Pharmacology and the dental patient Flashcards

1
Q

Name some commonly used analgesics

A
  • Ibuprofen
  • Paracetamol
  • Aspirin
  • Corticosteroids
  • Codine
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2
Q

What is an con of ibuprofen

A
  • Occasionally causes xerostomia (dry mouth) which can increase oral plaque and dental caries (cavities)
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3
Q

What is the use of Corticosteroids

A

Anti-inflammatory medications that are used to relieve discomfort and soreness of the mouth

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4
Q

What may be given if pain is more severe

A

Narcotic analgesics - codeine, hydrocodone

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5
Q

What is the role of CYP2D6

A

The conversion of codeine to its active metabolite morphine occurs in the liver, and is catalysed by CYP2D6

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6
Q

What’s the effect of being a poor metaboliser of CYP2D6 in relation to taking codeine

A
  • As codeine is a prodrug, poor metabolisers of CYP2D6 will experiences little to no analgesia from the medication
  • This is because they lack the enzyme to metabolise the drug
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7
Q

What’s the issue with being a Poor Metaboliser (PM)

A

PM have inadequate pain control due to very minimal conversion of codeine (prodrug) to morphine

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8
Q

What’s the issue with being an Ultrarapid Metaboliser (UM)

A
  • Likely to have more side effects from higher morphine concentrations
  • Can be life-threatening
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9
Q

What is Pharmacogenetics

A

The identifications of genetic variants that affect the responses to medications in patients

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10
Q

Name some drugs for sedation

A
  • Nitrous oxide
  • Midazolam
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11
Q

Describe Nitrous Oxide

A
  • Main use is usually as a mild sedative + analgesic
  • Helps to alleviate patient anxiety
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12
Q

What are the 4 levels of sedation with Nitrous Oxide

A
  1. A tingling sensation
  2. Warm sensations
  3. A feeling of well-being/euphoria
  4. Sleepiness
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13
Q

Describe Midazolam

A
  • IV sedation, recommended for adults
  • Has a fast onset (1-2 mins)
  • Drug slows heart rate and rate of breathing
  • Patient can leave the surgery 1-1.5 hours after
  • Can become addictive
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14
Q

What are the 2 phases of sedation with Midazolam

A
  1. Recovery from sedation
  2. Recovery from psychomotor impairment
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15
Q

What are some localised oral lesions that are indicated for antibiotic use

A
  • Periodontal abscess
  • Acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis
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16
Q

What does short-course antibiotic therapy require in terms of characteristics

A
  • Rapid onset of action
  • Bactericidal activity
  • Easy penetrability
  • Administration at an optimal dose
17
Q

What may prolonged courses of antibiotics result in

A
  • Normal resident oral flora being destroyed
  • Selection of resistant strains
  • Colonisation by harmful micro-organisms that aren’t normal residents
18
Q

What is Metronidazole and what can it be indicated for

A
  • Used particularly for anaerobic bacteria + protozoa
  • Can be indicated for treatment of a bacterial dental infection (often used with Amoxicillin)
19
Q

When should you not take Metronidazole whilst consuming alcohol

A

Effects include:
- Nausea
- Vomiting
- Flushing of skin
- Shortness of breath

20
Q

Describe antihypertensives and postural hypotension

A
  • Postural hypotension is an excessive fall in blood pressure when an upright position is assumed
  • Symptoms: faintness, light-headedness, dizziness, confusion
21
Q

Describe opioids and addiction-related behaviour

A
  • Opioid analgesics are sometimes used for some forms of chronic orofacial pain
  • With long-term opioid therapy for chronic pain, there’s the potential risk of developing opioid tolerance, dependance or addiction
22
Q

Describe insulin and oral hypoglycaemics

A
  • Most common complication of diabetes therapy that can occur in the dental surgery is a hypoglycaemic episode (drop in blood glucose levels)
  • Oral infections or dental procedures can affect food intake in diabetics
23
Q

Describe steroids

A
  • Chronic usage of steroid inhalers make the patient susceptible to oral yeast infection + blood blisters
24
Q

Describe beta blockers

A
  • Patients medicated with non-selective beta blockers have heightened sensitivity to the systemic effects of vasopressors
  • Beta blockers can decrease hepatic blood flow and/or inhibit hepatic enzymes, resulting in the reduced metabolism of lidocaine
25
Q

Describe warfarin and antiplatelet drugs

A
  • Warfarin is an anticoagulant which inhibits synthesis of the vitamin K-dependant coagulation factors
  • A normal coagulation profile has an INR of 1.0, the risk of bleeding increases exponentially as the INR rises
  • INR should be measures within 72 hours prior to the operative procedure - allows time for any dose adjustment so the INR is less than 4.0 on the day of procedure
26
Q

Describe bisphosphonates

A
  • Bisphosphonates are used to prevent bone resorption in osteoporosis and bone cancer
  • Bisphosphonate usage is associated with exposure of dead bone in jaws
  • By surpressing bone resorption, any damaged bone will be left in situ instead of being resorbed