Pharmacology Final Flashcards

1
Q

The presence of carbon dioxide aiding in the release and delivery of oxygen for hemoglobin is termed

A

bohr effect

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2
Q

Drug that blocks a receptor for acetylcholine

A

anticholinergic

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3
Q

High BP is defined as a min systolic/diastolic pressure of

A

140/90

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4
Q

The group of drugs can cause decreased sensitivity of the resp center to increased levels of PaCO2

A

Opiods/ Narc

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5
Q

The amount of blood that is ejected into the aorta and travels through the systemic circulation with every heartbeat is called the

A

Stroke volume

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6
Q

pressure that drives blood into the tissues, averaged over the entire cardiac cycle is called

A

Mean arterial pressure

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7
Q

Symbicort is a combination of

A

budesonide and formoterol

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8
Q

Endogenous products that are secreted into the bloodstream and travel to nerve endings to stimulate an excitatory response are

A

Catecholamines-epi

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9
Q

Hypertension occurs more frequently in

A

Males and blacks

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10
Q

Brand name given to a drug by a particular manufacturer is known as a drugs

A

Trade name

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11
Q

The peak pressure reached during ventricular ejection is the

A

Systolic pressure

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12
Q

What are the two classes of neuromuscular blocking agents

A

Depolarizing and nondepolarizing

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13
Q

Ribaviran is classified as which of the following

A

antiviral

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14
Q

What drug would you use to reverse vecuronium? opium?

A

Vecuronium-Neostigmine

Opium- Narcan

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15
Q

Epi accompishes which of the following?

Stimulates what….

A

Stimulates both alpha and beta receptors

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16
Q

General term for a drug that affects the peak pressure or strength of the myocardial contraction is a

A

Ionotropic agent= stregnth,

Chronotropic= HR

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17
Q

Benzoidiazepines generally dont cause resp depression T/F

A

True

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18
Q

Treat alcohol withdrawal

A

Benzodiazepines

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19
Q

Anti-leukotrines

A

Zafirlukast, Montelukast, and Zileuton

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20
Q

2 calcium channel blockers that target the circadian rhythm of BP throughout the day

A

Verapamil and cardiazem

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21
Q

aerosol particles size treat what

A

5-10um= Upper airways
2-5um= terminal airways (asthma, bronchospasm)
less than 3 um= alveoli

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22
Q

Bronchodilation most likely occurs because of stimulation of which receptor?

A

Beta 2

–alpha 1= Vasoconstriction, Beta 1= Heart (rate)

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23
Q

Corticosteroids are naturally secreted by what

A

Adrenal cortex

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24
Q

As diuretics go, aldosterone antagonist for

A

sparing potassium excretion

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25
Q

Beta blockers dosing is generally adjusted to achieve a HR of

A

60-80bpm

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26
Q

Factors that affect a drugs absorping are

A
  • Route
  • Metabolic degradation
  • Inactivation by the stomach
  • Blood flow to the absorption site
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27
Q

Pharmacotherapy for angina includes

A

Nitates, beta blockers, calcium antagonist, Ranexa

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28
Q

A bolus of steroid has been given to an adult asthmatic who is not responding to beta agonists. The bolus will help to

A

Restore beta agonist responsiveness

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29
Q

Most common side effect of ACE inhibitors is? Atrovent?

A

ACE- Persistent dry cough (tickle cough),

Atrovent- Dry mouth

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30
Q

The single R isomer Beta 2 agonist is

A

Levalbuterol

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31
Q

Norepiinephrine ane epinephrine are

A

Catecholamines

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32
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major component of the hearts electrical conduction system

  1. SA node
  2. AV node
  3. Bundle of His
  4. Mitral Valve
A

Mitral valve

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33
Q

What anti hypertensive drugs is considered superior over ACEI’s when treating hypertension in pts with DM type 2

A

Angiotensin II Receptor blockers

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34
Q

Administred through ET tube

A

Epinephrine, Atropine, Lidocaine, Narcan

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35
Q

A parasympathoMIMETIC agent that intensifies the level of bronchial tone to the point of bronchial constriction and is used in pulmonary function provacation testing is

A

methacholine

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36
Q

Treat tylenol overdose

A

Mucomyst

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37
Q

Blood test is the standard for monitoring Coumadin

A

INR

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38
Q

Antileukotrienes have an ADDITIVE effect for which class of drugs

A

Corticosteroids

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39
Q

an excellent amnestic agent to use with intubation or conscious sedation would be

A

versed/ fentalyn

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40
Q

Agent works by preventing the formation of the fibrin clot and prevents further clot formation in an existing thrombi

A

Anticoagulant

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41
Q

Thrombolytic is a

A

Clot buster

used for MI and PE

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42
Q

The aim of this drug is to increase arterial blood pH to more than 7.2 to minimize the adverse effects of systemic acidosis

A

Sodium bicarbonate

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43
Q

The primary organ of drug metabolism is the? excretion?

A

metabolizes- liver

Excretes- kidneys

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44
Q

Theophylline is chemically referred to as one of which of the following

A

xanthines

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45
Q

Succinylcholine can muscle fasciculation during initial depolarization T/F

A

True

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46
Q

What binds to a receptor and causes a response

A

agonist

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47
Q

When the cause is unknown, hypertension is termed

A

primary or essential hypertension

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48
Q

Which drug is most appropriate for patients, because of its chronotropic effects, in asystole, and can be administered with epi and vasopressin

A

Atropine

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49
Q

Ventricular contractility is influenced mainly by the volume of blood filling the ventricles and is termed the

A

preload

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50
Q

These agents inhibit the action of platelets in the initial stage of the clotting process

A

antiplatelets

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51
Q

This agent is naturally present in the secretory granules of mast cells

A

histamine

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52
Q

A cardiac condition in which normal ATRIAL contractions are replaced by rapid irregular twitching of the muscular wall

A

atrial fibrillation

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53
Q

Lidocaine is used to control what type of arrhythmias

A

ventricular

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54
Q

Hypertensive crisis is defined as a systolic and diastolic pressure of equal to or greater than

A

180/120

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55
Q

This affects the volume of blood (preload) and is a major determinant of cardiac output and the systolic blood pressure

A

stroke volume

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56
Q

Term defined as a lack of O2 and decreased or no blood flow to the myocardium

A

ischemia

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57
Q

Angiotensin - Converting Enzyme inhibitors act primarily suppression of the rennin-angiotensim-aldosterone system by blocking the production of angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a

A

Potent vasoconstrictor

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58
Q

Pulmozyme is used for

A

CF

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59
Q

Most common adverse reaction to penicillin is

A

Hypersensitivity

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60
Q

Phenylephrine and Pseudoephedrine are sympathomimetics agents used for

A

Decongestion

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61
Q

For massive pulmonary emboli, this agent is the thrombolytic of choice

A

alteplase

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62
Q

What agent can be administered to reverse the affects of Warfarin

A

Vitamin K

Warfarin= thins blood

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63
Q

If a drug is administered more frequently that the drugs half life which of the following may result

A

accumulation

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64
Q

Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen demand by causing

A

Venodilation of the coronary arteries and co-laterals

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65
Q

A drug that can be given via neb prior to bronchoscopy to anesthetize the airways and suppress a cough reflex would be

A

lidocaine

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66
Q

Thrombolytic agents are indicted for the management of

A

Pulmonary Emboli, MI’s (PE and MI)

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67
Q

Tiotropium Bromides duration is

A

24 hours

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68
Q

Corticosteroids dont begin to have an appreciated effect on reducing inflammation until

A

18-24 hours

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69
Q

Vasopressors are used to treat

A

hypotension

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70
Q

Inotropes are used to treat decompensated heart failure by

A

strengthening myocardial contractility

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71
Q

A class IA antiarrhythmic that block sodium channels in the myocardium and particularly in the atrium is

A

procaninamide

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72
Q

A beta blocker used in management of hypertension and prevent SVT

A

Digoxin

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73
Q

A class IB drug used to reduce ventricular arrhythmias, particularly PVCs

A

Lidocaine

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74
Q

What drug might be used to treat a pt with a fib and chronic CHF to increase they stroke volume and thus their cardiac output

A

Digoxin

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75
Q

Control or prevent SVT and control vent rate with a fib, instead of beta blocker

A

Calcium channel blockers

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76
Q

Angiotensin I is converted to Angiotensin II in the

A

pulmonary vasculature

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77
Q

Angiotensin II is a

A

vasoconstrictor

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78
Q

The final product of the renin angiotensin aldosterone chain is aldosterone which contributes to

A

retention of sodium and water

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79
Q

Sublingual nitroglycerin is from what family of antiangina agents

A

Nitrates

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80
Q

Beta blockers are effect antiangina agents by

A

decreasing oxygen demand in the myocardium

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81
Q

Thrombolytics used in acute MIs or PEs are meant to

A

dissolve thromboses that are blocking vessels

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82
Q

How often can epi be administered during CPR

A

every 3-5 minutes (1mg in 10ml solution)

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83
Q

Atropine is used during a code to treat

A

Asystole

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84
Q

Vasopressin should be administered

A

40U one time, IV push

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85
Q

Goal of sodium bicarbonate

A

normalize pH to 7.2 or> and facilitate response of other drugs being used

86
Q

Torsades VT response well to this drug

A

Magnesium Sulfate

87
Q

Intraosseous

A

needle placed in the long bone marrow

88
Q

The epi lining of the tracheobronchial tree is primarily composed of

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

89
Q

Normal tidal volume range is

A

3-4ml/lb

90
Q

Each gram ob hemoglobin can carry how much O2

A

1.34

91
Q

Impedance pneumography

A

detects distance change between 2 electrodes on the chest

92
Q

Shunt

A

Perfusion without ventilation

93
Q

Increase PetCO2

A

Fever, Hypoventilation, Increased Metabolic rate

94
Q

Visceral pleura lines the

A

lungs

95
Q

Common causes of metabolic acidosis

A

Lactic acidosis
Diarrhea
Ketoacidosis

96
Q
Which of the following is NOT a part of the pharmocokinetic phase of a drug?
A. Absorption
B. Receptor Site
C. Metabolism
D. Elimination
A

Receptor site

97
Q

The proportion of drug available for the lung, out of the total systemically available drug , is known as the

A

L/T ratio

98
Q

Drugs delivered by oral or nasal inhalation are intended to

A

provide a local topical treatment of the resp tract

99
Q

1+1=3

A

Syngergism

100
Q

Pharmodynamics

A

describes what a drug does to the body

101
Q

If a drug is administered more frequently that the drugs half life, what may result

A

Accumulation

102
Q

Turbulent flow

A

> 60 lpm

103
Q

An allergic or immune related response to a drug that can be quite serious is termed

A

hypersensitivity

104
Q

The process of incorporating a substance into a cell by membrane engulfment is known as

A

pinocytosis

105
Q

Physician has requested that you provide a pt with reservoir device to use with their MDI. Given a choice, which type of device would you give the pt

A

antistatic valved holding chamber

106
Q

What cells or glands is most likely responsible for the majority of mucus secretion

A

Submucosal glands

107
Q

Catecholamines do what

A

mimic the action of epi

108
Q

What drug blocks a receptor for norepinephrine

A

antiadrenergic

109
Q

Controls daily funtions such as digestion and bladder control

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

110
Q

which of the following describes a drug that blocks a receptor for acetylcholine

A

anticholinergic

111
Q

Beta 2

A

Bronchial smooth muscle relaxation
Inhibition of histamine release
Stimulation of mucociliary clearance

112
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system is part of what

A

Peripheral nervous system and Autonomic nervous system

113
Q
Sympathetic nervous system stimulation results in all but which of the following
A. Increase BP
B. Mental stimulation
C. Increased urine output
D. Bronchodilation
A

Increased urine output

114
Q

Which 2 enzymes inactive catecholamines

A

COMT and MAO

115
Q

Alpha 1 , beta 2 and Beta 1

A

A1 vasoconstriction,
B2 bronchodilation,
B1- Increase HR/ Force of contraction

116
Q

Relaxation of airway smooth muscle would not occur with which of the following
A. Stimulation of the nonadrenergic inhibitory nerve
B. Use of cholinergic agent
C. Use of a sympathomimetic
D. Use of a parasympatholytic

A

B

117
Q

Catecholamines inactivated by and unsuitable for which route

A

COMT and oral

118
Q
Which of the following bronchodilators last the longest
A. Isoproternol
B. Metaproterenol
C. Albuterol
D. Salmeterol
A

Salmeterol

119
Q

The drugs known as adrenergic bronchodilators are all analogs of which naturally occuring neurotransmitter

A

norepinephrine

120
Q

The FDA has actually approved this class of drugs for treatment of COPD

A

Anticholinergics

121
Q
Which of the following is NOT a strength of Xopenex neb solution?
A. 0.31
B. 0.63
C. 1.25
D. 2.5
A

2.5

122
Q

This drug is used for prevention of acute exercise induced bronchospasm in adults and children older then 5 years of age

A

formoterol

123
Q
Which of the following terms are used to describe sympathomimetics drugs?
I. Cholinergic
II. Adrenergic
III. Beta 2 agonist
IV. Beta antagonist
V. Parasympatholytic
VI. Beta adrenergic
A

II, III, and VI

124
Q

The sympathetic branch of the nervous system arise from what portion of the spinal cord

A

Thoracic and Lumbar

125
Q

“fight or flight”

A

Sympathetic

126
Q

With beta agonist, theophylline has what degree of bronchodilation effect

A

weak

127
Q

Early asthmatic response is caused by

A

IgE

128
Q

Therapeutic range for serum theophylline is

A

10-12ug/ml

129
Q

Nonbronchodilator effects of theophylline include

A

Increase diaphragmatic stregnth
Increase phrenic nerve activity
increase resp muscle endurance

130
Q

Severe exacerbation of asthma may require

A

oral prednisone

131
Q

Name of steroid delivered via IV is

A

Solumedrol

132
Q

Which particle size is optimal for aerosol deposition in the terminal/ bronchial airways

A

2-5 um

133
Q
Theophylline has been used to treat all of the following except
A. Asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Apnea of prematurity
D. COPD
A

Pneumonia

134
Q

Xanthines of choice to treat apnea of prematurity is

A

Caffeine citrate

135
Q

Meds that increase mucociliary or cough efficiency are

A

mucokinectics

136
Q

The current recommended blood serum theophylline level of management of asthma is

A

5-15ug/ml

137
Q

Standard dose of Dornase Alfa for aerosolization is

A

2.5 mg in 2.5ml normal NaCL

138
Q

If you wanted to give your pt a steroid by neb, along with Albuterol, what steroid can you do that with

A

pulmocort

139
Q

Non-bronchodilating effects of theophylline include all of the following except
A. Anti-inflammatory effects
B. Increased resp muscle stregnth
C. Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
D. Increased vent y drive

A

C

140
Q

A serum blood theophylline level of 35ug/ml has been reported for your pt in the ER. which effect might you see with this serum level

A

cardiac arrhythmias

141
Q

As a RT, you should be aware that corticosteroids dont begin to have an appreciate effect on reducing inflammation until

A

18-24 hours

142
Q

The expectorant that may stimulate the cholinergic pathway to increase mucus secretion is

A

sodium bicarbonate

143
Q

Theophylline and caffeine are examples of

A

methylxanthines

144
Q

Aminophylline is a Xanthine that is administered via

A

IV

145
Q

Cromolyn sodium is classified as what

A

Antiasthmatic

146
Q

Antihistamine used to treat a common cold is intended to

A

dry secretions

147
Q

What agent is useful in the presence of an irritating, persistent, non-productive cough

A

antitussive

148
Q

Which of the following is an indication for leukotriene
A. Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle through metabolic
B. Chronic treatmetn of asthma
C. Acute severe bronchospasm
D> Acute mild bronchospasm

A

B

149
Q

an agent that increases the production and clearance of mucus secretions in the resp tract is called

A

stimulant expectorant

150
Q

Cromolyn is referred to as a and cromolyn sodium accomplishes what?

A

Mast cell stabilizer

-Stabilizes mast cells and prevents histamine release

151
Q

The anticholinergic effect of antihistamines on the upper airway result in

A

secretion drying

152
Q

The antileukotriene modifier that is approved for children less then 5 years of age is

A

Singular

153
Q

Antileukotrienes have an additive effect for which class of drugs

A

corticosteroid

154
Q

an alternative to antihistamines for rhinorrhea in a cold is the anticholinergic nasal spray

A

Atrovent

155
Q

Side effect most associated with antihistamine

A

drowsiness

156
Q

Xolair is administered via

A

SQ injection

157
Q

Common cold is usually caused by

A

viral infection

158
Q

Cromolyn sodium is used to prevent which of the following
A. Inflammatory response
B. Excessive accumulation of eosinophils
C. Intrinsic asthma
D. Reduction of nitric oxide response to asthma

A

Inflammatory response

159
Q

Xolair can be given to children

A

12 years or older

160
Q

What should be monitored once a month when taking zyglo

A

liver enzymes

161
Q

Drugs that interact with Zyglo and may require dosing adjustments of Zyflo include

A

warfarin

162
Q

Nasal decongestion is achieved by sympathomimetics by stimulation of which receptors

A

alpha 1

163
Q

Pentamidine is used to

A

prevent pneumocystic pneumonia

164
Q

Ribavirin is used to

A

treat RSV

165
Q

Ribavirin is delivered via

A

SPAG neb

166
Q

Pentamidine is delivered via

A

Respirgard II neb

167
Q

Aerosolized antibiotics are used most commonly in which disease

A

asthma

168
Q

Nosocomial transmission of tb can be prevented best by

A

placing pts in respiratory isolation

169
Q

Pentamidine is a and its approved dose?

A

Antiprotozoal agent

-300mg in sterile H2O, every 28 days

170
Q

An acid fast stain is used to identify

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

171
Q

Broad spectrum antibiotics may be effective against

A

Gram positive and negative infections

172
Q

Relenza is an

A

antiviral

173
Q

A drug that is used to prevent serious lower resp tract infections with RSV in children under 24 months ago is

A

virazole

174
Q

Zanamivir would be indicated for

A

Uncomplicated influenza (available in DPI)

175
Q

Drug tx for tuberculosis consists of multiple antiobiotics for

A

6-12 months

176
Q

For relenza to be effective in treating influenza it must be administered

A

within the first 2 days of symptoms

177
Q

Synagis is approved for the prevention and tx in premature in infants and children with congenital heart disease for

A

RSV

178
Q

This drug can be used to treat pseudomonas infection in CF pts instead of tobi

A

cayston

179
Q

In a culture and sensitivity test for bacteria, the sensitivity portion determines

A

what antibiotic the inhibits bacterial growth

180
Q

Concentration dependent response means

A

kill rate increases proportional with drug concentration

181
Q

Penicillins are

  1. Bactericidal
  2. Bacteriostatic
  3. Demonstrate time dependent killing
  4. Demonstrate concentrate dependent killing
  5. active against gram positive cocci
  6. active against gram neg bacilli
A

1, 3, and 5

182
Q

Carbapenems are? Cephalosporins are?

1. bactericidal or static

A

bactericidal

183
Q

All penicillins are naturally derived T/F

A

False

184
Q

Aminoglycosides are

A

bactericidal and concentration dependent

185
Q

Carbapenems are a good broad spectrum antibiotic T/F

A

True

186
Q

This class of antibiotics are the drug of choice for treating atypical pneumonia

A

Macrolides

187
Q

Treat oral thrush

A

Nystatin

188
Q

Quinolones are

A

bactericidal , concentration dependent

189
Q

The treatment of choice for pulmonary infections of aspergillosis histoplasmosis, and coccidiodomycosis is

A

amphotericin B

190
Q

THe most common adverse reaction to penicillin is

A

hypersensitivity

191
Q

Nondepolarizing agents competitively block the cholinergic receptor on the post synaptic muscle fiber. What does it do then?

A

Prevents acetylcholine from depolarizing the muscle fiber

192
Q
Circle all of the depolarizing neuromuscular agents
A. Vecuronium
B. Rocuronium
C. Muvacurium
D. Succinylcholine
E. Pancuronium
A

Succinylcholine

193
Q

An example of a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent would be

A

tubocurane

194
Q

Depolarizing NMBA mechanism of action is

A

Opens sodium channels and depolarizes the post synaptic receptor

195
Q

Which of the neuromuscular blockers can be reversed

A

nondepolarizing

196
Q

Reverse vecuronium

A

neostigmine

197
Q

An excellent amnestic agent to use with intubation or conscious sedation would be

A

Versed

198
Q

Reverse tylenol

A

Acetylcysteine

199
Q

All neuromuscular blocking agents effect the neuromuscular junction by interfering with the action of

A

acetylcholine

200
Q

Neuromuscular blocking agents are administered via

A

IV

201
Q

Somatic motor neurons

A

control muscle which controls voluntary movement

202
Q

Competitive inhibition in NMBAs would be explained as

A

binding and blocking of the acetycholine receptors without depolarization

203
Q

An adverse effect of depolarizing NMBA might be

A

muscle pain

204
Q
An example of a nondepolarizing agent that is chemically a steroid structur agent would be
A. Atracurium
B. succinylcholine
C. Versad
D. Vecuronium
A

A. Atracurium

205
Q
Nondepolarizing agent thave a longer duration but slower onset then depolarizing agents. Circle the correct answers regarding Tubocurarine.
A. It is a depolarizing agent
B. It shows affect in 30-60 seconds
C. It lasts 35-60 Minutes
D. It can be reversed with Neostigmine
E. It can be reveresed with atropine
A

D. It can be reversed with neostigmine

206
Q

This group of drugs work by affecting the hypothalamus and inhibiting the production of inflammatory mediators

A

NSAIDS

207
Q

Barbiturate overdose will/can not result in resp arrest T/F

A

False

208
Q

Delirium tremens froma abrupt withdrawal of alcohol in chronic alcoholics. treated by

A

Benzodiazepines

209
Q

Neostigmine can cause bradycardia and increased salivation.. This can be treated with administration of

A

atropine

210
Q

Normal muscle strength can first be noted when there is less then what percentage of receptor sites occupied by a NMBA

A

50-75%