Pharmacology Flashcards

Question 1

Q

What conditions can be exaberated with use of cholinomimetric agents?

Answer

A

COPD

Asthma

Peptic ulcers

Question 2

Q

What is the function of Bethanechol and what type of activity (nicotinic/muscarinic)does it have?

Answer

A

Function:Activates the bladder (smooth muscle)

Activity:Muscarinic

NOTE:Bethanechol is resistant to AChE

Question 3

Q

Bethanechol should be prescribed in cases of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer

A

Urinary retention

Question 4

Q

List the direct agonists of AChE.

Answer

A

Bethanechol

Carbachol

Methacholine

Pilocarpine

Question 5

Q

Which class of receptor are muscarinic receptors?

Answer

A

G- protein

NOTE:M1= Gq; M2= Gi; M3= Gq

Question 6

Q

What is the major function of M1 (muscarinic) receptors?

Answer

A

Mediates higher cognitive functions, stimulates enteric nervous system

Question 7

Q

What is the major function of M2(muscarinic) receptors?

Answer

A

Decrease heart rate and cotnractility ofatria

REMEMBER:M2 receptors are only present on the atria and the SA and AV nodes

Question 8

Q

What is the major function of M3 (muscarinic) receptors?

Answer

A

<ul>
<li>Increase exocrine gland secretions</li>
<li>Increase gut peristalsis</li>
<li>Increase bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction</li>
<li>Increase pupillary sphincter muscle contration, ciliary muscle contraction (accommodation)</li>
<li>Increase insulin release, endothelium-mediated vasodilation</li>
</ul>

Question 9

Q

What is the function of carbochol?

Answer

A

Constricts pupil and relieves intraocular pressure in open-angle glaucoma

NOTE:Carbochol has both nicotinic and muscarinic activity

Question 10

Q

Metacholine acts as a challenge test for diagnosis of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer

A

Asthma

Question 11

Q

What is the function of methacholine?

Answer

A

Stimulates muscarinic receptors in airway when inhaled

Question 12

Q

Which direct cholinomimetric agents are resistant to AChE?

Answer

A

Bethanechol

Carbochol

Pilocarpine

Question 13

Q

What is the function of pilocarpine?

Answer

A

<ul>
<li>Contracts ciliary muscle of eye, pupillary sphincter</li>
</ul>

NOTE:Contraction of ciliary muscle treatsopen-angle glaucomaand contraction of pupillary sphincter treatsclosed- angle glaucoma

Question 14

Q

Of the 4 direct acetylcholine agonists, which can cross the blood-brain barrier?

Answer

A

Pilocarpine

Question 15

Q

In what cases is pilocarpine administered?

Answer

A

<ul>
<li>Open-angled glaucoma</li>
<li>Close-angled glaucoma</li>
<li>Xerostomia (Sjogren syndrome)</li>
</ul>

Question 16

Q

What is the G-protein class for each of the sympathetic receptors?

Answer

A

a1-q

a2-i

B1-s

B2-s

B3-s

Question 17

Q

What are the major functions of a1 receptors?

Answer

A

<ul>
<li>Increase vascular smooth muscle contraction</li>
<li>Increase pupillary dilator muscle contraction (mydriasis)</li>
<li>Increase intestinal and bladder sphincter muscle contraction</li>
<li></li>
</ul>

Question 18

Q

What are the major functions of a2receptors?

Answer

A

<ul>
<li>Decrease in sympathetic (adrenergic) outflow</li>
<li>Decrease in insulin release</li>
<li>Decrease in lipolysis</li>
<li>Increase in platelet aggregation</li>
<li>Decrease in aqueous humor production</li>
</ul>

Question 19

Q

What are the major functions of B1receptors?

Answer

A

<ul>
<li>Increase in heart rate</li>
<li>Increase in contractility</li>
<li>Increase in renin release</li>
<li>Increase in lipolysis</li>
</ul>

Question 20

Q

What are the major functions of B2receptors?

Answer

A

<ul>
<li>Vasodilation</li>
<li>Bronchodilation</li>
<li>Increase lipolysis</li>
<li>Increase insulin release</li>
<li>Increase glycogenolysis</li>
<li>Decrease in uterine tone (tocolysis)</li>
<li>Increase in aqueous humor production</li>
<li>Increase in cellular K+ uptake</li>
</ul>

Question 21

Q

What are the major functions of B3receptors?

Answer

A

<ul>
<li>Increase in lipolysis</li>
<li>Increase in thermogenesis in skeletal muscle</li>
<li>Increase in bladder relaxation</li>
</ul>

Question 22

Q

What is the mechanism of action of Gq class proteins?

Answer

A

1. Phospholipase is activated by aGq receptor

2.Phospholipase Cconverts PIP2 to DAG and IP3

3.IP3then diffuses through the cytosol to bind toIP3receptors, particularlycalcium channelsin thesmooth endoplasmic reticulum(ER).

<ul>
<li>This causes the cytosolic concentration of calcium to increase, causing a cascade of intracellular changes and activity.</li>
</ul>

4. Ca2+ acts with DAG to produce protein kinase C

Question 23

Q

Which receptors are of the Gq protein class?

Answer

A

H1 (Histamine)

a1 (sympathetic)

V1 (vasopressin)

M1 (muscarinic)

M3 (Muscarinic)

MNEMONIC:Have 1 M &M

NOTE:Receptors in the Gq protein class stimulatesmooth muscle contraction

Question 24

Q

What is the mechanism of action of Gs receptors?

Answer

A

1. Gs receptors stimulate adenyl cyclase

2. Adenyl cyclase converts ATP intocAMP

3. cAMP activatesprotein kinase A

<ul>
<li>Sequesters Ca2+ in sarcoplasmic reticulum (heart)</li>
<li>Inhibits myosin light-chain kinase (smooth muscle)</li>
</ul>

Question 25

Q

Which receptors are on the Gs protein class?

Answer

A

B1

B2

B3

D1

H2

V2

Question 26

Q

What is the mechanism of action for Gi receptors?

Answer

A

Gi inhibits Adenylyl cyclase

Question 27

Q

Which receptors are of the Gi protein class?

Answer

A

M2 (muscarinic)

a2 (sympathetic)

D2 (Dopamine)

MNEMONIC:People who are2 MADinhibit themselves

Question 28

Q

When should albuterol be administered? What about salmeterol?

Answer

A

Albuterol=Acute asthma/COPD

Salmeterol=Serial (long- term) asthma/COPD

Question 29

Q

Which direct sympathomimetics have both B2 and B1 action with the B2 action being greater than the B1 action?

Answer

A

Albuterol

Salmeterol

Terbutaline

Question 30

Q

When should terbutaline be administered?

Answer

A

Acute bronchospasm in asthma and tocolysis (inhibition of uterine contractions)

Question 31

Q

Which sympathomimetic only has a1 action?

Answer

A

Midodrine

Question 32

Q

When should midodrine be administered?

Answer

A

In cases of autonomic insufficiency and postural hypotension

NOTE:Midodrine may exacerbate supine hypertension

Question 33

Q

What is the mode of action of isoproterenol?

Answer

A

B1=B2

Question 34

Q

When should isoproterenol be administered?

Answer

A

Electrophysiologic evaluation of tachyarrythmias

NOTE:Isoproterenol can worsen ischemia

Question 35

Q

What is the mode of action of epinephrine?

Answer

A

B>a

Question 36

Q

What is the mode of action of norepinephrine?

Answer

A

a1>a2>B1

Question 37

Q

What is the mode of action for phenylephrine?

Answer

A

a1>a2

Question 38

Q

When should epinephrine be administered?

Answer

A

<ul>
<li>Anaphylaxis</li>
<li>Asthma</li>
<li>Open-angle glaucoma</li>
</ul>

NOTE:The alpha effect predominates at lowdoses

Question 39

Q

What is the mode of action of dobutamine?

Answer

A

B1>B2, a

Question 40

Q

When should dobutamine be administered?

Answer

A

<ul>
<li>Heart failure</li>
<li>Cardiogenic shock (inotropic> chronotropic)</li>
<li>Cardiac stress testing</li>
</ul>

Question 41

Q

When should norepinephrine be administered?

Answer

A

<ul>
<li>Hypotension</li>
<li>Septic shock</li>
</ul>

Question 42

Q

When should phenylephrine be administered?

Answer

A

<ul>
<li>Hypotension (vasoconstrictor)</li>
<li>Ocular procedures (mydriatic)</li>
<li>Rhinitis (decongestant)</li>
<li>Ischemic priapism</li>
</ul>

Question 43

Q

Which drugs are anticholinesterases (indirect agonist)?

Answer

A

Donepezil

Rivastigmine

Galantamine

Edrophonium

Neostigmine

Physostigmine

Pyridostigmine

Question 44

Q

Which anticholinesterases are first line for Alzheimer's disease?

Answer

A

Donepezil

Rivastigmine

Galantamine

Question 45

Q

What is the function of edrophonium?

Answer

A

Used to diagnose myasthenia gravis 0.0

Used to diagnose myasthenia gravis

NOTE:This has been replaced by anti-AChR Ab (anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody) test

Question 46

Q

Which of the anitcholinesterases cannot cross the CNS?

Answer

A

Neostigmine

Pyridostigmine

Question 47

Q

When should neostigmine be administered?

Answer

A

<ul>
<li>Postoperative and neurogenic ileus (muscles of your intestines stop contracting) and urinary retention</li>
<li>Myastenia gravis</li>
<li>Reversal of neuromuscular junction blockage (postoperative)</li>
</ul>

Question 48

Q

What is the function of physostigmine?

Answer

A

Antidote for anticholinergic toxicity

NOTE:Physostigmine can freely cross the blood-brain barrier

Question 49

Q

Which drugs are used along side pyridostigmine to control its side effects?

Answer

A

Glycopyrrolate

Hyoscyamine

Propantheline

Question 50

Q

What is the function of pyridostigmine?

Answer

A

<ul>
<li>Treats myasthenia gravis (long term)</li>
<li>Increases muscle strength</li>
</ul>

Question 51

Q

What is the primary cause of anticholinesterase poisoning?

Answer

A

Organophosphatesthat irreversibly inhibit AChE

NOTE: Organophosphates are commonly used as insecticides and as a result anticholinesterase poisoning

Question 52

Q

What are the muscarinic effects of anticholinesterase poisoning?

Answer

A

<ul>
<li>Diarrhea</li>
<li>Urination</li>
<li>Miosis</li>
<li>Bronchospasm</li>
<li>Bradycardia</li>
<li>Emesis</li>
<li>Lacrimation</li>
<li>Sweating</li>
<li>Salivation</li>
</ul>

MNEUMONIC:DUMBBELLS

Question 53

Q

Muscarinic effects caused by anticholinesterase poisoning can be reversed by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer

A

Atropine

NOTE:Atroprine acts as a competitive inhibitor and can cross the BBB to relieve CNSsymptoms

Question 54

Q

What are the nicotinic effects of anticholinesterase poisoning?

Answer

A

Neuromuscluar blockage

Question 55

Q

Nicotinic effects of anticholinesterase are reversed by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.

Answer

A

Pralidoxime, which regenerates AChE if given early

NOTE:Pralidoxime does not readily cross the BBB

Question 56

Q

What are the CNS effects of anticholinesterase poisoning?

Answer

A

Respiratory depression

Lethargy

Seizures

Coma

Question 57

Q

What are the muscurinic antagonists? Which organ systems are affected?

Answer

A

Eye

<ul>
<li>Atropine</li>
<li>Homatropine</li>
<li>Tropicamide</li>
</ul>

CNS

<ul>
<li>Benztropine</li>
<li>Trihexyphenidyl</li>
<li>Scopolamine</li>
</ul>

GI, Respiratory

<ul>
<li>Glycopyrrolate</li>
</ul>

GI

<ul>
<li>Hyoscyamine</li>
<li>Dicyclomine</li>
</ul>

Respiratory

<ul>
<li>Intratropium</li>
<li>Tiotropium</li>
</ul>

Genitourinary

<ul>
<li>Oxybutaynin</li>
<li>Solifenacin</li>
<li>Tolterodine</li>
</ul>

Question 58

Q

What muscarinic antagonists affect the eye? What is theirfunction?

Answer

A

Antagonists:Atropine, Homatropine, Tropicamide

Function:Produces mydriasis (dilation of pupil and cycloplegia (paralysis of ciliary muscle)

Question 59

Q

What muscarinic antagonists affect the CNS? What is the function of each?

Answer

A

Antagonists:Benztropine, trihexyphenidyl

<ul>
<li>Function:Treats Parkinson disease and acute dystonia</li>
</ul>

Antagonists:Scopolamine

<ul>
<li>Function:Motion sickness</li>
</ul>

Question 60

Q

Which muscarinic antagonists affect the GI and respiratory system?

Answer

A

Antagonists:Glycopyrrolate

<ul>
<li>Function

<ul>
<li>Nonoral:Preoperative uste to reduce airways secretion</li>
<li>Oral:Drooling, peptic ulcers</li>
</ul>
</li>
</ul>

Question 61

Q

Which muscarinic antagonists affect the GI system?

Answer

A

Antagonists:Hyoscyamine, dicyclomine

<ul>
<li>Function:Antispasmodics for irritable bowel syndrome</li>
</ul>

Question 62

Q

Which muscarinic antagonists affect therespiratory system?

Answer

A

Antagonist:Ipratropium, tiotropium

<ul>
<li>Function:COPD, asthma</li>
</ul>

Question 63

Q

Which muscarinic antagonists affect the genitourinarysystem?

Answer

A

Antagonist:Oxybutynin, solifenacin, tolterodine

<ul>
<li>Function:Reduce bladder spasms and urge urinary incontinence (overactive bladder)</li>
</ul>

Question 64

Q

What affect does atropine have on the following systems?

Eye

Airway

Stomach

Gut

Bladder

Answer

A

Eye

<ul>
<li>Increases pupil dilation</li>
<li>Cycloplegia</li>
</ul>

Airway

<ul>
<li>Bronchodilation</li>
<li>Decrease in secretions</li>
</ul>

Stomach

<ul>
<li>Decrease acid secretion</li>
</ul>

Gut

<ul>
<li>Decrease motility</li>
</ul>

Bladder

<ul>
<li>Decrease urgency in cystitis</li>
</ul>

NOTE:Atropine reduces the effects (DUMBELLS)of anticholinesterases, but not the nicotinic effects

Answer 65

A

<ul>
<li>Increase in body temp (due to decrease in sweating)</li>
<li>Increase in HR</li>
<li>Dry mouth</li>
<li>Dry, flushed skin</li>
<li>Cyclopegia</li>
<li>Constipation</li>
<li>Disorientation</li>
</ul>

MNEUMONIC: Hot as a hare, dry as a bone, red as beet, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, full as a flask

NOTE:Can cause acute angle-closure glaucoma in in elderly(due to mydriasis),urinary retentionin men with prostatic hyperplasia, and hyperthermia in infants

Answer 66

A

Km

Answer 67

A

Vmax

Answer 68

A

Vmax:Unchanged

Km:Increased

Pharmocodynamics:Decrease potency

Answer 69

A

Vmax:Decrease

Km:Unchanged

Pharmocodynamics:Decrease in efficacy

Answer 70

A

Vmax:Decrease

Km: Unchanged

Pharmacodynamics:Decrease efficacy

Answer 71

A

Fraction of administered drug reaching systemic circulation unchanged

NOTE:IV, F=100%; Oral. F<100% due to incomplete absorption and first pass metabolism

Answer 72

A

Theoretical volume occupied by the total amount of drug in the body relative to its plasma concentration

Vd= (amount of drug in the body)/ (plasma drug concentration)

Answer 73

A

Liver; kidney

NOTE:Protein binding will decrease, so Vd will increase.

Answer 74

A

When a high percentage of drug is bound to plasma proteins.

Ex:Plasma/ intravascular

Answer 75

A

When a high percentage of a drug is being sequestered in tissues.

NOTE:This raises the possibility of displacement by other agents .

Answer 76

A

The volume of plasma cleared of drug per unit time.

NOTE:Clearance may be imparied with defects in cardiac, hepatic, or renal function

CL= (rate of elimination of drug)/ (plasma drug concentration); CL= Vd X Ke (elimination constant)

Answer 77

A

The time required to change the amount of drug in the body by 1/2 during elimination.

t_1/2= (0.7 X Vd)/ CL

NOTE:Time to steady state depends primarily on t_1/2and is independent of dose and dosing frequency.

Answer 78

A

First order kinetics

NOTE:It takes 3.3 half-lives to reach 90 % of the steady state level

Answer 79

A

(C_pX V_d)/ (F)

Cp= target plasma concentration at steady state

NOTE:In renal disease, maintenance dose is decreased and loading dose is usuallyunchanged.

Answer 80

A

(C_pX CL x_T)/ (F)

Cp= target plasma concentration

_T= dosage interval (time between doses), if not administered continuously

NOTE:In renal or liver disease, maintence dose decreases and loading dose is usually unchanged.

Answer 81

A

Effect of substance A and B together is equal to the sum of their individual effects

EX:Aspirin and acetaminophen

Answer 82

A

Presnce of substance A is required for the full effects of substance B

EX:Cortisol on catecholamine responsiveness

Answer 83

A

Effect of substance A and B together is greater than the sum of their individual effects

EX:Clopidogrel with aspirin

Answer 84

A

Acute decrease in response to a drug after initial/ repeated administration

EX:Nitrates, niacin, pheylephrine, LSD, MDMA

Answer 85

A

Potency: Decrease

Efficacy:No change

NOTE:A competitive antagonist can be overcome by increasing the agonist concentration.

EX:Diazepram (agonist) +flumazenil(competitive antagonist) on GABA_Areceptor

Answer 86

A

Potency:Decrease

Efficacy:Decrease

NOTE:A noncompetitive antagonist cannot be overcome by increasing agonist concentration

EX:Norepinephrine (agonist) + phenoxybenzamine (noncompetitive antagonist) on a- receptors

Answer 87

A

Rate of elimination isconstantregardless of C_p. C_pdecreases linearly with time.Capacity-limited elimination

EX:Phenytoin, Ethanol, and Aspirin (at high or toxic concentrations)

Answer 88

A

Rate of first-order elimination isdirectly proportionalto the drug concentration.Flow-dependent elimination

NOTE:C_pdecreases exponentially with time

*Applies tomostdrugs

Answer 89

A

Phenytoin, Ethanol, and Aspirin

Answer 90

A

With sodium bicarbonate to overcome the sodium channel-blocking activity of TCAs

NOTE:This is not true in cases of accelerating drug elimination

Answer 91

A

Reduction, Oxidation, Hydrolysiswithcytochrome P-450usually yield slightly polar, water-soluble metabolites, which are often still active

NOTE:Geriatric patients lose phase I first

Answer 92

A

Conjugation (methylation, glucuronidation, acetylation, sulfation) usually yields very polar, inactive metabolites, which are renally excreted.

NOTE:Patients who are slow acetylators have increase side effects from certain drugs, because a decrease rate of metbolism.

Answer 93

A

Dosage range that can safely and effectively treat disease

Answer 94

A

T₅₀/ ED₅₀

(Median toxic dose)/ (Median effective dose)

NOTE:Safer drugs have higher TI values. Drugs with lower TI values frequently require monitoring

EX:Warfarin, Theophylline, Digoxin

Answer 95

A

Sweat glands

Answer 96

A

Autonomic ganglia

Adrenal medulla

Answer 97

A

Neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle

Answer 98

A

Narcolepsy, obesity, ADHD

Answer 99

A

Amphetamine

Cocaine

Ephedrine

Answer 100

A

Indirect general agonist

Reuptake inhibitor

Releases stored catecholamines

Answer 101

A

Causesvasoconstrictionandlocal anesthesia

NOTE:Caution when giving B-blockers if cocaine intoxication is suspected (can lead to unopposed a₁activation, which can lead to extreme hypertension and coronary vasospasm)

Answer 102

A

Indirect general agonist

Reuptake inhibitor

Answer 103

A

Indirect general agonist

Releases stored catechlamines

Answer 104

A

Nasal decongestion (pseudoephedrine)

Urinary incontinence

Hypotension

Answer 105

A

Norepinephrine

<ul>
<li>Increases systolic and diastolic pressures as a result of a₁mediated vasoconstriction</li>
<li>Increases mean arterial pressure</li>
<li>Reflex bradycardia</li>
</ul>

Isoproterenol

<ul>
<li>B₂mediated vasodilation</li>
<li>Decrease in mean arterial pressure</li>
<li>Increase in heart rate throughB₁and reflex activity</li>
</ul>

Answer 106

A

Clonidine

Guanfacine

a-methydopa

Tizanidine

Answer 107

A

<ul>
<li>Hypertensive urgency (limited situations)</li>
<li>ADHD</li>
<li>Tourette syndrome</li>
<li>Symptom control in opoid withdrawl</li>
</ul>

Answer 108

A

Hypertensive urgency (limited situations)

ADHD

Tourette syndrome

Symptom control in opoid withdrawl

Answer 109

A

<ul>
<li>CNS depression</li>
<li>Bradycardia</li>
<li>Hypotension</li>
<li>Respiratory depression</li>
<li>Miosis</li>
<li>Rebound hypertension with abrupt cessation</li>
</ul>

Answer 110

A

Hypertension in pregnancy

Answer 111

A

<ul>
<li>Positive direct Coombs hemolysis</li>
<li>Drug-induced lupus</li>
</ul>

Answer 112

A

Relief of spasticity

Answer 113

A

Hypotension

Weakness

Xerostomia (dry mouth)

Answer 114

A

<ul>
<li>Phenoxybenzamine</li>
<li>Phentolamine</li>
</ul>

Answer 115

A

Pheochromocytoma(used preoperatively) to prevent hypertensive (catecholamine) crisis

NOTE:Phenoxybenzamine is anirreversiblenonselective a-blocker

Answer 116

A

Given to patients of MAO inhibitors who eat tyramine-containing foods and for severe cocaine induced hypertension (2nd line)

Answer 117

A

<ul>
<li>Orthostatic hypotension</li>
<li>Reflex tachycardia</li>
</ul>

Answer 118

A

Prazosin

Terazosin

Tamsulosin

NOTE:They all have an -osin ending

Answer 119

A

<ul>
<li>1st-dose orthostatic hypotension</li>
<li>Dizziness</li>
<li>Headache</li>
</ul>

Answer 120

A

Mirtazapine

Answer 121

A

Depression

Answer 122

A

<ul>
<li>Sedation</li>
<li>Increase in serum cholesterol</li>
<li>Increase in appetite</li>
</ul>

Answer 123

A

Epinephrine response exhibits reversal of mean arterial pressure from a net increase to a net decrease (theB₂effect)

Answer 124

A

Response is supressed

Answer 125

A

<ul>
<li>Acebutolol (partial agonist)</li>
<li>Atenolol</li>
<li>Betaxolol</li>
<li>Bisoprolol</li>
<li>Esmolol</li>
<li>Metoprolol</li>
</ul>

Answer 126

A

<ul>
<li>Nadolol</li>
<li>Pindolol (partial agonist)</li>
<li>Propranolol</li>
<li>Timolol</li>
</ul>

Answer 127

A

Carvedilol

Labetalol

Answer 128

A

Nebivolol

Answer 129

A

Decrease production of aqueous humor, to treat glaucoma

Answer 130

A

<ul>
<li>Bisoprolol</li>
<li>Carvedilol</li>
<li>Metoprolol</li>
</ul>

NOTE:They act by decreasing motality

Answer 131

A

Control symptoms of hyperthyroidism

<ul>
<li>Decrease heart rate</li>
<li>Decrease tremor</li>
</ul>

Answer 132

A

Metroprolol, esmolol

NOTE:They act by decreasing AV conduction velocity (classantiarrhythmic)

Answer 133

A

Nadolol, propranolol, carvedilol

NOTE:They act by decreasing hepatic venous pressure gradient and portal hypertension

Answer 134

A

<ul>
<li>Angina pectoris</li>
<li>Glaucoma</li>
<li>Heart failure</li>
<li>Hypertension</li>
<li>Hyperthyroidism</li>
<li>Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy</li>
<li>Myocardial infarction</li>
<li>Supraventricular tachycardia</li>
<li>Variceal bleeding</li>
</ul>

Answer 135

A

<ul>
<li>Decrease heart rate and contractility, resulting in decrease in O₂consumption</li>
</ul>

Answer 136

A

<ul>
<li>Decrease cardiac output</li>
<li>Decrease renin secretion (due to B₁-receptor blockade on JG cells)</li>
</ul>

Answer 137

A

<ul>
<li>Decrease heart rate</li>
<li>Increase filling time, relieving obstruction</li>
</ul>

Answer 138

A

<ul>
<li>Decrease O₂demand (short-term)</li>
<li>Decrease mortality (long-term)</li>
</ul>

Answer 139

A

<ul>
<li>Erectile dysfunction</li>
<li>Cardiovascular (bradycardia, AV block, HF)</li>
<li>CNS (seizures, sleep alterations)</li>
<li>Dyslipidemia</li>
<li>Asthma/ COPD exacerbations</li>
</ul>

Answer 140

A

Glucagon

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Pharmacology Flashcards

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