Pharmacology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Outline the differences between primary and secondary hypertension. Include some of the key risk factors involved in primary hypertension, and how secondary hypertension can be treated.

A

Primary hypertension is high blood pressure as a result of hereditary and/or lifestyle factors (usually multifactoral), including smoking, age, obesity, lack of exercise, and genetic predisposition. In primary hypertension, pharmacological and lifestyle interventions are designed to reduce blood pressure and alleviate symptoms.

In secondary hypertension (<10% of all cases), the high blood pressure is a result of a specific disease, such as renal hypertension or pheochromocytoma. In these cases, the specific cause is treated, as opposed to interventions to alleviate blood pressure itself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Explain the mode of effect of beta blockers in the treatment of CVD.

A

Beta-adrenoreceptor blockers can block the effects of adrenaline on the heart, reducing cardiac output, and thus reduces blood pressure. They also decrease the amount of renin released from the kidneys. These are known as competitive reversible antagonists, meaning that if there is enough of competing substrate, then it will overcome the blocker - therefore, a proportional amount of drug to competing substrate is required.

Propanolol blocks B1 and B2 adrenoreceptors, but more specific drugs, such as atenolol, block B1 specifically.

Adverse effects of B-blockers include exacerbation of asthma, intolerance to exercise, hypoglyaemia, and vivid dreams (they cross the BBB).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Explain the mode of effect of alpha blockers in the treatment of CVD.

A

Alpha-adrenoreceptor blockers are competitive reversible agonists. They lower blood pressure by lowering the sympathetic tone of arterioles by blocking noradrenalin A1 and 2 receptor.

Phentolamine is an A1 and A1 blocker, doxazosin and prazosin are A1 selective.

Additionally, increased closure of internal sphincter of the bladder can be alleviated by A-blockers, which can treat BPH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain the mode of effect of ACE inhibitors in the treatment of CVD.

A

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) converts circulating angiotensin I into its active form, angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a very potent vasoconstrictor. It also stimulates the release of aldosterone, which increases the absorption of sodium and water in the kidneys.

By inhibiting ACE, reduced angiotensin II results in lowered total peripheral resistance, and reduced aldosterone results in lowered absorption of sodium and water (diuretic effect) which lowers circulating fluid volume.

Examples of ACE inhibitors include captopril and enalapril. Adverse effects include a sudden blood pressure drop after the first dose, and a persistent dry cough (due to reduced breakdown of bradykinin, a peptide which activates sensory nerves in lung tissues).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Explain the mode of effect of angiotensin II receptor blockers in the treatment of CVD.

A

Angiotensin II receptor blockers are a good alternative to ACE inhibitors - they have the same effect but will not cause the same side effects.

The AT2 receptor mediates vasoconstriction and thealdosterone-releasing actions of angiotensin II. Losartan and cendesartan are examples of AT2 blockers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Explain the mode of effect of calcium channel blockers in the treatment of CVD.

A

Calcium channel blockers block L-type voltage operated calcium channels (on vascular smooth and cardiac muscle). Blocking these channels reduces calcium entry into vascular smooth muscle and cadiomyocytes, resulting in reduced total peripheral resistance and cardiac output, respectively, by inhibiting the action potentials which cause them to contract.

Some of the drugs operate by blocking open channels (like a cork - e.g. verapamil and diltiazem), whereas others block channels by allosteric modulation (e.g. nifedipine). These drugs can be tissue selective.

Adverse side effects include gum hyperplasia, headache, constipation, and cardiac dysrhythmias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Explain the mode of effect of diuretics in the treatment of CVD.

A

Diuretics lower blood pressure by reducing blood circulating volume. They act by reducing renal reabsorption (of sodium, and consequently, water), and may also contribute to lowered peripheral resistance by vasodilation.

They can lead to a reduction in blood plasma potassium ions (and thus, increase liability to cardiac arrhythmia).

An example is bendroflumethiazide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define pre-load and after-load.

A

1) Pre-load is the diastolic pressure that distends the relaxed left ventricle, and is determined by the venous return (which is determined by the dilation of veins).
2) After-load is the force against which the left ventricle contracts, and this is determined by the total peripheral resistance (which is determined by the vascular tone of the resistance arterioles) and circulating blood volume (determined by the level of water reabsorption in the kidneys).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

With reference to the Bainbridge reflex, explain how nitrovasodilators can help alleviate symptoms of angina.

A

The Bainbridge reflex is a sympathetic atrial reflex. When there is an increase in venous return to the atria, the stretch stimulates the baroreceptors of the SA node, increasing sympathetic nerve stimulation, resulting in increased heart rate (similar to the Starling’s reflex). Therefore, reducing venous return (pre-load) will reduce myocardial work.

Nitrovasodilators are a class of drugs which will reduce pre-load by dilating veins. GTN (nitroglycerine) is commonly used as a spray (to prevent first-pass (liver) metabolism). Poppers such as amyl nitrate can be used to treat angina .

These drugs are rapid onset and are short-lived – they can be used prior to exercise, or for rapid relief during anginal attack. These drugs are lipophilic – they readily enter smooth muscle cells and are reduced to nitric oxide (NO) (nitric oxide donors) which mimics the action of endothelium-derived NO. NO activates soluble guanylate cyclase (sGC), a cytoplasmic enzyme, via its haem receptor, activating it. Active sGC converts GTP to cGMP, which causes vasodilation.

Side effects of vasodilation include headache and tolerance to prolonged use .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Outline the four common causes of chronic heart failure,and describe the key symptoms and vicious cycle involved.

A

Heart failure is a state in which the heart fails to maintain an adequate circulation for the needs of the body despite an adequate venous filling pressure (contractile function is diminished regardless of plenty blood). Common causes of chronic heart failure include:

1) Haemodynamic overload (chronic hypertension or excess blood volume (via obesity or valve regurgitation)).
2) Neurohumoral overload (e.g. toxin overproduction of thyroxine (thyroxicosis)).
3) Tissue damage (e.g. scarring due to myocardial infarction).
4) Genetically determined excessive hypertrophic response to pressure (e.g. familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy).

Symptoms include fatigue, pulmonary oedema (impaired gas exchange due to increased blood volume in pulmonary circulation), venous distension (build-up of venous blood), and cyanosis (impaired supply of oxygen to peripheral tissues).

Heart failure can arise from a vicious cycle starting with increased central venous pressure, which leads to increased pre-load, increased end-diastolic volume, increased stroke volume, increased cardiac output, increased peripheral vascular resistance, increased diastolic arterial pressure, increased afterload, increased cardiac work, and increased oxygen consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Explain the mode of action of HMGCoAR inhibitors in the treatment of high cholesterol.

A

Hydroxy-methyl-glutaryl-coenzyme-A-reductase inhibitors (HMGCoAR inhibitors, AKA “statins”) are a class of competitive inhibitor drugs which inhibit the rate determining step in cholesterol synthesis within the liver (via the enzyme HMGCoAR). By inhibiting this step, the amount of cholesterol synthesised and stored in the liver decreases, causing the liver to increase expression of LDL receptors, and draw in low-density lipoproteins (e.g. cholesterol) from the circulation, preventing them from invading blood vessels walls, and thus preventing atherosclerosis development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the autonomic and endocrine control of airway function.

A

1) Sympathetic (noradrenalinergic) nerves innervate blood vessels and glands. Sympathetic action on glands tends to reduce mucus secretion.
2) Parasympathetic (acetylcholinergic) nerves innervate bronchial smooth muscle and glands. By acting on M3 receptors, the vagus nerve causes increased bronchoconstriction, and parasympathetic action of glands increases mucus secretion.
3) As well as these, there are inhibitory and excitatory non-adrenergic, non-cholinergic (i- and e-NANC) nerves. i-NANC nerves re;ax airway smooth muscle via nitric oxide. e-NANC nerves can cause neuro-inflammation due to tachykinin release.
4) Endocrine system can control respiration - adrenaline from adrenal glands acts on beta-2 airway smooth muscle receptors to constrict them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the pathology of asthma, and how it can be tested for.

A

Asthma is an obstructive lung disease – a chronic inflammatory condition with acute exacerbations. Asthma can cause smooth muscle in the airway to thicken (via hypertrophy and hyperplasia) and contract which constricts the airways, as well as mucus hypersecretion. All this can cause epithelial damage and result in infiltration of inflammatory cells, as well as bronchial hyper reactivity.

Asthma symptoms can be triggered by pet dander, dust mites, moulds, pollens, respiratory infections, exercise, cold air, tobacco smoke (and other pollutants), stress, alcohol, and other allergies.

To diagnose asthma, spirometry is used to measure an individual’s forced vital capacity (FVC, maximal expiration following full inspiration), and forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1, the volume of FVC expelled after one second) to determine peak expiratory flow (FEV1/FVC, less than 80% = asthmatic, generally) . Asthma reduces FEV1, particularly during an acute exacerbation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Explain the mode of action of bronchodilators in treatment of asthma.

A

Bronchodilators act as relievers for asthma symptoms (relieve symptoms during an acute exacerbation).

Salbutamol is a common bronchodilator, which acts as a beta-2 agonist (stimulates B2-adrenoreceptors). When B2-adrenoreceptors are stimulated, it leads to the production of cAMP by adenylyl cyclase, which results in the production of PKA, resulting in bronchodilation (signal cascade).

Methylxanthines are also bronchodilators, which act by inhibiting PDE (breaks down cAMP, preventing it from producing PKA).

Other bronchodilators work by blocking constricting parasympathetic cholinergic effects (e.g. ipratropium, a non-selective muscarinic antagonist - M1, 2, 3 receptor blocker).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Explain the mode of action of anti-inflammatory agents in treatment of asthma.

A

Anti-inflammatory agents act as preventers for asthma symptoms (taken at regular intervals to prevent acute exacerbations).

Glucocorticoids (such as prednisolone) inhibit inflammatory molecules, such as prostanoids, leukotrienes, and cytokines.

Montelukast is a leukotreine receptor antagonist (blocks inflammatory leukotriene receptors).

Sodium cromoglicate is another common preventer, but its specific mechanisms are unknown (interacts with a number of sites/receptors, it is not known what its primary mode is).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Explain the common treatments for hyperthyroidism.

A

Treatments for hyperthyroidism include prescription of radioiodine, which can be taken orally – it will then be attached to thyroid hormones during their production in the thyroid gland, and will kill them off (radiotherapy). However, this beta-radiation can destroy the thyroid, giving the patient hypothyroidism – then you have to treat them for that.

An alternative treatment is using drugs (e.g. carbimazole and propylthiouracil) which decrease synthesis of thyroid hormones by inhibiting thyroperoxidase (reduces iodination of thyroglobulin). Alternatively, giving someone a high dose of sodium iodide will overload the thyroid system, and negative feedback can fix the hyperthyroidism temporarily.

Goitres and tumours can be surgically removed.

17
Q

Explain the common treatments for type I diabetes.

A

Type I diabetes (insipidus) is a familial disorder resulting from lack of insulin - this is treated simply with replacement therapy (supplementing insulin).

Human insulin is made using recombinant DNA technology, and can also be a component of T2D treatment. This is delivered either intravenously or subcutaneously, but never orally, as it would be destroyed in the gut.

Intermediate or long-acting insulin supplements can also be taken (e.g. isophane insulin or insulin zinc).

18
Q

Explain the common treatments for type II diabetes.

A

1) Hypoglycaemic agents, such as biguanides (e.g. metformin) take remove glucose from the blood and take it up into skeletal muscle, as well as inhibiting gluconeogenesis. It can also reduce carbohydrate absorption and increase fatty acid oxidation, and can be used synergetically with other drugs that stimulate insulin release.
Metformin works by activating signal cascade complexes in the mitochondria which result in activation of AMP-activated protein kinase - ultimately inhibiting expression of genes that contribute to gluconeogensis.

2) Sulphonylureas work to reduce blood glucose levels by stimulating insulin secretion from pancreatic beta-cells. They block ATP-sensitive potassium channels in beta cells by acting on specific receptors, resulting in depolarisation of the membrane potential, activated voltage-gated calcium channels, triggering exocytosis of intracellular insulin.
3) Thiazolidinediones (such as ploglitazone) increase insulin sensitivity and lower blood glucose in T2D by reducing the amount of exogenous insulin required to sustain a given level of blood glucose. They reduce hepatic glucose output and increase glucose uptake into muscle in response to insulin.
4) Incretins mimetics (e.g. exenatide) are peptide hormones that provide an early response to increased blood glucose, stimulating the release of insulin. Exenatide mimics GLP-1, which stimulates insulin release.

19
Q

Outline the different types of stem cell found in the body pre-natally and post-natally.

A

Stem cells can be totipotent (able to differentiate into ANY cell), pluripotent (able to differentiate into any cells apart from extraembryonic (placental) cells), mutipotent (able to differentiate into multiple cell types within a family), or unipotent (only able to differentiate into one type of mature cell).

Zygotes and morula cells are the only totipotent stem cells, and they differentiate into pluripotent stem cells in the blastocyst. Some cells will go on to become multipotent - the inner cells mass of blastocyst (embryoblast) can differentiate into >200 cell types. Umbilical tissue contains pluripotent and multipotent stem cells, and adult cells can be multipotent or unipotent.

20
Q

Describe what is meant by assymetric division of adult stem cells.

A

Adult stem cells (unipotent) exhibit assymetrical division - this means that when they divide into two daughters, one will remain as a stem cell for self-renewal, and the other will differentiate into a mature tissue cell. However, division will not always occur assymetrically - for example, if there is tissue damage, stem cells will migrate and proliferate to repair damage. Here, it will first proliferate, then all daughters will differentiate after.

21
Q

Explain some of the risks of stem cell therapy.

A

Stem cells must be controlled in therapy very carefully, as uncontrolled cell division is the cause of cancer. Sometimes, stem cell therapies of cancer can exacerbate tumours rather than help them. If stem cells from one site are injected into the wrong site, then the stem cells will differentiate into inappropriate cells (this can cause tumours).

22
Q

Explain the mode of action of guanylate cyclase stimulators and endothelin receptor antagonists in the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension.

A

1) Guanylate cyclase stimulators (e.g. Riociguat) stimulates sGC in an NO-dependent and independent mode of action, thereby enhancing cGMP synthesis (inducing vasodilation). This is not used for systemic hypertension, but is used in pulmonary hypertension (less common, causes remodelling of the heart and can damage the lungs to impair gas exchange). For patients with pulmonary artery hypertension (PAH), Riociguat can be used by itself or in combination with an endothelin receptor antagonist.
2) Endothelin receptor antagonists (e.g. Bosentan) block receptors for endothelin converting enzyme (ECE). Activation of these receptors by ECE induces vasoconstriction (blocking these reduces constriction within the pulmonary circulation). However, these are also quite expensive drugs – but they are very effective for symptomatic relief of pulmonary hypertension.

23
Q

Explain the mode of action of prostacyclin receptor agonists in the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension.

A

Prostacyclin receptor agonists (e.g. Epoprostenol or Treprostinil) can be administered intravenously/subcutaneously – these are very expensive treatments and are only used for severe (hospitalised) PAH. Epoprostenol (intravenous) is fast acting and has a short half life, Treprostinil (subcutaneous) has a longer duration of effect.

Prostacyclin is a membrane protein which has a downstream effect of increasing cAMP production. These are used in the US exclusively, and are undergoing clinical trials in the UK.

24
Q

Explain the mode of action of rho-kinase inhibitors in the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension.

A

Rho-kinase is an enzyme which inhibits myosin light chain (MLC) phosphatase – an enzyme which takes phosphate off myosin, preventing cross-bridge formation. By preventing this, Rho-kinase will cause vascular smooth muscle to contract more.

Rho-kinase inhibitors stops the inaction of MLC phosphatase (preventing cross-bridge formation, and preventing vasoconstriction).

25
Q

Explain the mode of action of eNOS coupler co-factors in the treatment of hypertension.

A

In some patients with hypertension, there is uncoupling of eNOS (endothelial nitric oxide synthase). This impairs the bioavailability and downstream activity of NO (is crucial in maintaining normal in in vasculature).
NO keeps arteries in the dilated state. eNOS couplers restore these enzymes with co-factors.

There is evidence that Pteridine cofactor tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4, a co-factor of eNOS) becomes oxidised in diseased arteries, impairing its function. There is some interest is replenishing the supply of BH4 so that eNOS functions properly.

Cicletanine hydrochloride is a synthetic compound which can potentially be used for the same outcome. However, although this drug has stopped being developed, it is possible that other targets in sustaining proper generation of NO could be used targeted for drug treatment in the future

26
Q

Describe the most common method of gene therapy.

A

Gene therapy uses viral vectors to deliver alternative genes to those which may be problematic. The main issue with this is that the body may view these vectors as foreign, and remove them. The specificity of the target is very important when using viruses - different virus types have distinct trade-offs compared to one another:

1) Adenoviruses are good infectors of human cells, however, they exhibit poor integration into the genome.
2) Adeno-associated viruses are difficult to get in high titres.
3) Retroviruses are good but integration to random positions may cause cancer.
4) Lentiviruses allow large transgene cassettes to be stably transfected in vivo (within the body), so are a potential contender.

Non-viral mechanisms may be more effective in introducing genetic load. These include naked DNA, liposomes, electroporation, and salt-shock methods.

27
Q

Explain how gene therapy could be used to alleviate chronic hypertension.

A

An enzyme called ACE2 converts angiotensin I to angiotensin (1-9), as well as angiotensin II to angiotensin (1-7). Angiotensin (1-9) can also be converted to angiotensin (1-7) by ACE. Common pharmacological interventions involve blocking ACE or blocking renin (which converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I), however this can lead to adverse side-effects, as they also prevent the binding of angiotensin (1-7) with the Mas receptor. Therefore, upregulation of ACE2 via gene therapy, leading to more angiotensin (1-7), may help alleviate chronic hypertension.

28
Q

Explain why positive inotropic agents, B-adrenoreceptor agonists, and PDE-inhibitors can cause severe side-effects in the treatment of heart failure.

A

Severe side effects of these drugs include nausea and vomiting, altered colour vision, and cardiac arrhythmias, particularly in elderly patients whose kidneys may not function effectively. This occurs due to drug metabolites accumulating in the blood through lack of excretion. For example, increase of calcium influx in cardiomyocytes due to positive inotropic agents can result in calcium overload.

29
Q

Explain the mode of action of calcium sensitisers in treatment of heart failure.

A

Calcium sensitisers (such as levosimendan) bind to troponin C at high intracellular calcium. This means that the drug exerts its effect during systole (when intracellular calcium is high). Therefore, the configuration of troponin C changes between systole and diastole.

At high concentrations, it may also act as a PDE inhibitor. It also has some vasodilator effects (reducing afterload by reducing total peripheral resistance). This drug is licensed in some countries, and is in phase III trials in the UK.

30
Q

Explain the pharmacological uses of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids.

A

1) Glucocorticoids (such as cortisol) are often used for anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant properties. They increase catabolism (decrease carbohydrate uptake and increase utilisation of glucose, increasing gluconeogenesis and blood sugar levels,) which can result in redistribution of fat and muscle wasting due to catabolism of proteins. They also reduce vasodilation and fluid exudation, decrease osteoblast and increase osteoclast activity (can cause osteoporosis), and are involved in the negative feedback of ACTH secretion, so can affect the hypothalamus. Dexamethasone is a glucocorticoid which was found to increase survival rate in COVID-19 patients.
2) Mineralocorticoids (such as aldosterone) regulate water and electrolyte balance. The most commonly used mineralocorticoid supplement is fludrocortisone which increases sodium reabsorption (used as repalcement therapy for under-expression of aldosterone). Spironolactone is a competitive agonist which works as a diuretic, and can be used to treat hyperaldosteronism, resistant hypertension, heart failure, and oedema.