Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Neuro Clin Med > Pharmacology and Neurological Conditions > Flashcards

Pharmacology and Neurological Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

Why do PT’s need to know pharmacology?

How to _____ ____ medication
How to understand the _____ of ________
How to find _____ _______
What do these ______ _____ mean for practice?

A

look up
mechanism; action
side effects
side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pharmacology and Neurorehabilitation

Types of medications
Those acting on the ______ ______, ______, ________ ______

Those used in prevention of ________ ________ to the nervous system

Those used in treatment of _______ _______ that could impact the nervous system

Those used to treat ________ ________ of nervous system impairment

A

nervous system, brain, spinal cord

adverse events

secondary conditions

secondary complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CVA:
Acute management
__________

A

clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

TBI:
Acute management
________ _________

A

secondary complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MS:
Acute management
________ __________ medications

A

disease modifying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

We are looking at the ________ _________ goals not PT management goals

A

pharmacologic management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Outputs from the ________ get to the body in a two-part ______

A

CNS; circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

UMNs are contained in the _________

A

CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

LMNs are contained in the ________

A

PNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

UMN symptoms:

Generally _____ T12
_______reflexia
________tone/spasticity
Postive ______ signs
_______ or ________ bladder and bowel

A

above
hyper
increased
UMN
spastic; hyperreflexive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

LMN symptoms:

Generally _____ T12
______reflexia
_________
___________ tone/spasticity
________ UMN signs
________ bladder and bowel

A

below
hypo
flaccidity
decreased
negative
flaccid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CVA:
This disorder is caused by an _______ of _________ _________

A

irregularity; blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CVA:
A bleed = _______
A clot = ________

A

hemorrhagic
ischemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An ischemic stroke can possibly be reversed with this medication?

A

tPA (Tissue Plasminogen Activator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

tPA is a ___________

A

thrombolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

tPA’s mechanism of action: initiates fibronolysis by binding to fibrin and thrombus, which means what…?

A

It helps break down clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

tPA should be administered within what hours of an ischemic event?

A

3-4.5 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

tPA is given after ____ or ______ and _______ _______ monitoring to ensure it is ischemic

A

CT; MRI
blood glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Contraindications to tPA:
Active ________ ________

Suspected _______ _______

Recent (within 3 months) _______ or _________ surgery or severe ________ ______

__________ hemorrhage

_______ stroke within the last 3 months

A

internal bleeding

aortic dissection

intracranial; intraspinal
head trauma

subarachnoid

Ischemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the main risk of tPA?

A

hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If the problem in ischemic CVA is a clot or embolus, medication should target ________

A

anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Heparin is typically administered by ?

A

IV (hospital)
injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

________ MOA: works to prevent 2 steps in the clotting cascade from happening

A

Heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

With Heparin, it’s not always routine post ______ but can be used if there is concern for _______ _______

A

CVA
secondary emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the main risk/side effect for Heparin, Lovenox, and Coumadin?
hemorrhage
26
PT implications for Heparin: Check ____/______/_____ At risk for ________ hemorrhage Not a line you should _______ for mobility!
PT/PTT/INR uncontrolled disconnect
27
Lovenox is typically administered by _____ and rarely _____
Injection IV
28
Lovenox MOA: is a low molecular weight _____, meaning it works the same way but has less effect on _______ compared to heparin and has a longer _____ ______
heparin thrombin half life
29
PT Implications for Lovenox: Check _____/______/______ At risk for uncontrolled _______
PT/PTT/INR hemorrhage
30
Coumadin is administered _________
orally
31
Coumadin MOA: depletes functional Vitamin _____ availability necessary for ________ of certain clotting factors
K synthesis
32
Coumadin is often for more _______ stages -treatment of ______ disorders - __________ of _____________ complications
chronic cardiac prophylaxis; thromboembolic
33
PT implictions for Coumadin: Check _____/_________/______ At risk for _________ hemorrhage
PT/PTT/INR uncontrolled
34
INR stands for ?
International Normalizing Ratio
35
INR of ___-_____ is considered normal/normal activity
0.8; 1.2
36
INR < 4.0 is safe for _____ and regular ________ program, there should be NO increase in _______ of exercises
eval; exercises intensity
37
An INR ___-_____, the patient should NOT perform resistance exercises and only light exercise
4.0; 5.0
38
With an INR of ___-_____, you should hold exercise
5.0; 6.0
39
With an INR of > _______, the patient is on bed rest
6.0
40
The INR measures what?
how long it takes your blood to clot
41
With a high INR a person is more likely to....?
bleed excessively
42
_________ + _____ _______ ________ in vessels increases the risk of a clot
Hypercoagulability high blood pressure
43
Antihypertensives treat conditions such as _____
CVA
44
Three types of TBI?
mild (concussion) moderate severe
45
_________ of the brain is a key concern for TBI
Swelling
46
Moderate and severe TBIs may come with _______ brain damage from _____, ______, etc
structural bleeds hematomas
47
What is considered normal ICP?
5-20 mmHg
48
___________ : dehydrates intracellular fluid and pulls it into the blood stream to decrease ICP
Mannitol
49
Mannitol acts like a _______ Risks: Low _____ and kidney _______
diuretic CPP necrosis
50
_________ ________ ________: increases the osmolarity of the blood pulling fluid from the extravascular space into the intravascular space decreasing ICP
Hypertonic Saline Bolus
51
High- dose pentobarbital/thiopental therapy: Reduce _______ _____ and _______ ______ flow which in turn reduces ICP for a neuroprotective effect
brain metabolism cerebral blood flow
52
Increased ______ can be a side effect of TBI
fatigue
53
________ has been used to safely improve arousal and cognition in patients with TBI
Amantadine
54
Amantadine side effects with PT implications: ________ _______, ________
orthostatic hypotension dizziness
55
The MOA for Amantadine is _______
unknown
56
Benzodiazepines are commonly prescribed after _____
TBI
57
This medication's meta-analysis shows limited impact compared to placebo?
Benzodiazepines
58
With Benzodiazepines, long-term studies show ______ rather than
injury benefit
59
These are side effects of taking __________: Fall risk Low energy Memory loss Anxiety Resipiratory depression Syncope Tremor
Benzodiazepines
60
What are the secondary complications with a TBI?
Arousal Anxiety/Depression Seizures Spasticity
61
Most seizures after a trauma happen in the first _____ hours
24
62
The most common seizure medication is ________ ( _______ )
Phenytoin (Dilantin)
63
Phenytoin (Dilantin) MOA: changes ______ ______ channels distribution to make _______ less likely in the motor cortex
sodium ion depolarization
64
_________ ( _______) side effects: slurred speech, ataxia, drowsiness, hypotension, arrthymia, bradycardia, v-fib
Phenytoin (Dilantin)
65
Besides Phenytoin (Dilantin), what is another common seizure medication?
Levetiracetam (Keppra)
66
Levetiracetam (Keppra) MOA: unknown, but speculated that it effects ______ channels also increases the _______ effect of GABA
calcium inhibitory
67
Side effects of ________ ( ______ ): depression, paranoid behavior, hallucinations, agitation, suicidal ideation, dyskinesia
Levetiracetam (Keppra)
68
Which two medications control spasticity of TBIs?
Baclofen Botox
69
Baclofen MOA: following ______ lesions can become hyperreflexive and have high ______. Baclofen inhibits reflexes at the ______ _____ and dcreases overall spasticity and tone
UMN tone spinal cord
70
Baclofen can be taken ______ adnd through ________
orally intrathecal
71
With intrathecal administration, a pump is surgically inserted near the _______, and the medicine goes straight into the _____ ______
abdomen spinal canal
72
Side effects of ________: low tone, paresthesias, drowsiness, confusion, severe withdrawal symptoms, nausea/vomiting
Baclofen
73
Botox MOA: It is a _______ that acts on the presynaptic side of the neuromuscular junction producing a temporary state of __________ until the nerve fibrils grow back
neurotoxin denervation
74
Botox is typically _______ into targeted specific muscles
injected
75
______ side effects: Low tone in certain muscle groups, GI problems, pain
Botox
76
Which medicatons are prescribed for MS Acute management or flare ups?
Corticosteroids: Methylprednisolone
77
Corticosteroids: Methylprednisolone for MS are often given by _____
IV
78
MOA for Methylprednisolone: decreases ________ migration and capillary ________
leukocyte permeability
79
Methylprednisolone side effects: ____ gain, _____glycemia, _____ changes, ________ suppression, and impaired _____ ______
weight hyper CNS adrenal bone growth
80
You have a patient following a brain injury who is having difficulty staying awake during the day. Which of the following medications might the Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation team consider using to remedy this?
Amantadine
81
You have a patient who has cardiopulmonary complications and is high risk for DVT following a medical procedure. Which of the following medications would be BEST to administer prophylactically due to having a longer half-life to prevent clots?
Lovenox
82
You have a patient who has cardiopulmonary complications and is high risk for DVT following a medical procedure. Which of the following medications would be BEST to administer prophylactically due to having a longer half-life to prevent clots?
control blood pressure
83
Which of the following vitals would be most crucial to track in a patient with TBI who had just received Phenytoin (Dilantin) for a seizure?
heart rate
84
How does Baclofen control spasticity?
It provides top down inhibitory control UMN signs
85
Lovenox timing of use: _______ in CVA to prevent secondary clots - used in treatment of _____ d/o's - ______, _______ prophylaxis
subacute cardiac DVT, VTE

Neuro Clin Med (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions