Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Endocrine > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

A patient presented with acromegaly was treated with cabergoline, what is the
mechanism of action of this drug?

a. Acts as agonist of somatostatin
b. Acts as D2 agonist
c. Acts as GH receptor antagonist

A

b. Acts as D2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Octreotide is used for treatment of acromegaly, what is true about this drug?

a. Less potent than somatostatin
b. Given orally
c. Decrease levels of both insulin & glucagon
d. Contradicted in pancreatic cancer

A

c. Decrease levels of both insulin & glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A patient with amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and infertility was prescribed cabergoline,
which of the following mechanism is related to her symptoms?

a. It increases the release of TSH
b. It blocks the inhibition of GnRH

A

b. It blocks the inhibition of GnRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is used to antagonize GnRH in ovarian hyperstimulation?

A

Ganrelix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which drug is isolated from the urine of pregnant women and has LH-like activity?

A

Menotrophin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A 60-year-old man diagnosed with hyponatremia due to water retention not because of
sodium deficiency, what aquaretic drug that blocks ADH V2 receptor would you give?

A

Talovaptan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which drug can lead to these side effects: (gynecomastia in males, galactorrhea and
amenorrhea in females)?

a. Chlorpromazine
b. Leuprolide
c. Menotrophin

A

a. Chlorpromazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which drug alleviates signs & symptoms of acromegaly by antagonizing the peripheral
action of growth hormone?

A

Ganirelix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why is bromocriptine used in some cases of amenorrhea & infertility?

A

Because it is a dopamine agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which oral drug can be used to treat excessive water retention in an elderly patient by
blocking V2 directly?

a. Democycline
b. Tolvaptan
c. Lithium
d. Desmopressin

A

b. Tolvaptan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A patient with hyponatremia due to ADH excess, what drug you would give him?

A

Conivaptan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the mechanism of action of desmopressin?

a. Decrease V2 receptor sensitivity
b. Blocks V2 receptor
c. Increase expression of aquaporins (water channels)

A

c. Increase expression of aquaporins (water channels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which drug is used to treat diabetes insipidus?

A

Desmopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which anti-diabetic agent increases tissue sensitivity to glucose by regulating the transcription of genes involved in glucose homeostasis?

a. Sitagliptine
b. Lisopro
c. Rosiglitazone

A

c. Rosiglitazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

. Which drug works on gene expression of increasing insulin sensitivity in tissues?

a. Acarbose
b. Sitagliptine
c. Rosiglitazone

A

c. Rosiglitazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Drug that blocks ATP-sensitive K+ channels:

a. Acarbose
b. Lisopro
c. Sitagliptine
d. Glimipiride

A

d. Glimipiride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the inhibitor of dipeptide peptidase and used for the treatment of diabetes?

a. Sitagliptine
b. Rosiglitazone
c. Acarbose

A

a. Sitagliptine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the side effect of metformin with alcoholism? (repeated question)

a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Lactic acidosis
c. Urticaria and angioedema

A

b. Lactic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Rosiglitazone? (repeated question)

a. Regulates the transcription of genes involved in glucose utilization
b. Blocks ATP-sensitive K+ channels

A

a. Regulates the transcription of genes involved in glucose utilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which drug is used for the rapid correction of blood sugar in diabetic ketoacidosis? (repeated question)

a. Lisopro
b. Crystalline Zinc insulin
c. Lente d. Ultralente

A

b. Crystalline Zinc insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A patient with T1DM put a plan to strictly control HbA1C and glucose for better prognosis, which regimen would you use?

a. Lente in the morning and lisopro after each meal
b. Glargine once and Lisopro after each meal

A

b. Glargine once and Lisopro after each meal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A 17 year old with polyuria, polydipsia, and glucosuria. His BMI is 19. What’s the first line of management?

a. Insulin
b. Oral glucose
c. No treatment
d. Metformin

A

a. Insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A 40 year old man with BMI of 34 and family history of cardiovascular disease complaining of low energy level. His random glucose level is 11.1 mmol/L. What is the appropriate management?

a. Diet and exercise
b. Metformin
c. Insulin

A

a. Diet and exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which oral anti-diabetic drug has low risk of hypoglycemic episodes?

a. Tolbutamide
b. Chlorpropamide
c. Glyburide
d. Glipizide
e. Glimiperide
f. Repaglinide

A

e. Glimiperide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which anti-diabetic drug is useful in decreasing postprandial glucose and stimulates beta cell proliferation? (repeated question)

a. Metformin
b. Exenatide
c. Sitagliptine
d. Rosiglitazone

A

b. Exenatide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which drug decreases glucose uptake postprandial?

a. Exenatide
b. Lisopro
c. Metformin
d. Rosiglitazone
e. Glipizide
f. Acarbose

A

f. Acarbose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which drug decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis?

a. Exenatide
b. Lisopro
c. Metformin
d. Rosiglitazone
e. Glipizide
f. Acarbose

A

c. Metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What characterizes Glargine insulin?

a. Has no peak
b. Can be mixed with other insulin
c. Given in acute hyperglycemia

A

a. Has no peak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is true about Glargine?

a. Less hypoglycemia than NPH
b. Less potent than NPH
c. Can’t be combined with other drugs

A

a. Less hypoglycemia than NPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A 25 year old young man diagnosed with T1DM patient wants to tightly control his blood sugar level. What would be the most effective regime?

a. Lente with Regular mix taken in the morning and evening
b. Once daily Ultra Lente with Lisopro before each meal
c. Morning Regular and Lente before each meal
d. Three Regular in the morning and Ultra Lente before bed time
e. One glargine in the morning and three Lisopro with every meal

A

b. Once daily Ultra Lente with Lisopro before each meal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What substance will be accumulated in steroidogenic tissues in congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

a) Cortisol
b) ACTH receptor
c) Deoxycortisone
d) DHEA
e) Cholesterol ester

A

e) Cholesterol ester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A 55-year-old man with military TB has suffered from a sever acute adrenal insufficiency. What is the best rational that should be administered?

a) Cortisol & 9-fluorocortisol
b) Metyrapone & 9-fluorocortisol
c) Metyrapone & aldosterone

A

a) Cortisol & 9-fluorocortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Glyzibride (GM) inhibits mineralocorticoid receptors (MR). If we give GM to a patient for two weeks, which of the following will activate his MR?

a) Cortisone
b) Cortisol
c) Aldosterone
d) GM itself

A

b) Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following is used for the diagnosis of primary adrenal insufficiency?

a) Cortisol
b) Consyntropin
c) CRH

A

b) Consyntropin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following act by negative feedback long loop on the hypothalamus?

a) Increase in blood pressure
b) Skin thickening

A

a) Increase in blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A child eats a lot of candy that contains 11-B-Hydroxylase-II inhibitor. What substance will lead to increase activation of mineralocorticoid receptors?

a) Cortisone
b) Cortisol

A

b) Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What’s the difference between dexamethasone and cortisol?

a) Potency of dexamethasone is less
b) Half-life of dexamethasone is shorter
c) Dexamethasone causes secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

c) Dexamethasone causes secondary hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of these is a characteristic of the glucocorticoid analogue dexamethasone?

a) Replacement therapy for Addison’s
b) Causes secondary hyperparathyroidism in pharmacological doses
c) Half-life is similar to cortisol’s half-life
d) Promote salt retention
e) Anti-inflammatory actions like cortisol

A

b) Causes secondary hyperparathyroidism in pharmacological doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the best way to treat patients with Addison’s?

A

Cortisol & 9-flurocortisol

40
Q

Which drug has the highest salt-binding activity?

A

9-fluorocortisol

41
Q

Which of the following hormones need high amounts of cortisol to be expressed?

A

PNMT (phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase)

* found in the adrenal medulla *

converts norepinephrine to epinephrine

42
Q

A rheumatoid arthritis patient has been taking prednisolone for years. What is the most important long term side effect of glucocorticoids in such patients?

a) Hyperglycemia because of decreased insulin
b) Increased thrombocytes circulating in the blood
c) Decreased glycogen stores in the liver
d) Increase collagen synthesis to build bone

A

b) Increased thrombocytes circulating in the blood

43
Q

What is a bisphosphate analogue used to treat osteoporosis? 16. What leads to osteoporosis by decreasing collagen formation & calcium absorption?

  1. a) Alendronate
  2. b) Prednisolone
  3. c) PTH
  4. d) Calcitonin
  5. e) Calcimer
A

a) Alendronate

44
Q

The morning cortisol levels is significantly suppressed by overnight dexamethasone in which of the following?

a) Cushing’s disease
b) Obesity

A

b) Obesity

45
Q

Which of the following is a drug that inhibits the steroidogenic pathway & is used to treat breast cancer?

a) Aminoglutathione
b) Octreotide
c) Metyrapone
d) Syncathen

A

a) Aminoglutathione

46
Q

Which hormone inhibits CYP450 formation of enzymes for steroid synthesis?

A

Ketoconazole

47
Q

which of the following is an effect of iodide in treatment if thyroid disorder ?

A

Reduce the vascularity of the gland

48
Q

What is true regarding the pharmacokinetics of levothyroxine?

a. 50% is excreted in urine in a single day
b. Propylthiouracil inhibits the biotransformation by hepatic and kidney deiodinase I
c. Estrogen reduces thyroid binding globulin
d. Cholestyramine increases levothyroxine absorption

A

b. Propylthiouracil inhibits the biotransformation by hepatic and kidney deiodinase I

49
Q

What is the pharmacological basis for the adjunct of atenolol along with the treatment of hyperthyroidism, especially before surgery?

a. Inhibits the intake of iodine into the thyroid gland
b. Lowers the circulating concentration of thyroid hormones
c. Protects the heart from the sensitizing effects of thyroid hormone
d. Is selectively concentrated in the thyroid
e. Decreases gland vascularity

A

c. Protects the heart from the sensitizing effects of thyroid hormone

50
Q

What type of radiation does I131 emits that is used for treatment?

51
Q

which of the following blocks the conversion of T4 to T3 ?

a- methimazole

b- Propylthiouracil

A

b- Propylthiouracil

52
Q

which of the following permanently reduces thyroid activity ?

a- Propylthiouracil

b- potassium iodate

c- sodium ipodate

d- I131

53
Q

What is cinacalcet used for?

A. Osteoporosis

B. Hyperparathyroidism

A

B. Hyperparathyroidism

54
Q

What leads to osteoporosis decreased collagen formation and Ca absorption ?

A. Aldentronate

B. Prednisolone

C. PTH

D. Calcitonin

E. Calcimer

A

B. Prednisolone

55
Q

What is a bisphosphonate analog used to treat osteoporosis?

A. Aldentronate

B. Prednisolone

C. PTH

D. Calcitonin

E. Calcimer

A

A. Aldentronate

56
Q

Which of the following has bone anabolic effects?

A. Bisphosphonates

B. Teriparatide

C. Cortisol

D. Osteoclast

A

B. Teriparatide

57
Q

What mediates the action of teriparatide ?

A. cGMP

B. Adenylate cyclase

C. IP3

A

B. Adenylate cyclase

58
Q

What hormone decreases Ca by decreasing its reabsorption?

A

Calcitonin

59
Q

Which lowers blood Ca levels by decreased renal excretion and Ca deposition in bone?

A. PTH

B. vit. D

C. Calcitonin

D. Bisphosphonates

A

C. Calcitonin

60
Q

A 65- year old female with low bone mass density was given alendronate, what is the most common side effect?

A. Diarrhea

B. Constipation

C. Pernicious anemia

D. Erosive Esophagitis

A

D. Erosive Esophagitis

61
Q

What stimulates food intake?

a) PYY
b) CCK
c) ghrelin

A

c) ghrelin

62
Q

Whats the effect of leptin on food intake?

a) Increases ghrelin secretion
b) Increases a-msh secretion
c) Decreases NPY secretion

A

b) Increases a-msh secretion

63
Q

A patient presented with acromegaly was treated with cabergoline, what is the mechanism of action of this drug?

a) Acts as an agonist of somatostatin
b) Acts as D2 agonist
c) Acts as GH receptor antagonist

A

b) Acts as D2 agonist

64
Q

Octreotide is used in the treatment of acromegaly, what is true about this drug?

a) Less potent that somatostatin
b) Given orally
c) Decrease levels of both insulin and glucagon
d) Contraindicated in pancreatic cancer

A

c) Decrease levels of both insulin and glucagon

65
Q

What can help in the treatment for growth retardation in patients with Laron dwarfism?

a) Sermorelin
b) Mecasermin
c) Hexarelin
d) Somatropin

A

b) Mecasermin

66
Q

What stimulates release of growth hormone by acting on a distinct receptor?

a) Hexarelin
b) Octreotide
c) Somatrem

A

a) Hexarelin

67
Q

A drug that is similar to growth hormone used to treat growth hormone deficiency, but has an additional amino acid?

A- Octreotride

B- Pegvisomant

C- Somatrem

A

C- Somatrem

68
Q

A 45 year old man with acromegaly underwent surgery to remove a large pituitary tumor. Because surgical treatment is partially effective, he was advised to take a course of drugs that completely block GH receptor. Which of the following drug did he most likely use?

a) Octreotide
b) Cosyntropin
c) Bromocriptine
d) Pevisomant

A

d) Pevisomant

69
Q

A lady was treated with a drug to resume her menstruation. She was originally complaining of amenorrhea, headaches, and galactorrhea. What was she on, and what is the mode of action?

a) Octreotide to block GH receptor
b) Bromocriptine block d2 receptors
c) Pergolide blocks d2 receptors

A

c) Pergolide blocks d2 receptors

70
Q

Which of the following acts peripherally and antagonizes the effect of growth hormone?

a) Octreotide
b) Pegvisomant

A

b) Pegvisomant

71
Q

A patient with amenorrhea, galactorhea, infertility was prescribed cabergoline. What mechanism is responsible for relieving her symptoms?

a) It increases the release of TSH
b) It blocks the inhibition of GnRH

A

b) It blocks the inhibition of GnRH

72
Q

A patient presented with acromegaly was treated with cabergoline. What is the mechanism of action?

a) Acts as agonist of somatostatin
b) Acts as D2 agonist
c) Acts as GH receptor antagonist

A

b) Acts as D2 agonist

73
Q

Stimulates growth hormone release through growth hormone secretagogues receptor?

a) Ghrelin
b) GHRH

A

a) Ghrelin

74
Q

Which of the following is the mode of action of Cosyntropin?

  1. Increases K+ channels
  2. Increases cAMP
  3. Increases aldosterone and elevates glucose levels
A

C. increased aldosterone and elevates glucose levels

75
Q

Which of the following is the mode of action of GnRH (GIH)?

  1. Increases K+ channels
  2. Increases cAMP
  3. increased aldosterone and elevates glucose levels
A

B. Increases cAMP

76
Q

Which of the following is the mode of action of somatostatin (GIH)?

  1. Increases K+ channels
  2. Increases cAMP
  3. increased aldosterone and elevates glucose levels
A

A. Increases K+ channels

77
Q

What is a therapeutic use of Bromocriptine?

  1. Hyperprolactinemia
  2. Infertility
  3. SIADH
A

A. Hyperprolactinemia

78
Q

What is a therapeutic use of Menotropin?

  1. Hyperprolactinemia
  2. Infertility
  3. SIADH
A

B. Infertility

79
Q

What is a therapeutic use of GnRH?

  1. Hyperprolactinemia
  2. Infertility
  3. SIADH
A

B. Infertility

80
Q

Which of the following are dopamine agonists?

  1. Leuprolide
  2. Bromocriptine
  3. Nafarelin
  4. Cabergoline
  5. Ganirelix
A

B. Bromocriptine

D. Cabergoline

81
Q

Which oral drug can be used to treat excessive water retention in an elderly patient by blocking v2 directly?

a. Democycline
b. Tolvaptan
c. Lithium
d. Convaptan
e. Desmopressin

A

b.Tolvaptan

82
Q

A patient with amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and infertility was prescribed Cabergoline, which of the following mechanism related is responsible for relieving her symptoms?

a. It increases the release of TSH
b. It block the inhibition of GnRH
c. It decreases release of TSH

A

b. It block the inhibition of GnRH

83
Q

A 60 year old man diagnosed with hyponatremia due to water retention not because of sodium deficiency, what aquaretic drug that blocks ADH V2 receptors would you give?

a. Leuprolide
b. Desmopressin
c. Demecyclin
d. Conviptan
e. Tolvaptin

A

d. Conviptan

84
Q

Which of the following drugs usedd to treat hyperthyroidism is a synthetic sodium salt of T3?

  1. Levothyroxine
  2. Liothyronine
A

B. Liothyronine

85
Q

Which of the following drugs usedd to treat hyperthyroidism is a synthetic sodium salt of T4?

  1. Levothyroxine
  2. Liothyronine
A

A. Levothyroxine

86
Q

Which of the following treatment options for hypothyroisim is better tolerated?

  1. Liothryonine
  2. Liotrix
  3. Levothryoxine
A

C. Levothryoxine

87
Q

Which of the following drugs are used to treat hypothyroidism ?

  1. Liothyronine
  2. 131I
  3. Liotrix
  4. Methimazole
  5. Propylthiouracil
  6. Levothryoxine
  7. Iodide salt
  8. Propranolol
A

A. Liothyronine

C. Liotrix

F. Levothryoxine

88
Q

Which of the following drugs are used to treat hyperthyroidism?

  1. Liothyronine
  2. 131I
  3. Liotrix
  4. Methimazole
  5. Propylthiouracil
  6. Levothryoxine
  7. Iodide salt
  8. Propranolol
A

B. 131I

D. Methimazole

E. Propylthiouracil

G. Iodide Salt

H. Propranolol

89
Q

Which of the following drugs is the preferred treamtent for myxoedema coma?

  1. Liothyronine
  2. 131I
  3. Liotrix
  4. Methimazole
  5. Propylthiouracil
  6. Levothryoxine
  7. Iodide salt
  8. Propranolol
A

A. Liothyronine

90
Q

What is the half-life of radioactive iodine?

  1. 2 Days
  2. 4 Days
  3. 8 Days
  4. 16 Days
  5. 32 Days
91
Q

Which of the following is not a contraindicated population for 131I treatment?

  1. Pediatric Population
  2. Pregnant Women
  3. Geriatric Population
A

C. Geriatric Population

92
Q

What is the action of Iodide Salts?

  1. Destructuion of thyroid gland
  2. Blocking Hormone release
  3. Inhibiting the synthesis of thyroid hormones
  4. Inhibit the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
A

B. Blocking hormone release

93
Q

What is the action of Radioactive Iodine?

  1. Destructuion of thyroid gland
  2. Blocking Hormone release
  3. Inhibiting the synthesis of thyroid hormones
  4. Inhibit the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
A

A. Destructuion of thyroid gland

94
Q

What is the action of Propranolol?

  1. Destructuion of thyroid gland
  2. Blocking Hormone release
  3. Inhibiting the synthesis of thyroid hormones
  4. Inhibit the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
A

D. Inhibit the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

95
Q

What is the action of Thioamides?

  1. Destructuion of thyroid gland
  2. Blocking Hormone release
  3. Inhibiting the synthesis of thyroid hormones
  4. Inhibit the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
A

C. Inhibiting the synthesis of thyroid hormones

96
Q

What type of radiation does 131 I emits that is used for treatment?

  1. ß rays
  2. α rays
  3. γ rays
A

A. ß rays

Endocrine (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions