Pharmacology - Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of a drug is heparin?

A

Anticoagulant

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2
Q

What are the actions and uses of heparin?

A

Natural substance found in the liver and lining of blood vessels.
Normal function is to prolong coagulation time, thereby preventing excessive clotting within blood vessels.
Heparin prevents the enlargement of existing clots and the formation of new ones.
It has no ability to dissolve existing clots.

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3
Q

What are the administration alerts related to injections for heparin?

A

Never draw back the syringe plunger once the needle has entered the skin and never massage the site after injection. Doing either can contribute to bleeding or tissue damage.

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4
Q

What is the black box warning for heparin?

A

Epidural or spinal hematomas may occur when heparin or LMWHs are used in patients receiving spinal anesthesia or lumbar puncture. Because these can result in LT or permanent paralysis, frequent monitoring for neurologic impairment is essential.

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5
Q

What is the treatment for overdose of heparin?

A

If serious hemorrhage occurs, a specific antagonist (protamine sulfate) may be administered IV to neutralize heparin’s anticoagulant activity. Protamine sulfate has an onset of action of 5 minutes and is also an antagonist to LMWHs.

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6
Q

Which drug is a vitamin K antagonist?

A

Warfarin (coumadin) is an anticoagulant and vitamin K antagonist

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7
Q

What are the actions and uses of warfarin?

A

Indications for warfarin therapy include the prevention of stroke, MI, DVT, and pulmonary embolism in patients undergoing hip/knee surgery, or in those with LT indwelling central venous catheters or prosthetic heart valves.
Warfarin may be given to prevent thromboembolic events in high risk patients following an MI or atrial fibrillation episode.

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8
Q

What are the lab values to monitor throughout Warfarin therapy?

A

The therapeutic range of serum warfarin levels carries from 1-10 mcg/mL to achieve an INR value of 2-3.

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9
Q

What is the black box warning for Warfarin?

A

Warfarin can cause major or fatal bleeding, and regular monitoring of INR is required. Patients should be instructed about prevention measures to minimize bleeding risk and to immediately notify healthcare providers of signs and symptoms of bleeding.

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10
Q

What are herbal/food contraindications for Warfarin?

A

Use of warfarin with herbal supplements such as green tea, ginkgo, feverfew, garlic, cranberry, chamomile, and ginger may increase the risk of bleeding.
Consumption of foods rich in vitamin k (kale/spinach/turnip or mustard greens/ broccoli/ brussels sprouts/ cabbage) may reduce the therapeutic effects of warfarin.

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11
Q

What are the overdose treatments of warfarin?

A

An overdose of warfarin is treated with vitamin K, given either PO (non-emergency reversal) or IV (emergency reversal). Reversal of anticoagulant effects of warfarin is usually complete within 24 hours.

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12
Q

What is a type of anti-platelet drug?

A

Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet drug and ADP receptor blocker

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13
Q

What are administration alerts for Clopidogrel (Plavix)?

A

Clopidogrel tablets should not be crushed or split.
Discontinue drug at least 5 days prior to surgery.
Pregnancy Cat B

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14
Q

What are the Black Box warnings / genetic considerations for Clopidogrel (Plavix)?

A

Because the effectiveness of Clopidogrel (Plavix) is dependent on its metabolic activation by CY P450 enzymes, poor metabolizers will exhibit less therapeutic effect and more adverse cardiovascular events. Tests are available to identify poor metabolizers of this enzyme. More than 50% of Asians have genetic variants that inhibit clopidogrel metabolism.

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15
Q

Safety statements for coagulation meds?

A

Anticoagulant use is a high-risk safety concern and is included in the Joint Commission’s National Patient Safety Goals.
Teach the patient/caregiver signs and symptoms of excessive bleeding, including occult bleeding. If external bleeding occurs, pressure of the site should be held up to 15 minutes. If bleeding continues, is severe, or is accompanied by dizziness or syncope, immediate medical attention (911) should be obtained.

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16
Q

What kind of drugs are in the erythropoietin class?

A

Erythropoietin is one of the hematopoietic growth factor/enhancer drugs. It’s an erythropoiesis stimulating drug.

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17
Q

Epoetin Alfa (Epogen, Procrit)

A

Epoetin Alfa is an erythropoietin.

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18
Q

Actions and uses of epeotin alfa

A

Epoetin alfa is made through recombinant DNA technology and is functionally identical to human erythropoietin.
Because of its ability to stimulate erythropoiesis, epoetin alfa is effective in treating disorders caused by a deficiency in RBC formation.
Patients with CKD often cannot secrete enough endogenous erythropoietin and benefit from epoetin alfa administration.

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19
Q

Administrative alerts for epoetin alfa (handling)

A

The subQ route is generally preferred over IV route because lower doses are needed and absorption is lower. Do not shake the epoetin alfa vial because this may deactivate the drug. Visibly inspect the solution for particulate matter.

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20
Q

Black box warnings for epoetin alfa

A

The risk of serious cardiovascular and thromboembolic events is increased with epoetin alfa therapy.
TIAs, MIA, and strokes have occurred in patients with CKD who are on dialysis and being treated with epoetin alfa.
Epoetin alfa increased the rate of DVT in patients not receiving concurrent anticoagulation. The lowest dose possible should be used in patients with cancer because the drug can promote tumor progression and shorten overall survival.

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21
Q

What drug is a colony stimulating factor?

A

Filgrastim (Neupogen) is a colony stimulating factor. This drug increases neutrophil production.

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22
Q

Administration alerts for filgrastim (neupogen)

A

Do not administer filgrastim within 24 hours before or after chemotherapy with cytotoxic drugs because this will greatly decrease the effectiveness of filgrastim.

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23
Q

Adverse effects of filgrastim

A

Common adverse effects of filgrastim include fatigue, rash, epistaxis, decreased platelet counts, neurtopenic fever, nausea, and vomiting.
Filgrastim is associated with potentially serious adverse effects and close monitoring is required.
Bone pain occurs in a significant number of patients receiving filgrastim.
A small % of patients may develop an allergic reaction.
Frequent lab tests are necessary to ensure that excessive numbers of neutrophils (leukocytes) do not occur. Leukocyte counts of higher than 100,000 cells/mm3 increase the risk of serious adverse effects, such as respiratory failure, intracranial hemorrhage, retinal hemorrhage, and MI. Fatal rupture of the spleen has occurred in a small number of patients.

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24
Q

What type of drug is cyanocobalamin (B-12)?

A

Cyanocobalamin (B-12) is a vitamin supplement for anemia.

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25
Q

Intrinsic factor’s role in cyanocobalamin (B-12) administration

A

Oral vitamin B12 formations are available primarily as vitamin supplementation, although they are only effective in patients who have sufficient amounts of intrinsic factor.

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26
Q

What type of drug is ferrous sulfate (iron)?

A

Ferrous sulfate (iron) is an iron supplement and anti-anemic drug.

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27
Q

Black box warning for children for ferrous sulfate?

A

nonintentional overdoses of iron-containing products are a leading cause of fatal poisoning in children.

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28
Q

Herbal/food considerations with ferrous sulfate (iron)

A

food, especially dairy products, will inhibit absorption of ferrous sulfate. Foods high in vitamin C, such as orange juice and strawberries, can increase the absorption of iron.

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29
Q

Administration alerts with ferrous sulfate (iron)

A

when administering via IV, be careful to prevent infiltration because iron is highly irritating to tissues.
Use the z-track method (deep muscle) when giving IM.
Do not crush tablets or empty contents of capsules when administrating.
Do not give tablets or capsules within 1 hour of bedtime.

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30
Q

Ibuprofen Administration alerts

A

give ibuprofen on an empty stomach as tolerated.
If nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain occurs, give with food.
Be aware that patients with asthma or who have allergies to aspirin are more likely to exhibit a hypersensitivity reaction to ibuprofen.

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31
Q

Ibuprofen adverse effects

A

when used intermittently at low-moderate doses, the adverse effects of ibuprofen are generally mild and include nausea, heartburn, epigastric pain, and dizziness.
GI ulceration with occult or gross bleeding may occur, especially in patients who are taking high doses for prolonged periods.
Chronic use of ibuprofen may lead to CKD.

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32
Q

Ibuprofen black box warning

A

NSAIDs may cause an increased risk of serious thrombotic events, MI, and stroke, which can be fatal. This risk may increase with duration of use.
Patients with CV disease or risk factors for CV disease may be at greater risk.
NSAIDs are contraindicated for the treatment of perioperative pain in those undergoing coronary artery bypass graft surgery.
NSAIDs increase the risk of serious GI adverse events, including bleeding, ulceration, and the perforation of the stomach or intestines - which can be fatal.

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33
Q

Ibuprofen maximum daily dose

A

Max daily dose is 3200/mg/day, or 400-800 TID-QID

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34
Q

Prednisone - type of drug

A

Prednisone is a corticosteroid

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35
Q

Adverse effects of prednisone

A

LT therapy may result in cushing syndrome, a condition that includes hyperglycemia, fat redistribution to the shoulders and face, muscle weakness, bruising, and bones that easily fracture.
Because gastric ulcers may occur with LT therapy, an antiulcer medication may be prescribed prophylactically.
Use with caution in patients with peptic ulcer, ulcerative colitis, or diverticulitis.

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36
Q

Contraindications of prednisone

A

Patients with active viral, bacterial, fungal, or protozoan infections should not take prednisone.

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37
Q

what type of drug is acetaminophen?

A

Acetaminophen is an antipyretic

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38
Q

Patient safety related to acetaminophen

A

Lots of OTC medications have acetaminophen in them, so it easy to overdose and should be reviewed in a med rec.

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39
Q

Administration alerts related to acetaminophen

A

liquid forms are available in varying concentrations. Use the appropriate-strength product in children to avoid toxicity. Never administer to patients who consume alcohol regularly due to the potential for drug-induced hepatotoxicity. Advise patients that acetaminophen is found in many OTC products and that extreme care must be taken to not duplicate doses by taking several of these products concurrently.

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40
Q

adverse effects of acetaminophen

A

acetaminophen is generally safe, and adverse effects are uncommon at therapeutic doses. The risk of adverse effects is dose related and increases with LT use.
Acute acetaminophen poisoning is very serious. Symptoms include anorexia, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, lethargy, diaphoresis, chills, abdominal pain, and diarrhea.
Excessive acetaminophen use is the nuber one cause of acute liver failure in the US.

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41
Q

Black box warning of acetaminophen

A

Acetaminophen has the potential to cause severe and even fatal liver injury and may cause serious allergic reactions with symptoms of angioedema, difficulty breathing, itching, or rash.
Because of FDA recommendations, drug manufacturers now limit the strength of acetaminophen in prescription combination products to 325 mg/tablet to lower the potential for acetaminophen induced hepatotoxicity.

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42
Q

Hep B Vaccine (HBV)

A

Given to children: at birth, 1-4 months, and 6-18 months later.

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43
Q

HBV actions and uses

A

HBV is a highly effective vaccine that provides active immunity for 99-100% of patients. indications include all infants at birth, children <19yo who have not been vaccinated, healthcare workers or caregivers who are at risk for contact with Hep B, individuals with high risk sexual practices etc.
HBV doesn’t provide against exposure to other non-B hep viruses.
HBV is produced through recombinant DNA tech, using yeast cells. It is not prepared from human blood.

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44
Q

HBV administration alerts

A

in adults, use the deltoid muscle for the injection site, unless contraindicated. Because none of the formulas of Recomivax HB contain a preservative, once the single dose vial has been penetrated, withdrawn vaccine should be used promptly and the vial discarded.
Epinephrine (1:1000) should be immediately available to treat a possible anaphylactic reaction.

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45
Q

Interferon

A

Interferons are secreted by lymphocytes and macrophages that have been infected with a virus. They slow the spread of viral infections and enhance the activity of leukocytes.

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46
Q

Interferon alfa-2b

A

used to treat multiple sclerosis, granulomatous disease, and severe osteoporosis

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47
Q

interferon alfa 2-b actions and uses

A

interferon alfa 2b is a biologic response modifier prepared by recombinant DNA technology that is approved to treat cancers and viral infections (HPV, chronic hepatitis virus B&C)

48
Q

immuinosuppressants

A

inhibit the patient’s immune system; used to prevent tissue rejection following organ transplantation.

49
Q

cyclosporine

A

type of immunosuppressant

50
Q

actions and uses of cyclosporine

A

Cyclosporine is less toxic to bone marrow cells. When prescribed for transplant recipients, it is often used in combination with high doses of a corticosteroid such as prednisone. Cyclosporine is approved for the prophylaxis of kidney, heart, and liver transplant rejection.

51
Q

Cyclosporine adverse effects

A

the primary adverse effect of cyclosporine occurs in the kidneys, with up to 75% of patients experiencing reduction in urine output. Over half the patients taking the drug will experience HTN and tremor.
Other common side effects are headache, gingival hyperplasia, and elevated hepatic enzymes.
Periodic blood counts are necessary to ensure that WBCs do not fall below 4000 or platelets below 75000.

52
Q

how might a nurse monitor for an allergic (anaphylactic) reaction?

A

hives, rash, fever, difficulties breathing, increased pulse / HR, confusion/anxiety, collapsing, losing consciousness

53
Q

Penicillin G Pharmacologic Class

A

Penicillin –> kills bacteria by disrupting their cell walls. Human cells don’t have cell walls.
Pencillins work best on gram+ bacteria.

54
Q

Drug-drug interactions between Pencillin G and oral contraceptives

A

Penicillin G may decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.

55
Q

Cefazolin pharmacologic class

A

cephalosporin –> binds to bacterial cell walls and inhibits cell wall synthesis. Acts with broad-spectrum activity against gram negative organisms.

56
Q

Cefazolin actions and uses regarding surgical procedures

A

Cefazolin is sometimes used for infection prophylaxis in patients who are undergoing surgical procedures. Cefazolin has a longer half-life than other first generation cephalosporins, which allows for frequent dosing.

57
Q

tetracycline

A

tetracyclines class.
Effective against broad range of gram+ and gram (-) organisms.
Newer tetracyclines are used for drug-resistant intra-abdominal infections and complicated skin structure infections, especially those caused by MRSA.

58
Q

tetracycline actions and uses

A

Has increased use over the past due to Tetracycline’s effectiveness against H Pylori in the treatment of peptic ulcer disease

59
Q

tetracycline administration alerts

A

administer oral drug with a full glass of water to decrease esophageal and GI irritation.
Administer antacids and tetracycline 1-3 hours apart.

60
Q

erythromycin pharmaceutical class

A

macrolide
inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the bacterial ribosome.
It’s effective against most gram+ and gram (-) bacteria.
Primary use is for whooping cough, legionnaire dsiease, infections by strep, influenza, and pneumonia.

61
Q

erythromycin administration alerts

A

administer oral drug on an empty stomach with a full glass of water.
for suspensions of erythromycin, shake the bottle thoroughly to ensure that the drug is well mixed.
Do not give with or immediately before or after fruit juices.

62
Q

gentamicin pharmaceutical class

A

aminoglycosides
Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis.
Primary use is for the treatment of serious systemic infections caused by aerobic gram-negative bacteria, mycobacteria, and some protozoans.

63
Q

gentamicin black box warning

A

neurotoxicity may manifest as ototoxicity and produce a los of hearing or balance, which may become permanent with continued use.
Tinnitus, vertigo, and persistent headaches are early signs of ototoxicity. The risk of neurologic effects is higher in patients with CKD.
Other signs of neurotoxicity include paresthesias, muscle twitching, and seizures.
Concurrent use with other neurotoxic drugs should be avoided.

64
Q

Ciprofloxacin pharmaceutical class

A

ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone.
Fluoroquinolones inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyras and topoisomerase IV.
Used for respiratory infections, GI & GU tract infections, some skin and soft tissue infections, uncomplicated UTIs, prophylaxis of anthrax infection.

65
Q

Ciprofloxacin administration alerts

A

administer at least 4 hours before antacids and ferrous sulfate

66
Q

ciprofloxacin black box warning

A

tendinitis and tendon rupture may occur in patients of all ages. Risk is especially high in patients over age 60 in kidney, heart, and lung transplant recipitients, and in those receiving concurrent corticosteroid therapy.

67
Q

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole pharmaceutical class

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is a sulfonamide and urinary antiseptic.
It suppresses bacterial growth by inhibiting bacterial synthesis of folic acid.
Primary use is for UTIs, pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, and shigella infections of the small bowel.

68
Q

TMP-SMZ actions and uses

A

the fixed dose combo of SMZ (sulfamethoxazole) with TMP (trimethoprim) is most frequently prescribed for the pharmacotherapy of UTIs.
It’s also approved for the treatment of pneumonia, shigella infections of the small bowel, and for acute episodes of chronic bronchitis.
SMZ&TMP are inhibitors of the bacterial metabolism of folic acid.

69
Q

TMP-SMZ administration alerts

A

TMP-SMZ should be administered with a full glass of water.
This medication should be used cautiously in patients with CKD because crystalluria, oliguria, and renal failure have been reported.

70
Q

Global incidence of TB

A

Tuberculosis (TB) is a highly contagious infection caused by the organism Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The incidence is staggering: Worldwide, about 2 billion people are infected. TB is treated with multiple anti-infectives for a prolonged period.

71
Q

Isoniazid (INH)

A

antituberculosis drug

72
Q

Isoniazid adverse effects

A

The most common adverse effects of INH or isoniazid are numbness of the hands and feet, rash, and fever. Neurotoxicity is a concern during therapy, and patients may exhibit paresthesia of the feet and hands, convulsions, optic neuritis, dizziness, coma, memory loss, and various psychoses.

73
Q

Isoniazid black box warning

A

hepatotoxicity is a serious and sometimes fatal adverse effect. While rare, the patient should be monitored carefully for jaundice, fatigue, elevated hepatic enzymes, or loss of appetite.
Liver enzyme tests are usually performed monthly during therapy to identify early hepatotoxicity.
Hepatotoxicity usually appears in the first 1-3 months of therpay, but may occur at any time during treatment.
Older adults and those with daily alcohol consumption are at greater risk of developing hepatotoxicity.

74
Q

Azoles

A

antifungal drug.
Azoles interfere with biosynthesis of ergosterol, which is essential for fungal cell membranes.

75
Q

fluconazole (diflucan)

A

azole antifungal drug
Acts by interfering with the synthesis of ergosterol.
The primary use is to treat fungal infections in the CNS, bone, eyes, urinary tract, and respiratory tract.
It’s not effective against non-albicans candida species, but it’s particularly effective against the Candida Albicans species.

76
Q

nystatin

A

used for superficial fungal infections

77
Q

Nystatin actions and uses

A

nystatin binds to sterols in the fungal cell membrane, causing leakage of intracellular contents as the membrane becomes weakened.
Nystatin is available in a cream, ointment, powder, tablet, and lozenge.
Too toxic for parenteral administration, nystatin is primarily used topically for Candida infections of the vagina, skin, and mouth.
It may also be administered PO to treat candidiasis of the intestine because it travels through the GI tract without being absorbed.

78
Q

Nystatin administration alerts

A

for oral candidiasis, apply with a swab to the affected area in infants and children because swishing is difficult or impossible.
For adults with oral candidiasis, the drug should be swished in the mouth for at least two minutes.

79
Q

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

A

antimalarial drug
Acts as an anti-protozoal agent

80
Q

Metronidazole actions and uses

A

Metronidazole is effective against both the intestinal and hepatic stages of the disease. Resistant forms of E. histolytica have not yet emerged as a clinical problem with metronidazole therapy.
Metronidazole is a preferred drug for giardiasis and trichomoniasis.

81
Q

Metronidazole cautions related to alcohol

A

metronidazole may elicit a disulfiram reaction if taken in combination with alcohol or other medications that may contain alcohol.

82
Q

Zidovudine (retrovir)

A

Drug for HIV. (Called AZT)
AZT or Zidovudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. The virus mistakensly uses zidovudine as the nucleoside, thus creating a defective DNA strand.
Used to treat HIV infection in combination with other anti-retrovirals, as well as for prevention of the transmission of HIB from mother to fetus or neonate.

83
Q

Zidovudine pharmacologic class

A

nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

84
Q

Zidovudine actions and uses

A

Zidovudine was one of the first drugs used for HIV infection. Zidovudine resembles thymidine, one of the 4 nucleoside building blocks of DNA. As the reverse transcriptase enzyme begins to synthesize viral DNA, it mistakensly uses zidovudine as one of the nucleosides, thus creating a defective DNA strand. This medication is sometimes abbreviated as AZT.

85
Q

acyclovir (zovirax)

A

antiviral for herpesviruses

86
Q

Acyclovir pharmaceutical class

A

Nucleoside Analog

87
Q

Acyclovir administration alerts

A

When given via IV, the drug may cause painful inflammation of vessels at the site of infusion. Administer around the clock, even if sleep is interrupted. Administer with food.
The nurse should monitor the patient’s condition, provide education, obtain medical/surgical/drug history, assess lifestyle and dietary habits, obtain description of symptomology and current therapies.

88
Q

Diphenhydramine (benadryl)

A

1st generation antihistamine – histamine H1 receptor blocker. Primary use is to treat minor symptoms of allergy and common cold.

89
Q

diphenhydramine actions and uses

A

diphenhydramine is a 1st generation H1 receptor antagonist whose primary use is to treat minor symptoms of allergy and the common cold such as sneezing, runny nose, and tearing of the eyes.

90
Q

Diphenhydramine adverse effects

A

can cause significant drowsiness, although this diminishes with LT use.
Occasionally, paradoxical CNS stimulation and excitability will be observed, rather than drowsiness. Excitation is more frequent in children than in adults.
Anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, tachycardia, and mild hypotension occur in some patients.
Diphenhydramine may cause photosensitivity.

91
Q

Intranasal corticosteroids

A

drug of choice in treating allergic rhinitis. High efficacy and wide margin of safety. Must be administered 2-3 weeks prior to allergen exposure. Decreases the secretion of inflammatory mediators. They reduce tissue edema and cause mild vasoconstriction.

92
Q

Fluticasone

A

intranasal corticosteroid.
Decreases local inflammation in nasal passages, thus reducing nasal stuffiness.

93
Q

Fluticasone actions and uses

A

Fluticasone is typical of the intranasal corticosteroids used to treat seasonal allergic rhinitis. Therapy usually begins with 2 sprays in each nostril twice daily and decreases to one dose per day.
Fluticasone acts to decrease local inflammation in the nasal passages, thus reducing nasal stuffiness.
Veramyst is approved for the treatment of both seasonal and perennial allergic rhinitis.

94
Q

Decongestant

A

alleviate nasal congestion of allergic rhinitis and common cold

95
Q

Oxymetazoline (Afrin)

A

Decongestant.
Stimulates alpha-adrenergic receptors in the sympathetic nervous system. Causes arterioles in the nasal passages to constrict and dries mucous membranes.

96
Q

Oxymetazoline administration alerts

A

intranasal preparations are more efficacious, but should only be used for 3-5 days due to rebound congestions.
Available in OTC sprays and drops.
Have local action within minutes and few systemic side effects, slower response time, are less effective at relieving congestion, and are often combined with antihistamine preparations.
Wash hands carefully after administration to prevent anisocoria (blurred vision and inequality of pupil size).

97
Q

oxymetazoline adverse effects

A

Rebound congestion is common when oxymetazoline is used for longer than 3-5 days.
Minor stinging and dryness in nasal mucosa may be experienced. Systemic adverse effects are unlikely unless a large amount of the medicine is swallowed.

98
Q

Dextromethorphan (Robitussin DM)

A

antitussive.
Acts in the medulla to inhibit the cough reflex.
Primary use is as a component in most OTC severe cold and flu preparations.

99
Q

Dextromethorphan actions and uses

A

Dextromethorphan is a nonopioid drug that is a component in many OTC severe cold and flu preparations. It is available in a large variety of formations, uincluding tablets, liquid-filled capsules, lozenges, and liquids.
It has a rapid onset of action, usually within 15-30 minutes.
Like codeine, it acts in the medulla, although it lacks the analgesic and euphoric effects of the opioids and does not produce dependence.
Patients whose cough is not relieved by dextromethorphan after several days of therapy should notify their healthcare provider.

100
Q

Dextromethorphan contraindications

A

dextromethorphan is contraindicated in the treatment of chronic cough due to excessive bronchial secretions, such as asthma, smoking, and emphysema. Suppressing the cough reflex is not desirable in those patients.
the FDA has issued advisories that nonRx cough and cold products (like those containing dextromethorphan) not be used in children under 6 yo and that they be used with extreme caution in all children.

101
Q

Beta-adrenergic agonists

A

most effective drugs for relieving acute bronchospasm.
The beta-adrenergic agonists activate beta2 receptors in bronchial smooth muscle to cause bronchodilation. Fewer cardiac side effects than the older non-selective beta-adrenergics. They range from ultrashort to long-acting.

102
Q

Albuterol (Proventil)

A

Beta-adrenergic agonist.
Primary use is for the termination of acute bronchospasm.

103
Q

Albuterol actions and uses

A

Albuteral is a SABA that is used to relieve the bronchospasm of asthma. Its rapid onset and excellent safety profile have made inhaled albuterol a preferred drug for the termination of acute bronchospasm. In addition to relieving bronchospasm, the drug facilitates mucus drainage and can inhibit the release of inflammatory chemicals from mast cells.
When inhaled 15-30 minutes prior to physical activity, it can prevent exercise-induced bronchospasm.

104
Q

Albuterol administration alerts

A

The proper use of the inhaler is important to the effective delivery of the drug.
Use only the actuator that comes with the canister
Observe and instruct the patient in proper use.
Assess vital signs for respiratory and pulse rate, lung sounds, respiratory effort, skin color, O2 saturation.
Do not administer if patient has history of dysrhythmia or MI. Use limited in children <6yo. Not recommended for breastfeeding women.

105
Q

Anticholinergics

A

block parasympathetic nervous system with bronchodilator effect. Occasionally used as an alternative to beta-agonists in asthma therapy.

106
Q

Ipratropium (atrovent)

A

anticholinergic / bronchodilator

107
Q

Ipratropium actions and uses

A

Ipratroprium is an anticholinergic drug that is delivered by inhalation and intranasal routes.
The inhalation form is approved to relieve and prevent the bronchospasm that is characteristic of asthma and COPD. When combined with albuterol, it is a first line drug for treating bronchospasms due to COPD, including bronchitis and emphysema.
It is prescribed off-label for asthma, as it isn’t yet FDA approved.
The primary role of ipratropium is as an alternative to SABA and for patients experiencing severe asthma exacerbations.
It is sometimes combined with beta agonists or corticosteroids to provide additive bronchodilation.

108
Q

Ipratropium administration alerts

A

The proper use of the MDI is important to the effective delivery of the drug.
Observe and instruct the patient in proper use.
Wait 2-3 minutes between dosages.
Avoid contact with the eye; otherwise, blurred vision may occur.
Assess respiratory rate before and after first dose of MDI.
Monitor vital signs: RR, pulse, respiratory effort, skin color, O2 sat, lung sounds.
Assess for history of narrow-angle glaucoma, benign prostatic hyperplasia, renal disorders, urinary bladder neck obstruction.

109
Q

Corticosteroids

A

most potent anti-inflammatory drugs.
Inhaled corticosteroids are drugs of choice for LT prophylaxis of asthma.
They must be taken daily, and systematic side effects are rarely observed.
Oral drugs are used for ST therapy of severe, acute asthma.
Limit therapy to under 10 days.

110
Q

Beclomethasone (Qvar)

A

Corticosteroid.
Used to decrease frequency of asthma attacks, allergic rhinitis.
Should not be used to terminate asthma attacks in progress.

111
Q

Beclomethasone actions and uses

A

Beclomethasone is a corticosteroid available through aerosol inhalation for asthma or as a nasal spray for allergic rhinitis.
Beclomethason and corticosteroids are first-line drugs for the LT management of persistent asthma in both children and adults.
3-4 weeks of therapy may be necessary before optimal benefits are obtained.
Beclomethasone acts by reducing inflammation, thus decreasing the frequency of asthma attacks.
It is not a bronchodilator and should not be used to terminate asthma attacks in progress.

112
Q

Beclomethasone administration alerts

A

Assess patient for presence/history of conditions such as asthma, allergic rhinitis, HTN, heart disease, blood clots, cushing syndrome, fungal infections, diabetes.
Monitor vital signs: RR, pulse, respiratory effort, lung sounds, skin color, O2 saturation, body weight.
Assess for signs and symptoms of infection.
Primary use is to prevent respiratory distress.
Do not use this medication during acute asthma attack.
Patients should watch for signs and symptoms of simple infections.
Rinse mouth after using steroid inhalers and closely monitor blood glucose levels.

113
Q

Montelukast

A

Leukotriene Modifier.
Leukotrienes are mediators of the immune response, involved in allergic and asthma reactions.
Leukotriene modifiers are primarilty used for asthma prophylaxis to reduce the inflammatory component of asthma.

114
Q

Monelukast (singular) Actions and Uses

A

Montelukast is used for the prophylaxis of persistent, chronic asthma, exercise-induced bronchospasm, and allergic rhinitis.
It prevents airway edema and inflammation by blocking leukotriene receptors in the airways.
The drug is given PO and acts rapidly, although it is not recommended for termination of acute bronchospasm.
Montelukast is available in chewable tablets and as granules that are recommended by the manufacturer to be mixed with applesauce, mashed carrots, or ice cream.

115
Q

Montelukast (Singulair) Administration Alerts

A

Monitor vital signs: RR, pulse, respiratory effect, lung sounds, skin color, O2 sat level, CBC and liver function tests.
Assess for signs and symptoms of infection, especially in older adults.
Advise patients not to use leukotriene modifiers during an acute asthma attack.
If preventing exercise-induced bronchospasm, take drug at least 2 hours before the activity.