Pharmacology-Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Drug class ‘Hydantoins’ are indicated for hx (history) of what condition?

A

Generalized Seizures

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2
Q

The CNS (Central Nervous System) consists of what?

A

Brain, Spinal Cord & Cranial Nerves

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3
Q

Which neurotransmitter is an ‘inhibiting nerve transmitter’?

A

GABA

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4
Q

benzocaine and lidocaine are both examples of what?

A

Local Anesthetics

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5
Q

Provide four drugs that are Opioid Agonists.

A

-codeine
-fentanyl
-methadone
-hydromorphone (Dilaudid)

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6
Q

What is naloxone (Narcan) classified as?

A

Opioid Antagonist
(reverses it’s affects)

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7
Q

What is the MOA (mechanism of action) of vecuronium?

A

Paralytic

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8
Q

Which neurotransmitter does rocuronium effect?

A

Acetylcholine

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9
Q

Name five common Benzodiazepines (benzos).

A

-clonazepam (Klonopin)
-diazepam (Valium)
-lorazepam (Ativan)
-alprazolam (Xanax)
&
-chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

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10
Q

What is an indication for IV lorazepam (Ativan)?

A

Active Seizure

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11
Q

In general, what neurotransmitters do anti-depressants effect?

A

serotonin and/or norepinephrine

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12
Q

carbidopa (Levodopa) is a medication used to treat what disease?

A

Parkinson’s

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13
Q

What are the four categories of anti-depressants?

A

-SSRIs
-SNRIs
-Tricyclics
-MAOs

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14
Q

Name three rxs that are neuro-muscular junction blockers (NMBAs).

A

-rocuronium
-vecuronium
-succinylcholine

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15
Q

Which drug is classified as a ‘direct acting muscle relaxant’?

A

Botox (botulinum toxin A)

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16
Q

What is the indication of tizanidine (Zanaflex)?

A

Spasticity or Severe Muscle Spasm

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17
Q

Which neurotransmitter does divalproex (Depakote) effect?

A

GABA

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18
Q

What is the indication of carisoprodol (Soma)?

A

Spasticity

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19
Q

Classify phenytoin (Dilantin).

A

Hydantoin

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20
Q

Which general anesthesia drug is administered via inhalation?

A

Nitrous Oxide

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21
Q

What is the indication of carbamazepine (Tegretol)?

A

Hx of generalized seizures.

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22
Q

Which neurotransmitter acts on the neuro-muscular junction?

A

Acetylcholine

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23
Q

Which classification of medication can be used for anxiety (ex: Benadryl)?

A

Antihistamines

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24
Q

What is the most common anti-anxiety drug classification?

A

Benzodiazepines

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25
Q

What do Anxiolytics do?

A

Help stop anxiety

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26
Q

Abruptly stopping the use of benzodiazepines puts patients at an increased risk of what?

A

Seizures

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27
Q

Combining benzos and opioids have an increased risk of causing what?

A

Respiratory Distress

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28
Q

diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is classified as what?

Hint-two classifications!

A

-Anxiolytics
-Antihistamine

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29
Q

Both Serotonin and Serotonin-Norepinephrine are neurotransmitters responsible for what?

A

Aspects of mood & related behavior.

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30
Q

What symptom is a black box warning for anti-depressants?

A

Suicidal Ideation

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31
Q

What is the term for abnormal electrical impulses from nerve cells within the brain?

A

Seizures

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32
Q

List three reasons a person may suffer secondary seizures.

A

-head injury
-electrolyte abnormality
-drug OD

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33
Q

What is the classification of rx used to treat seizure disorders?

A

Antiepileptics

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34
Q

List four examples of rxs used to treat generalized seizures.

A

-levetiracetam (Keppra)
-phenytoin (Dilantin)
divalproex (Depakote)
-valproic acid (Depakene)

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35
Q

What do Hydantoins do to neurons during a seizure?

A

Decrease Excitability

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36
Q

What are two adverse effects of anti-seizure agents?

A

-drowsiness
-depression

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37
Q

What disease involves damaged basal ganglia and a reduction in dopamine?

A

Parkinson’s

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38
Q

What is the name of the enzyme that allows for higher doses of Levodopa to cross the blood brain barrier?

A

Carbidopa

Note-this crosses the GI barrier!

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39
Q

What is the name of the enzyme that crosses the brain barrier and then turns into dopamine?

A

Levodopa

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40
Q

Dopamine crosses the brain barrier.

True OR False

A

False

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41
Q

Which classification of rx should you use caution for hx of seizure disorders?

A

Muscle Relaxants

Reason: can interfere with reflexes that cause spasms.

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42
Q

Opioid Agonists bind to opioid receptors.

True OR False

A

True

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43
Q

Opioid Antagonists block opioid receptors?

A

True

Example-naloxone (Narcan)

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44
Q

What is the main MOA of anti-migraine agents?

A

To work by vasoconstriction

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45
Q

What derivatives constrict cranial blood vessels & decrease pulsation of cranial arteries?

A

Ergot Derivatives

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46
Q

Which agents cause cranial vascular constriction with LESS vascular & GI effects?

A

Triptans

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47
Q

When is general anesthesia used?

A

-Surgery
-Intubation

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48
Q

List five examples of General Anesthetics.

A

-etomidate
-ketamine
-midazolam
-propofol
-nitrous oxide

Mneumonic:
Elephants Keep Mr Prop Nice! & sleepy ;)

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49
Q

How many stages of anesthesia are there?

A

Four

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50
Q

What are the four stages of anesthesia?

A

Stage 1-Analgesia
Stage 2-Excitement
Stage 3-Surgical
Stage 4-Medullary Paralysis

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51
Q

The Autonomic Nervous System consists of what two systems?

A

Sympathetic & Parasympathetic Systems

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52
Q

What are four examples of Adrenergic Agonists?

A

-Doputamine
-Dopamine
-Epinephrine
-Norepinephrine

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53
Q

Provide two examples of BETA Antagonists?

A

-propanolol
-timolol

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54
Q

What term describes the dynamic balance between the two autonomic branches of the nervous system?

A

Homeostasis

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55
Q

The Autonomic Nervous System regulates what 5 functions of the human body?

A

-blood pressure
-body temp
-water balance
-urinary excretion
-digestive functions

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56
Q

Which two cholinergic receptors make up the Parasympathetic System?

A

-Muscarinic
-Nicotinic

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57
Q

The Parasympathetic System is aka (also known as)…

A

“rest & digest”

58
Q

The Sympathetic System is aka (also known as)…

A

“fight or flight”

59
Q

The Peripheral Nervous System is made up of what two nerve groups?

A

-Sensory
-Somatic

60
Q

The ______ integrates parts of the CNS & PNS to automatically react to changes in the internal and external environment.

A

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

61
Q

List four body reactions that result from stimulation of the Sympathetic System.

A

-pupils dilate
-increased heart rate & contractility
-relaxed airways
-inhibits digestion

62
Q

List four body reactions that result from the Parasympathetic System.

A

-pupils constrict
-slows heart rate
-constricts airways
-increases motility & GI secretions

63
Q

What is the name of the adrenergic agent used to treat signs and symptoms of allergic rhinitis?

A

Phenylephrine

(example-Sudafed & other cold meds)

64
Q

What is another term for adrenergic drugs?

A

Sympathomimetic Agents

65
Q

A client is prescribed an alpha-1 selective adrenergic blocking agent. What are two conditions the client may have?

A

-Hypertension
&
-BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia)

66
Q

What type of nerves only use acetylcholine?

A

Parasympathetic

67
Q

What system consists of Alpha-Receptors & Beta-Receptors?

A

Sympathetic

68
Q

Which alpha-2 agonist is given to drop BP & decrease anxiety?

A

Clonidine

69
Q

Which alpha-1 agonist is given for orthostatic hypotension?

A

Midodrine
(given to raise BP)

70
Q

What is the name of the beta-2 agonist prescribed for bronchial spasms?

A

Albuterol
(Ventolin HFA)

71
Q

Which type of agonist is given for dx-overactive bladder?

A

beta-3

72
Q

What is a possible side effect from the use of Albuterol?

A

Shakiness, due to over simulation of the sympathetic nervous system.

73
Q

What is the main function of Adrenergic Antagonists?

A

To block the effects of the SNS (Sympathetic Nervous System).

74
Q

Which drug is given by IV route to patients for cardiac arrhythmias?

A

Amiodarone

75
Q

What condition does Tamsulosin (Flomax) treat?

A

BPH
(Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia)

76
Q

What is a peripheral IV line?

A

Standard IV.
Sites-arm, hand ,foot or scalp.

77
Q

What is a central IV line?

A

An IV inserted into a large vein near the heart.

(Typically to deliver cardiac meds vs regular peripheral ivs).

78
Q

What are three effects of alpha-a antagonists?

A

*Decreased vascular tone & vasodilation
*Lower BP
*Relaxation of bladder & prostate

79
Q

What is the name of the drug that is used as a reversal agent if an epi IV line fails?

A

Phentolamine
(classification-Alpha Antagonist)

80
Q

What are some signs/sx (symptoms) of a peripheral IV line malfunction/fail?

A

Redness, Pain or Swelling around the site.

81
Q

What type of antagonist is the drug Phentolamine?

A

Alpha-1 and Alpha-2

82
Q

What are three indications for Rx Propranolol?

A

-hypertension
-migraines
-cardiac arrhythmias

83
Q

What is Propanolol’s drug classification?

A

Nonselective Beta Blocker

84
Q

Propanolol’s use should be avoided if a client suffers from what two conditions?

A

-Acute Asthma
-Bronchospasms

85
Q

Timolol eye drops are prescribed for what condition?
What is their MOA?

A

-Glaucoma

-Relieves pressure in the eyes.

86
Q

What are three examples of Beta-1 Antagonists?

*hint- end with ‘lol’

A

-atenolol
-esmolol
-metoprolol (Toprol XL or Lopressor)

87
Q

What are three indications of Beta-1 Blockers?

A

-hypertension
-angina
-cardiac arrythmias

88
Q

What is the Chronotropic response?

A

Increased Heart Rate

89
Q

What should an RN always do prior to administering a beta-1 selective antagonist (example-metoprolol)?

A

Take & Document Apical Pulse and BP of the client.

90
Q

What is the formula for Cardiac Output (BP)?

A

CO=HR x SV

Cardiac Output=Heart Rate times Stroke Volume

91
Q

What system uses acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter?

A

Parasympathetic Nervous System (PNS)

92
Q

Muscarinic Receptors are responsible for what 5 reactions within the body?

A

-pupil constriction
-decreased heart rate
-increased GI motility & secretions
-increased bladder contractions
-male erection

93
Q

What do Nicotinic Receptors affect (two examples)?

A

-muscle contractions
-preganglionic nerves

94
Q

What are the alpha receptors?

A

-a1
-a2

95
Q

What are the beta receptors?

A

-b1
-b2
-b3

96
Q

The Parasympathetic System is broken down into which two receptors?

A

-Muscarinic
-Nicotinic

97
Q

Where are nicotinic receptors found?

A

Neuromuscular Junctions
(within the Somatic Nervous System or SNS)

98
Q

How do nicotinic receptors affect the heart?

A

They can increase OR decrease HR and BP.

99
Q

Which receptors respond to acetylcholine and are found on organs & muscles?

A

Cholinergic Receptors

100
Q

What are direct acting nicotinics used for?

A

nicotine withdrawal
(example-nicotine patches)

101
Q

What is an example of a direct acting muscarinic drug used to treat urinary retention?

A

bethanechol (Duvoid)

102
Q

What is another term for Cholinergic Agonists?

A

Parasympathomimetics

103
Q

A nurse would question an order for a beta-1 selective adrenergic blocker for a patient with what two conditions?

A

-Bradycardia (better answer)
-Hypotension

104
Q

Myasthenia gravis (muscle weakness) is treated with indirect-acting cholinergic agents that lead to what accumulation?

A

Acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft.

105
Q

Adverse effects associated with the use of cholinergic drugs include what two symptoms?

A

-diarrhea
-urinary urgency

106
Q

If a client is stressed and having a sympathetic stress reaction, what would you expect to find (2 sxs)?

A

-dilated pupils
-elevated systolic pressure

107
Q

Stimulation of the Parasympathetic Nervous System would cause what two sxs?

A

-slower HR
-increased GI secretions

108
Q

The nurse determines that the beta-2 receptors in the SNS have been stimulated by which finding?

A

Bronchial Dilation

109
Q

What agonists could reverse the effects of paralytics?

A

Cholinergic

110
Q

What are three indications of short acting Cholinergic Agonists?

A

-reversal of neuromuscular junction blocking agents
-myasthenia gravis
-Alzheimer’s Disease

111
Q

What is an example of a drug used to treat Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Pyridostigmine
(cholinergic agonist)

112
Q

Which response do Anticholinergic Agents block?

A

Parasympathetic

113
Q

What does atropine do to the heart?

A

Increases HR

114
Q

What is an indication for atropine?

A

Bradycardia

115
Q

The Anticholinergic Agent called scopolamine is used to treat what symptoms?

A

-nausea
-vomiting
-motion sickness

116
Q

Which alpha receptor causes vasoconstriction, increased BP, pupil dilation & closure of urinary bladder sphincter?

A

alpha-1

117
Q

Which beta receptor increases HR, increases lipolysis and increases myocardial contractility?

A

beta-1
(hint-one heart)

118
Q

Alpha-2 receptors inhibit the release of what three chemicals?

A

-Norepinephrine
-Acetylcholine
-Insulin

119
Q

Which receptors cause vasodilation & bronchial dilation?

A

beta-2
(hint-two lungs)

120
Q

Which receptor decreases peripheral resistance but increases glucagon release?

A

beta-2

121
Q

What is the name of the term for when the hair on your arms and body stand up?

A

Piloerection

122
Q

What is the goal of alpha-2 receptors?

A

To prevent overstimulation of effector sites.

123
Q

The human body naturally produces which two alpha-beta agonists?

A

-Dopamine
-Epinephrine

124
Q

What is the indication of Adrenergic Agonist (alpha & beta) use?

A

States of Shock

125
Q

What is the goal of Adreneric Agonists?

A

-Increase BP to appropriate levels.
-Increase blood flow to organs.

126
Q

Beta-1 receptors target what two organs?

A

-Heart
-Kidneys

127
Q

Beta-2 receptors target what organs/body systems?

A

-Lungs
-Blood Vessels
-GI Tract
-Bladder

128
Q

Beta-3 receptors target what type of tissue within the body?

A

Adipose (Fatty)

129
Q

Which receptor increases metabolism and bladder capacity?

A

beta-3

130
Q

The Autonomic Nervous System is also known as what system?

A

Involuntary Nervous System

131
Q

What type of agonist is rx clonidine?

A

Alpha-2

132
Q

What type of antagonist is rx tamsulosin?

A

Alpha-1

133
Q

Name five Anticholinergic meds.

(hint-most end in ‘ine’)

A

-atropine
-dicyclomine
-hyoscyamine
-scopolamine
-ipratroprium

134
Q

Name two Muscarinic Agonists.

A

-bethanechol
-pilocarpine

135
Q

Name three Adrenergic Antagonists.

A

-amiodarone
-carvedilol
-labetolol

136
Q
A
137
Q
A
138
Q
A
139
Q
A
140
Q
A