Pharmacology - Antimicrobials Flashcards

1
Q

List the five factors that determine the risk of emergence of resistant bacterial strains.

A
  1. Size of the inoculum
  2. Ability of the bacteria to acquire mutations
  3. Ability of host defenses to eliminate resistant bacteria
  4. Drug concentrations at the site of infection
  5. Duration of exposure to AMDs
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2
Q

Define “antibiotic”

A

A natural chemical, produced by other organisms, that is designed to suppress the growth of other organisms (including bacteria, fungi, or protozoa).

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3
Q

Define “antimicrobial”

A

Any compound, natural or synthetic, that suppresses microbial growth.

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4
Q

Define “antibacterial”

A

Any compound that suppresses bacterial growth.

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5
Q

List major strategies that may reduce the selection for antimicrobial resistance.

A
  1. Documentation of the presence of infection
  2. Appropriate susceptibility testing
  3. Proper identification of the infecting organism
  4. The use of agents that are as specific for the pathogen as possible, at the proper dose and for the proper duration of time
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6
Q

First-line antibacterial drugs are those that could be used for empirical selection in the absence of or pending the results of culture and susceptibility testing. These include:

A
  1. Amoxicillin
  2. Amoxicillin-clavulanate
  3. Cephalexin
  4. Doxycycline
  5. Minocycline
  6. Trimethoprim-sulfonamides (TMS)
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7
Q

Second-line drugs are those to be used on the basis of culture and susceptibility testing and because of the lack of any appropriate first-line options. These include:

A
  1. Piperacillin-tazobactam
  2. Amikacin
  3. Third-generation cephalosporins
  4. Fluoroquinolones
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8
Q

The use of third-line drugs, including vancomycin, linezolid, rifampin, human-labeled third-generation cephalosporins (e.g., ceftazidime), and carbapenems such as imipenem and meropenem, is usually reserved for situations when certain criteria are met. What are those criteria?

A
  1. Infection must be documented based on clinical abnormalities and culture.
  2. The infection is serious and has the potential to be life threatening if left untreated.
  3. Resistance is documented to all other reasonable first- and second-line options.
  4. The infection is potentially treatable.
  5. The clinician may seek advice from an infectious disease clinician or a clinical microbiologist to discuss antimicrobial susceptibility test results, and to discuss the use of these agents if there is unfamiliarity with their use.
  6. The clinician should attempt for a duration of treatment that is as short as possible.
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9
Q
A
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10
Q

Which two antimicrobials exhibit concentration-dependent killing?

A

Fluoroquinolones and aminoglycosides. These drugs work optimally when the peak concentration in the plasma (Cmax) or the area under the curve (AUC) exceeds the MIC by a defined index factor.

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11
Q

Drugs that exhibit concentration-dependent killing also have postantibiotic effect (PAE). What is PAE?

A

A persistent antimicrobial effect after drug concentrations at the site of infection fall below the MIC.

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12
Q

Which antimicrobials exhibit time-dependent killing?

A

β-lactams (penicillins and cephalosporins), macrolides, clindamycin, vancomycin, and tetracyclines. The activity of these drugs is maximized by the time above the MIC rather than the magnitude of the concentration.

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13
Q

List three appropriate initial antimicrobial choices for bacterial skin infection

A

Cephalexin
Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Clindamycin

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14
Q

List four appropriate initial antimicrobial choices for bacterial urinary tract infection

A

Amoxicillin
Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Cephalosporins
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

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15
Q

List two appropriate initial antimicrobial choices for bacterial prostatic infection

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Fluoroquinolones (enrofloxacin, marbofloxacin, orbifloxacin, levofloxacin)

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16
Q

List two appropriate initial antimicrobial choices for bacterial respiratory tract infection

A

Tetracyclines (doxycycline, minocycline)
Fluoroquinolones

17
Q

List two appropriate initial antimicrobial choices for the intestinal tract for animals with hepatic encephalopathy

A

Ampicillin
Neomycin

18
Q

List three appropriate initial antimicrobial choices for bacterial biliary tract infection

A

Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Cephalosporins
Fluoroquinolones

19
Q

List three appropriate initial antimicrobial choices for bacterial infection in the brain

A

Metronidazole (anaerobes only)
Fluoroquinolones
Trimethoprim-sulfonamides

20
Q

List three appropriate initial antimicrobial choices for bacterial osteomyelitis

A

Clindamycin
Cephalosporins
Amoxicillin-clavulanate

21
Q

List two age-related factors when considering antimicrobial selection

A
  1. The administration of systemic tetracyclines is contraindicated in young animals because of the potential for teeth discoloration (Doxycycline is less likely to produce this reaction if administered for a short course)
  2. Fluoroquinolones have the potential to cause cartilage and joint toxicity in dogs aged between 7 and 28 weeks.
22
Q

True or False: Dogs are the species most susceptible to reactions from sulfonamides (including trimethoprim-sulfonamides) because of an inability to acetylate the parent drug for elimination.

A

True. Subsequently, some breeds of dog convert the drug to a cytotoxic metabolite that produces hypersensitivity-like reactions following trimethoprim-sulfonamide administration. Doberman pinschers may be at higher risk for this problem. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye) is also a risk when administering sulfonamides to dogs.

23
Q

True or False: The absorption of some AMDs, such as ketoconazole and itraconazole, is impaired by medications that suppress gastric acid production.

A

True

24
Q

True or False: The single most important mechanism of antibacterial resistance is acquisition of foreign DNA by horizontal transfer, especially that carried by plasmids and transposons.

A

True

25
Q

Name three specific situations in which prophylactic antibiotic therapy is indicated

A
  1. To prevent surgical infections when contamination is expected
  2. Treatment of deep bite wounds
  3. Following chemotherapy when moderate to severe neutropenia develops (<1000 neutrophils/μL).
26
Q
A