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Biomedicine- NCCAOM > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Barium Enema

A

polyps, diverticulosis, motility of colon or rectum
- colon cancer (ascending colon), UC (descending), Crohns (esophagus to lower colon- primarily left), Dx blood in stools, diarrhea, constipation

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2
Q

Barium Swallow

A

upper GI- ulcers (ST/esophageal), polyps, diverticulosis, motility and peristalsis of the esophagus. ST, duodenum, SI
- narrowing or irritations of esophagus, dysphagia, ulcers, tumors, polyps in upper GI, GERD

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3
Q

CT scan

A

Tumors, blood clots, biliary obstruction, aneurysms

  • Great for post trauma injuries such as MVA
  • Better for acute sx (chest, abdominal, lung)
  • best at identifying cancer such as lymphoma
  • very good for diagnosis spinal problems, injuries to hands, feet, blood vessels, muscles. , blood clots, internal bleeding, tumors
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4
Q

MRI

A

atherosclerotic tissue, joints, spine, brain, valves of the heart, tendons and ligaments when patient is stationary* - end result testing
- frequently used for: aneurysms, MS, Spinal Cord injuries, Stroke, arthritis, Tumors

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5
Q

KUB (Kidney Ureter Bladder)

A

size, shape, position of urinary organ, kidney stones

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6
Q

Ultrasound-

A

gallbladder, kidneys, pancreas, bladder, arterial blood, liver and reproductive organs

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7
Q

Arthrography

A

joint, tendon, cartilage and ligament condition while patient moves (*MRI is used for sedentary views)

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8
Q

SPECT

A

extent of brain damage post stroke

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9
Q

PET

A

diagnosing parkinson’s epilepsy, mental illness as well as metabolic activity to organs

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10
Q

Laproscopy

A

fiber optic tube used to view contents w/in abdomen & pelvis

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11
Q

What is the best radiography exam to diagnose an AAA (abdominal aortic aneurysm)

A

CT Scan

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12
Q

X Ray

A

arthritis, bone cancer, breast tumors, digestive problems, enlarged heart, fractures, osteoporosis, swallowed items, tooth decay (gut healthy)

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13
Q

Pharmacology

A

characteristic of a natural drug and their sources

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14
Q

pharmacodynamics

A

study of what drugs do to the body

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15
Q

pharmacokinetics

A

study of what the body does to a drug

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16
Q

pharmacotherapeutics

A

how drugs are used to treat disease

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17
Q

toxicology

A

poisons or poisonous effects of drugs

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18
Q

Absorption-

A

converting a drug into something the body can use

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19
Q

distribution

A

process of transporting a drug from its given site to its action site

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20
Q

metabolism

A

transformation process of a drug into metabolites (age, immunity can interfere with metabolism of drugs

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21
Q

Excretion

A

how medication is eliminated (feces, urine)

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22
Q 
Pregnancy Categories
A
B
C
D
E
NR
A 
A- No Risk
B- no risk in humans
C- indeterminate risk, benefits outweigh risks
D- high risk
E- contraindicated
NR- no rating
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23
Q 
Controlled Substance Schedule
I
II
III
IV
V
A

I- high abuse, no medical necessity- no medical use in US; can’t be prescribed. Ex: Heroin, LSD, MDMA
II- high abuse and dependency (opioids, barbiturates, amphetamines)- may lead to severe dependence- morphine, oxycodone, opium, codeine
III- low abuse may cause dependence (steroids, analgesics, barbiturates, anti-diarrheal- most common)- less than 15mg of hydrocodone or 90mg of codeine
IV- low abuse, limited dependence (benzos; diazepam, calium, lorazepam, xanax, clonazepam/klonopin, soma)- these can reduce the efficiency of acupuncture
V- low abuse, limited dependence (antitussive, anti-diarrheal)

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24
Q

If a patient is on 110mg of codeine what schedule of drug are they in?

A

Schedule II

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25
Q

Methods of Administration: Buccal

A

Water absorbed- Used for people with liver or stomach absorption issues.
Cardiuvascular drugs, steroids, barbiturates, enzymes, vitamins

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26
Q

Methods of Administration: Sublingual

A

under the tongue, fast absorption like buccal with many of the same meds

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27
Q

Methods of Administration: Transdermal

A

absorbed through the skin (steroids, hormones, opioids) for slow drug release
- don’t touch someone else’s transdermal patch

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28
Q

Methods of Administration: Intradermal

A

creates a wheal, makes a bubble under the epidermis and slowly absorbs into the dermis. Ex. allergy testing

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29
Q

Methods of Administration: Subcutaneous

A

administered as a bolus into the layer of skin below the dermis and adipose
*Morphine, insulin

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30
Q

Methods of Administration: Intramuscular

A

acts as a depot for the medication which slowly releases into the blood stream
- thorazine, methotrexate, morphine, codeine
Peak serum concentration 30min- 3 hours

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31
Q

Methods of Administration: Intravenous

A

fastest absorption as it enters the blood stream; risk for overdose or marked interactions. End of infusion (immediate)

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32
Q

**Penicillin peak serum concentration administration

A

peak serum concentration is 4-24 hours all routes
- If patient it taking probiotic you have to wait 24 hours after probiotic dosage to prescribe penicillin otherwise it will counteract.

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33
Q

Methods of Administration: Oral

A

taken via mouth- most common however, it has been linked with higher liver, stomach pathology.
Peak serum concentration 30min-6 hours

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34
Q

Methods of Administration: vaginal

A

douches, suppositories, antifungals, antivirus

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35
Q

Methods of Administration: rectal

A

Rectal: suppositories, enemas

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36
Q

Suffixes: -amil

A

calcium channel blockers

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37
Q

Suffixes: -caine

A

local anethetics

- lidocaine

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38
Q

Suffixes: -dine

A

H2 blockers, anti ulcer agents

- rantadine

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39
Q

Suffixes: -done

A

opoids- mathadone

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40
Q

Suffixes: -ide

A

oral hypoglycemic

- glymeperide

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41
Q

Suffixes: -lam

A

anti anxiety

- alprazolam

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42
Q

Suffixes: mycin

A

antibiotic

-erythromycin, azythromycin

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43
Q

Suffixes: -mide

A

diuretic

- farozamide (contraindicated with Fu Ling)

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44
Q

Suffixes: nuim

A

neurological blocker

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45
Q

Suffixes: - olol

A

betablocker

- tropolol

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46
Q

Suffixes: - pam

A

antianxiety

- diazapam

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47
Q

Suffixes: - pine

A

calcium channel blockers

-

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48
Q

Suffixes: - pril

A

ACE inhibitors

- progressive cough

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49
Q

Suffixes: -sone

A

Steriods

-hydrocortisone

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50
Q

Suffixes: -statin

A

Antihypertensives

- Shan Zha (hawthorne) - agonist with statins

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51
Q

Suffixes: -vir

A

Antiviral

- think herpes

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52
Q

Suffixes: -zide

A

diuretics

- diazide (potassium sparing)

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53
Q

Analgesic

A

mild to severe pain reliever

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54
Q

Anticholinergic

A

Blocks parasympathetic nerve impulses

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55
Q

Antacid

A

neutralizes stomach acid

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56
Q

Anti depressent (tricyclic, MAOI, SSRI, SNRI)

A

relieves depression

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57
Q

Anticonvulsant

A

prevents, controls, or relieves seizures

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58
Q

Antiemetic

A

prevents or relieves nausea and vomiting

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59
Q

anti inflammatory (NSAIDS, Steroids)

A

reduces inflammation

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60
Q

Antihistamine

A

counteracts histamine, relieves allergies

  • often patients forget to tell you they take these
  • acupuncture requires a histamine effect- thus antihistamines will inhibit the tx
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61
Q

Anthelmintic

A

kills parasites and their eggs

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62
Q

Antineoplastic

A

destroys cancer cells

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63
Q

cathartic

A

alleviates constipation

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64
Q

a patient presents to you with elevated blood glucose, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia and weight gain- what is the most likely diagnosis

A

metabolic syndrome

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65
Q 
What is not a symptoms of Type 2 diabetes:
A) paresthesia
B) lack of appetite
C) increased thirst
D) increased urination
A

B) lack of appetite

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66
Q 
Which is not a s/s of hypoglycemia?
A) blurred vision
B) weakness
C) dry and flushed skin
D) headache
A

C) dry and flushed skin

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67
Q

Which of the following statements about portal hypertension is not true?
A) it can be caused by cirrhosis of the liver
B) it can lead to ascites
C) it can cause caput medusae or purple veins that can be seen around the umbilicus
D) it is due to an increase in pressure in hepatic portal artery

A

D

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68
Q

which type of anemia is caused by lack of intrinsic factor and inability to absorb B12

A

pernicious anemia

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69
Q

stool which is black and tarry/sticky when passed most likely indicates

A

upper gastrointestinal bleed

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70
Q

all of the following statements about Crohn’s disease are correct except:
A) it affects only partial thickness of bowel tissue
B) it can produce cramping and severe abdominal pain
C) it may cause significant weight loss
D) it can cause fistulae and abscesses

A

A) it affects only partial thickness of bowel tissue

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71
Q

a patient presents with severe RLQ pain, N/V, and fever of 101. Bowel sounds are evident in all four quadrants. Her WBC count is elevated and she tests positive when you perform McBurney’s test. Your patient’s most likely diagnosis is:

A

Appendicitis

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72
Q

severe epigastric pain that radiates to the right shoulder. she is concerned that it may be a side effect from the lipitor that her MD prescribed. It seems to come and go and is worse when she eats fatty foods. whats her diagnosis?

A

Cholelithiasis

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73
Q

lack of which vitamin is associated with pernicious anemia

A

B12

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74
Q

pain just below the right costal margin at the midclavicular line with deep inhale and pressure placed on that spot could be…

A

cholecystitis

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75
Q

what is the expected incubation period of Hep B

A

50-180 days

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76
Q

What is transmitted through fecal-oral route?

A

Hep A & E

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77
Q

47 year old with acute lower GI bleed; knowing that the most common cause of acute lower GI bleed in patients above 40 is (blank), you would refer out for what test?

A

Diverticulosis

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78
Q

which of the following conditions can be characterized by right lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and increase in WBC count

A

appendicitis

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79
Q

45 year old male comes into your clinic w/ RUQ pain, nausea that comes and goes, and a strange tenderness in his costovertebral region. which condition does this present as?

A

cholecystitis

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80
Q

what does the HbA1C level have to be to be rendered Diabetic?

A

6.5% or over

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81
Q

which of the following is a first-line medication for treatment of Type 2 diabetes

A

Metformin

82
Q 
a 39 year old patient develops GERD over the course of 6 years in a high stress job. He is asking for a dietary plan from you. Your recommendation to him should be to avoid all of the following except:
A) caffeine
B) alcohol
C) H2 receptor antagonist
D) nicotine
A

H2 Receptor antagonist

83
Q

abdominal pain that worsens with consumption of food.. what is the likely diagnosis?

A

gastric ulcer

84
Q

abdominal discomfort in which the pt feels incomplete relief w/ defecation and intermittent diarrhea interrupted by constipation. Aggravated by psychological factors?

A

IBS

85
Q

which of the following regions does an upper endoscopy not visualize? ST, HT, Duodenum or Esophagus

A

HT

86
Q 
Colonoscopy is used to visualize
A) LI & SI
B) LI
C) Esophagus, ST, Duodenum
D) LI, SI, ST
A

LI

87
Q

which of the following regions of the GI tract are sites of enzyme release for carbohydrate digestion?

A

Mouth and Small intestine

88
Q

Which of the following regions of the GI tract is the site of enzyme release for Fat digestion?

A

Small Intestine

89
Q

the small intestine region of the GI tract consists of ?

A

Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum

90
Q

which of the following conditions presents pathology above pectinate line and is not painful

A

internal hemorrhoid?

91
Q

which pathogen is the major cause of acute diarrhea in US during winter months (is found at high rates in day care centers and kindergartens)

A

Rotavirus

92
Q

which of the following viruses can spread quickly in closed places such as day care centers, nursing homes, schools and cruise ships?

A

Norovirus

93
Q

Upper GI and Lower GI is divided by which anatomical sites?

A

ligament of treitz

94
Q

internal hemorrhoids are…

A

above the pectinate line, non-painful

95
Q

patient enters with diarrhea and a history of recent antibiotic use.. which is most likely the cause?

A

Clostridium difficile

96
Q

Vaccines are available for which of the following varieties of Hepatitis?

A

Hep A & B

97
Q

Which forms of hepatitis have abrupt onset?

A

Hep A & E

98
Q

Which forms of hepatitis are bloodborne

A

Hep B & C

99
Q

what is the incubation period for Hep C

A

14- 180 days

100
Q 
All of the following statements are true about Hep B except?
A) incubation of 45-160 days
B) blood borne
C) abrupt onset
D) vaccine available
A

abrupt onset

101
Q

which vitamin deficiency is known to cause pernicious anemia?

A

B12 (cobalamin) deficiency

102
Q

which of the following diseases is best represented by a lab score of AST:ALT= 2:1 or greater?

A

alcoholic liver disease

103
Q

a patient complains of chronic diarrhea with fatty streaks in stools. He his thin and fatigued. His doctor diagnosed him with dermatitis herpetiformis for his skin rash. A biopsy of his intestines revealed a flattening and loss of villi. Which condition best represents this patient?

A

celiac disease

104
Q

Guidelines for colonoscopy for colon cancer screening

A

every 10 years in those >50

105
Q

which herb is used for liver disease

A

milk thistle

106
Q

which hormone is produced by alpha cells of the pancreas and is capable of raising concentration of glucose in the bloodstream

A

glucagon

107
Q

which IBD involves the rectum and presents with continuous lesions, abdominal pain with bloody diarrhea?

A

Ulcerative Colitis

108
Q

which IBD presents with oral ulcers, involves portions of the terminal ileum, colon, abdominal pain, non bloody diarrhea, and perirectal abscess/fistula?

A

Crohn’s disease

109
Q

what is a possibility of LLQ pain?

A

diverticulitis

110
Q

patient is diagnosis with cachexia and fatigue- what condition does she have

A

wasting syndrome

111
Q

What organism can cause diarrhea and life threatening inflammation of the colon?

A

C. Difficile

112
Q

what is the other name for the suspensory muscle of the duodenum?

A

ligament of treitz

113
Q

it is common to prescribe colorectal cancer screening such as Fecal Occult Blood tests for patients over 50 y.o with average risk how often?

A

every year

114
Q

what is usually present in feces when bile production is reduced?

A

fat streaks

115
Q

a patient taking acetaminophen should be monitored for any bleeding, bruising, nosebleeds as well as:

A

RUQ pain

116
Q

Which type of hepatitis is the most significant infectious risk for workers in the US?

A

Hep B

117
Q

pt presents with N/V and hardness on lower right side of abdomen. Rebound tenderness can be seen with which of the following signs?

A

McBurney’s Sign

118
Q

increase in RBC can indicate which diseaes

A

lung disease, polycthemia, cardiovascular disease

119
Q 
all of the following can cause an increase in blood pressure except:
A) CAD
B) Anemia
C) Pain
D) Steroid Use
A

anemia

120
Q 
a decrease in WBC may indicate all of the following except:
A) Pneumonia
B) HIV
C) Chemo side effects
D) Bone marrow pathology
A

B) HIV infection

121
Q

Formed elements (RBC, WBC, platelets) comprise what percentage of total blood volume?

A

45%

122
Q

which leukocyte is primarily involved in helping the body fight off bacterial infections?

A

neutrophils

123
Q 
you order a CBC with differentiation for your patient. The report states that his WBC count is elevated with specific elevation in monocytes. What is most likely the diagnosis?
A) allergic reaction
B) parasitic infection
C) chronic infection
D) cancer
A

Chronic infection

124
Q 
Which hormone has primary involvement in T cell activation and the immune response?
A) seratonin
B) histamine
C) bradykinin
D) estrogen
A

seratonin

125
Q 
All of the following are opportunistic infections associated with HIV except?
A) candidiasis
B) kaposi's sarcoma
C) pneumonia
D) legionnaire's disease
A

legionnaires

126
Q

how long should one apply continuous pressure to a hematoma of an artery?

A

up to 4 minutes

127
Q

which of the following immune cells defends the body against helminthic infections

A

eosinophil

128
Q

which of the following vitamin deficiencies are known to cause megaloblastic anemia

A

B9 (folate), B12 (cobalamin)

129
Q

blood cells (vs plasma) perform all these physiologic functions except:
A) clotting at sites of injuries of cuts
B) maintains the electrolytes and fluid balance
C) supply of oxygen
D) 45% blood
E) circulation of WBC

A

maintains the electrolyte and fluid balance

130
Q

what is the function of eosinophils

A

allergic reactions

131
Q

which of the immune cells performs the activity of engulfing WBCs via phagocytosis

A

monocytes, neutrophils

132
Q

at what level will CD4 count indicate that an HIV infected person will develop aids

A

<200

133
Q

MCV values for normocytic anemia

A

80-100fL

134
Q

What deficiency is associated with mictrocytic anemia

A

iron

135
Q

which leukemia is most common in children?

A

Acute Lymbocytic leukemia (ALL)

136
Q

a patient who is low in iron should refrain from what food/beverage?

A

tea

137
Q

which blood cells help protect the body from pathogens

A

leukocytes

138
Q

all of the following are considered indications of eosinophilia except?

  • collagen vascular disease
  • neoplasms
  • addisons
  • malar flush
  • parasitic infection
  • allergies
A

malar flush

139
Q

What is an indication of right sided heart failure

A

jugular vein distention

140
Q

a reticulocyte count blood test evaluates–

A

the RBC production by the bone marrow

141
Q

Elevated T4 levels may indicate all of the following except:

  • pregnancy
  • hyperthyroidism
  • birth control
  • hypothyroidism
A

hypothyroidism

142
Q

What hormones are produced by the anterior pituitary gland

A

LH, FSH, ACTH, TSH

143
Q

which hormone increases levels of calcium in the blood

A

parathyroid hormone

144
Q

which of the following are not associated with addison’s disease?

  • hypersecretion of gluccoticoids
  • weight loss
  • hyperpigmintation
  • decrease in blood glucose levels
A

hypersecretion of gluccoticoids

145
Q

a patient presents with elevated blood glucose, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and weight gain. what is their likely diagnosis

A

metabolic syndrome

146
Q

what is not a sx of hyperthyroidism?

  • nervousness
  • increased appetite
  • tachycardia
  • weight gain
A

weight gain

147
Q

what is not a sx of type 2 diabetes

  • paresthesia
  • lack of appetite
  • increased thirst
  • increased urination
A

lack of appetite

148
Q

which hormone triggers ovulation

A

LH

149
Q

if TH (thyroid hormone) levels are low, how will this effect the levels of TSH?

A

TSH will rise

150
Q

Calcitonin is a hormone associated with …

A

thyroid

151
Q

In which of the following cell types is insulin produced?

A

beta cells in the pancreas

152
Q

a male patient, 38 years old, calls your office stating that he believes that he may have addison’s disease. Which of the following signs should you expect to see when he arrives at the office?

  • acne
  • dark pigmengted skin
  • moon face
  • buffalo hump
A

dark pigmented skin

153
Q

a 26 year old female enters your office complaining of fatigue. She remembers that her doctor told her that her waxy face look was due to a condition called myxedema. This condition is related to what organ?

A

thyroid

154
Q

LH is secreted by the :

A

anterior pituitary gland

155
Q

during which phase of the female reproductive cycle does a surge of LH and FSH take place

A

ovulation

156
Q

which of the following hormones are synthesized by the hypothalamus and are released by the posterior pituitary?

  • LH & FSH
  • GH & prolactin
  • ADH & Oxytocin
  • TSH & ACTH
A

ADH & oxytocin

157
Q

which of the following hormones influences human circadian rhythms and when taken orally can treat sleep-wake disorders (often secondary to jet lag or shift work)

  • T3
  • Hops
  • Melatonin
  • Valerian
A

Melatonin

158
Q

which of the following phases of sleep usually occurs 90 minutes after falling asleep? (during this phase dreaming and penile/clitoral tumescence occur and this phase may serve a role in memory processing)

A

REM

159
Q

the role of the anterior pituitary gland is to produce and release hormones. T or F

A

T

160
Q

the role of the pituitary gland is to store and release hormones. T or F

A

T

161
Q

you have a patient requesting you to advise them on improving their SSRI effectiveness. They state that they had bough 5 HTP and was going to ask if you would advise if they could safely take them. Your response is

A

Don’t take them together, it increases the risk of a Seratonin Syndrome

162
Q

Myxedema is the presentation of a patient as a result of underactive…

A

Thyroid

163
Q

the integumentary system protects the body by:
A) producing white blood cells which fight infection
B) raising the body’s temp
C) acting as a barrier against infectious agents
D) killing bacteria and viruses

A

C) acting as a barrier against infectious agents

164
Q

The B in ABCDs of skin changes/skin cancer examination stands for?

A

border irregularity

165
Q

A target lesion can often be observed at the contraction of which disease?

A

Lyme

166
Q

which dermatological pathology typically affects preschool children and presents with thin-walled blisters around the nose and mouth that rupture and form crusty yellow lesions

A

impetigo bacteria

167
Q

your neighbor brings her 7 year old son to your office concerned about a case of lice being spread among his classmates. what is the best advice to give your neighbor to prevent spreading of lice?

A

avoid head to head contact

168
Q

44 year old patient w/ intense pruritus, especially at night and after hot showers. the affected sites are hands, axillae, and genitals. Upon closer examination you notice small mite tracks along his area of complaint. what is the condition he most likely suffers from

A

scabies

169
Q

25 year old female walks into your clinic complaining of recurrent sores in the oral region (cold sore). She explains that she thinks she has had it all her life but she has been eating a lot of dates for the past 3 days. Which virus is most likely causing these sores?

A

HSV-1

170
Q

25 year old female walks into your clinic complaining of recurrent sores in the oral region (cold sore). She explains that she thinks she has had it all her life but she has been eating a lot of dates for the past 3 days. Which virus is most likely causing these sores? HSV2

Same patient comes back 35 years later with extremely eruption of vesicles unilaterally on her ribs and stop at midline of her chest. which virus is involved

A

Varicella-Zoster (shingles)

171
Q

Which of the following skin conditions is considered a flat and less than .5cm in diameter?

  • macule
  • vesicle
  • papule
  • plaque
  • patch
  • bullae
A

macule

172
Q

27 year old male enters your clinic with red and itchy skin. He reveals slivery and scaly plaques on his knees, elbows, gluteal cleft, and scalp. He also has an unusual pitting in his fingernails. Which condition does he likely have?

A

psoriasis

173
Q

22 year old African american woman enters your office with butterfly shaped rash on her face centered across the nose. She complains of bilateral arthritis. Upon further questioning you find she is ANA(+). Which is likely the condition

A

SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus)

174
Q

which of the following infections of the epidermis presents with honey colored lesions and is caused by staph aureus or staph pyogenes?

  • vitiligo
  • erysipelas
  • cellulitis
  • impetigo
A

Impetigo

175
Q

Which of the following infections of the dermis and subcutaneous fat is warm erythematous and tender (note: this condition may be associated with an identifiable portal of entry such as a cut, tinea pedia, animal or insect bite, ulcer, or injection site)

A

cellulitis

176
Q

which of the following is considered a super bug that is resistant to antibiotics such as penicillins and cephalosporins?

  • staph aureus
  • strep pyogenes
  • MRSA
  • H Pylori
A

MRSA

177
Q

Which of the following is best described as painful vesicles evolving into crusted lesions in a dermatomal distribution?

  • acne vulgaris (common acne)
  • bullous pemphigoid
  • herpes zoster (shingles)
  • pemphigus vulgaris
A

herpes zoster (shingles)

178
Q

which of the following types of cancer grows slowly and rarely metastasizes?

  • squamous cell carcinoma
  • basal cell
  • actinic keratoses
  • melanoma
A

basal cell carcinoma

179
Q

all of the following are characteristic of melanoma except:

  • diameter >6mm
  • Regular border
  • asymmetrical shape
  • color irregularities
A

regular border

180
Q

which of the following burns involves the epidermis and superficial dermis which presents as red, wet, and painful with possible blisters

  • 1st degree
  • 2nd
  • 3rd
  • 4th
A

second

181
Q

a 4y/o male patient comes into your clinic with white spots in their mouth, low grade fever, and a rash on their face. What would you suppose this could be?

  • measles
  • mumps
  • varicella zoster
  • mumps
A

measles

182
Q

a patient had left a medical clinic 6 days ago after being treated for abrasions. They come to your clinic with tight skin that is red and painful to the touch on lower leg. What skin condition do you suppose this is?

  • folliculitis
  • cellulitis
  • scabies
  • edema
A

cellulitis

183
Q

what is the most common form of skin cancer?

A

basal cell carcinoma (growth or sore that will not heal, waxy, smooth, red, pale, flat or lumpy)

184
Q

the apex of the lungs is level with which vertebra?

A

C7

185
Q

a 66 year old male enters your clinic wanting to use holistic medicine to treat his breathing troubles. Upon further questioning you discover that he has recently received a diagnosis for COPD. what are two common disease taht precede COPD

A

emphysema & chronic bronchitis

186
Q

Restrictive Pulmonary Disease shares traits with which of these diseases?

A

sarcoidosis

187
Q

which of the following diseases shares many traits with Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases

  • emphysema
  • asthma
  • sarcoidosis
  • obesity hypoventilation syndrome
A

asthma

188
Q

which is a significant risk factors for COPD

  • sugar consumption
  • opiate use
  • smoking
  • acid reflux
A

smoking

189
Q

which pathogen is causative agent of whooping cough?

  • bordetella pertussis
  • rhinovirus
  • dengue virus
  • EBV
A

pertussis

190
Q

correctly represent the brachial plexus pathway

A

root, trunk, divisions, cords, branches

191
Q

which medication is beta-agonist used for acute asthma exacerbations

  • guaifenesin
  • albuterol
  • loratadine
  • diphenhydraimine
A

albuterol

192
Q

which of the following conditions is best characterized by chills, high fever, fatigue, chest pain, cough, mucus?

  • spontaneous pneumothorax
  • tension pneumothorax
  • pleural effusions
  • pneumonia
A

pneumonia

193
Q

which of the following metastases is leading cause of cancer death

A

lung

194
Q

the following are risk factors for repeated cessation of breathing >10s during sleep leading to disturbed sleep and daytime somnolence except:

  • obesity
  • old age
  • female
  • disproportionate upper airway anatomy
A

female gender

195
Q

all of the following are restrictive lung diseases except:

  • sarcoidosis
  • emphysema
  • asbestosis
  • goodpasture syndrome
A

emphysema

196
Q

which of the following types of hypersensitivity is represented by asthma, hay fever (allergic rhinitis), food allergies, eczema and anaphylaxis
- type 1, 2, 3, 4

A

type 1

197
Q

what is the definition of tachycardia in an adult

A

resting heart rate over 100bmp

198
Q

44 y/o complaining of cough, hemoptysis, bronchial obstruction, and wheezing. Upon questing you learn his doctor found a pneumonic “coin” lesion on x ray and a non calcified nodule on CT. which of the following conditions is best represented by these s/s

  • COPD
  • Emphysema
  • LU cancer
  • TB
A

LU cancer

199
Q

if a patient w/ lung cancer has a condition which worsens, where would the next s/s be most likely found?

  • skin
  • brain
  • spleen
  • colon
A

brain

200
Q

which of the following conditions is caused by a gram negative, aerobic, pathogenic, and encapulated coccobacillus of the genus bordetella

A

pertussis

201
Q

which of the following is the leading cause of cancer deaths in women in US

A

lung

Biomedicine- NCCAOM (3 decks)

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