication delivery, eliminate bowl inflammation and bowl preparation for surgery.

46
Q

What are the two types of seizures?

A

Generalized and focal

47
Q

What kinds of acute conditions can cause seizures?

A

Fever, illness, hypoglycemia, acid-base imbalances, alcohol withdrawal, brain tumor, etc.

48
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

When a patient has frequent seizures due to an underlying condition.

49
Q

What neurons cause of seizures when they are out of balance?

A

Glutamate (excitatory) and GABA (inhibitory).

50
Q

What is ictus?

A

A seizure.

51
Q

What are the characteristics of a tonic-clonic seizure?

A

Generalized. Most common type of generalized. May see an aura, body stiffens, recurrent jerking, usually lasting no longer than 5 minutes.

52
Q

What are the characteristics of an absence seizure?

A

Most common in pediatric patients. Patient will stare off and not be able to speak. Patients will not remember incident. It only last a few seconds.

53
Q

What are the characteristics of an atonic seizure?

A

Patient will go limp. Patient is usually unaware and post ictus is immediate.

54
Q

What are the characteristics of a myoclonic seizure?

A

Quick duration or jerking motions, patient is usually aware, last no more than a few seconds.

55
Q

What are the characteristics of focal onset aware (simple partial) seizures?

A

Tends to be in a small area of the lob but patient is aware. (ex. occipital region where patient looses vision).

56
Q

What are the characteristics of a focal impaired awareness (complex partial) seizure?

A

Temporal lobe is most commonly affected. An aura will sometimes occur beforehand. Automatism present.

57
Q

What are the nursing interventions for seizures?

A

Have suction and O2 ready, IV access, padded side rails, pillow under head, bed in low position, removal of objects that can cause injury (glasses).

58
Q

Semi-Fowler’s Position

A

30-45 degree angle. Usually for patients with cardiac problems, respiratory aliments, NG tube feedings, and post-op for some surgeries.

59
Q

Low-Fowler’s Position

A

15-30 degree angle.

60
Q

High-Fowler’s Position

A

60-90 degree angle. Best for easy breathing, digestions, eating, defecating.

61
Q

What personnel are about to assist with fecal impaction?

A

LPN, RN, Doctor

62
Q

What does to Good Samaritan Law provide?

A

Protection from claims of negligence for those who provide care without expectation of payment.

63
Q

What is presbycusis?

A

Loss of hearing the gradually occurs in most individuals as they grow older. This is usually greater for high-pitched sounds. Most common cause is gradual changes in the inner ear.

64
Q

What is hemoptysis?

A

The spitting up of blood that originated in the lungs or bronchial tubes as a result of pulmonary or bronchial hemorrhage.

65
Q

What are Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs in order from most important to least important?

A

Physiological needs (food, water, warmth), safety (security), belongingness and love needs (intimate relationships, friends), esteem needs (feeling of accomplishment), self-actualization (achieving once’s full potential).

66
Q

What is paracentesis?

A

A procedure performed to obtain a small sample of or drain ascitic fluid for both diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.

67
Q

What is ascites?

A

An abnormal collection of fluid within the peritoneal cavity.

68
Q

What is a lumbar puncture?

A

AKA spinal tap, which is preformed in the lumbar region of your lower back. A need is inserted between two vertebrae to remove a sample of cerebrospinal fluid. This is done to diagnose serious infections, other disorder of the central nervous system, or cancers of the brain and spinal cord. It can also be done to administer anesthetic medications or chemotherapy drugs.

69
Q

MRI

A

Magnetic resonance imaging that uses a magnetic field and computer generated radio waves to create detailed images of organs and tissues in the body. No metformin,

70
Q

What is a SMART goal?

A
  1. specific
  2. measurable
  3. attainable
  4. relevent
  5. timely
71
Q

What is enteral tube feedings?

A

The delivery of a nutritionally complete feed directly into the gut via a tube which is usually placed into the stomach, duodenum or jejunum via nose, mouth, or direct percutaneous route. This is usually done for patients who cannot attain an adequate oral intake from food and /or oral nutritional supplements, or who cannot eat/drink safely.

72
Q

What is postural drainage?

A

Uses gravity, and occasionally percussion, to loosen mucus in the lungs so it can be removed by coughing.

73
Q

What is the normal temperature range?

A

97-99 degrees F

74
Q

What is the normal range for potassium?

A

3.6-5.2 mmol/L

75
Q

What is primary wound healing?

A

Occurs after a surgical incision in which the edges of the wound are connected by a suture.

76
Q

What is secondary wound healing?

A

Occurs when the edges of the wound cannot be approximated and, therefore, the wound requires more time and energy for healing and leave more scar tissue.

77
Q

What is thoracentesis?

A

A procedure in which a needle is inserted int o the pleural pace between the lungs and the chest well. This is done to remove excess fluid (pleural effusion) from the pleural space to help patient breathe easier. Do not take more than 100ml out at a time.

Nursing Fundamentals (3 decks)

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