Pharmacology Flashcards
1
Q
Barium Enema
A
polyps, diverticulosis, motility of colon or rectum
- colon cancer (ascending colon), UC (descending), Crohns (esophagus to lower colon- primarily left), Dx blood in stools, diarrhea, constipation
2
Q
Barium Swallow
A
upper GI- ulcers (ST/esophageal), polyps, diverticulosis, motility and peristalsis of the esophagus. ST, duodenum, SI
- narrowing or irritations of esophagus, dysphagia, ulcers, tumors, polyps in upper GI, GERD
3
Q
CT scan
A
Tumors, blood clots, biliary obstruction, aneurysms
- Great for post trauma injuries such as MVA
- Better for acute sx (chest, abdominal, lung)
- best at identifying cancer such as lymphoma
- very good for diagnosis spinal problems, injuries to hands, feet, blood vessels, muscles. , blood clots, internal bleeding, tumors
4
Q
MRI
A
atherosclerotic tissue, joints, spine, brain, valves of the heart, tendons and ligaments when patient is stationary* - end result testing
- frequently used for: aneurysms, MS, Spinal Cord injuries, Stroke, arthritis, Tumors
5
Q
KUB (Kidney Ureter Bladder)
A
size, shape, position of urinary organ, kidney stones
6
Q
Ultrasound-
A
gallbladder, kidneys, pancreas, bladder, arterial blood, liver and reproductive organs
7
Q
Arthrography
A
joint, tendon, cartilage and ligament condition while patient moves (*MRI is used for sedentary views)
8
Q
SPECT
A
extent of brain damage post stroke
9
Q
PET
A
diagnosing parkinson’s epilepsy, mental illness as well as metabolic activity to organs
10
Q
Laproscopy
A
fiber optic tube used to view contents w/in abdomen & pelvis
11
Q
What is the best radiography exam to diagnose an AAA (abdominal aortic aneurysm)
A
CT Scan
12
Q
X Ray
A
arthritis, bone cancer, breast tumors, digestive problems, enlarged heart, fractures, osteoporosis, swallowed items, tooth decay (gut healthy)
13
Q
Pharmacology
A
characteristic of a natural drug and their sources
14
Q
pharmacodynamics
A
study of what drugs do to the body
15
Q
pharmacokinetics
A
study of what the body does to a drug
16
Q
pharmacotherapeutics
A
how drugs are used to treat disease
17
Q
toxicology
A
poisons or poisonous effects of drugs
18
Q
Absorption-
A
converting a drug into something the body can use
19
Q
distribution
A
process of transporting a drug from its given site to its action site
20
Q
metabolism
A
transformation process of a drug into metabolites (age, immunity can interfere with metabolism of drugs
21
Q
Excretion
A
how medication is eliminated (feces, urine)
22
Q
Pregnancy Categories A B C D E NR
A
A- No Risk B- no risk in humans C- indeterminate risk, benefits outweigh risks D- high risk E- contraindicated NR- no rating
23
Q
Controlled Substance Schedule I II III IV V
A
I- high abuse, no medical necessity- no medical use in US; can’t be prescribed. Ex: Heroin, LSD, MDMA
II- high abuse and dependency (opioids, barbiturates, amphetamines)- may lead to severe dependence- morphine, oxycodone, opium, codeine
III- low abuse may cause dependence (steroids, analgesics, barbiturates, anti-diarrheal- most common)- less than 15mg of hydrocodone or 90mg of codeine
IV- low abuse, limited dependence (benzos; diazepam, calium, lorazepam, xanax, clonazepam/klonopin, soma)- these can reduce the efficiency of acupuncture
V- low abuse, limited dependence (antitussive, anti-diarrheal)
24
Q
If a patient is on 110mg of codeine what schedule of drug are they in?
A
Schedule II
25
Methods of Administration: Buccal
Water absorbed- Used for people with liver or stomach absorption issues.
Cardiuvascular drugs, steroids, barbiturates, enzymes, vitamins
26
Methods of Administration: Sublingual
under the tongue, fast absorption like buccal with many of the same meds
27
Methods of Administration: Transdermal
absorbed through the skin (steroids, hormones, opioids) for slow drug release
- don't touch someone else's transdermal patch
28
Methods of Administration: Intradermal
creates a wheal, makes a bubble under the epidermis and slowly absorbs into the dermis. Ex. allergy testing
29
Methods of Administration: Subcutaneous
administered as a bolus into the layer of skin below the dermis and adipose
*Morphine, insulin
30
Methods of Administration: Intramuscular
acts as a depot for the medication which slowly releases into the blood stream
- thorazine, methotrexate, morphine, codeine
Peak serum concentration 30min- 3 hours
31
Methods of Administration: Intravenous
fastest absorption as it enters the blood stream; risk for overdose or marked interactions. End of infusion (immediate)
32
**Penicillin peak serum concentration administration
peak serum concentration is 4-24 hours all routes
- If patient it taking probiotic you have to wait 24 hours after probiotic dosage to prescribe penicillin otherwise it will counteract.
33
Methods of Administration: Oral
taken via mouth- most common however, it has been linked with higher liver, stomach pathology.
Peak serum concentration 30min-6 hours
34
Methods of Administration: vaginal
douches, suppositories, antifungals, antivirus
35
Methods of Administration: rectal
Rectal: suppositories, enemas
36
Suffixes: -amil
calcium channel blockers
37
Suffixes: -caine
local anethetics
| - lidocaine
38
Suffixes: -dine
H2 blockers, anti ulcer agents
| - rantadine
39
Suffixes: -done
opoids- mathadone
40
Suffixes: -ide
oral hypoglycemic
| - glymeperide
41
Suffixes: -lam
anti anxiety
| - alprazolam
42
Suffixes: mycin
antibiotic
| -erythromycin, azythromycin
43
Suffixes: -mide
diuretic
| - farozamide (contraindicated with Fu Ling)
44
Suffixes: nuim
neurological blocker
45
Suffixes: - olol
betablocker
| - tropolol
46
Suffixes: - pam
antianxiety
| - diazapam
47
Suffixes: - pine
calcium channel blockers
| -
48
Suffixes: - pril
ACE inhibitors
| - progressive cough
49
Suffixes: -sone
Steriods
| -hydrocortisone
50
Suffixes: -statin
Antihypertensives
| - Shan Zha (hawthorne) - agonist with statins
51
Suffixes: -vir
Antiviral
| - think herpes
52
Suffixes: -zide
diuretics
| - diazide (potassium sparing)
53
Analgesic
mild to severe pain reliever
54
Anticholinergic
Blocks parasympathetic nerve impulses
55
Antacid
neutralizes stomach acid
56
Anti depressent (tricyclic, MAOI, SSRI, SNRI)
relieves depression
57
Anticonvulsant
prevents, controls, or relieves seizures
58
Antiemetic
prevents or relieves nausea and vomiting
59
anti inflammatory (NSAIDS, Steroids)
reduces inflammation
60
Antihistamine
counteracts histamine, relieves allergies
- often patients forget to tell you they take these
- acupuncture requires a histamine effect- thus antihistamines will inhibit the tx
61
Anthelmintic
kills parasites and their eggs
62
Antineoplastic
destroys cancer cells
63
cathartic
alleviates constipation
64
a patient presents to you with elevated blood glucose, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia and weight gain- what is the most likely diagnosis
metabolic syndrome
65
```
What is not a symptoms of Type 2 diabetes:
A) paresthesia
B) lack of appetite
C) increased thirst
D) increased urination
```
B) lack of appetite
66
```
Which is not a s/s of hypoglycemia?
A) blurred vision
B) weakness
C) dry and flushed skin
D) headache
```
C) dry and flushed skin
67
Which of the following statements about portal hypertension is not true?
A) it can be caused by cirrhosis of the liver
B) it can lead to ascites
C) it can cause caput medusae or purple veins that can be seen around the umbilicus
D) it is due to an increase in pressure in hepatic portal artery
D
68
which type of anemia is caused by lack of intrinsic factor and inability to absorb B12
pernicious anemia
69
stool which is black and tarry/sticky when passed most likely indicates
upper gastrointestinal bleed
70
all of the following statements about Crohn's disease are correct except:
A) it affects only partial thickness of bowel tissue
B) it can produce cramping and severe abdominal pain
C) it may cause significant weight loss
D) it can cause fistulae and abscesses
A) it affects only partial thickness of bowel tissue
71
a patient presents with severe RLQ pain, N/V, and fever of 101. Bowel sounds are evident in all four quadrants. Her WBC count is elevated and she tests positive when you perform McBurney's test. Your patient's most likely diagnosis is:
Appendicitis
72
severe epigastric pain that radiates to the right shoulder. she is concerned that it may be a side effect from the lipitor that her MD prescribed. It seems to come and go and is worse when she eats fatty foods. whats her diagnosis?
Cholelithiasis
73
lack of which vitamin is associated with pernicious anemia
B12
74
pain just below the right costal margin at the midclavicular line with deep inhale and pressure placed on that spot could be...
cholecystitis
75
what is the expected incubation period of Hep B
50-180 days
76
What is transmitted through fecal-oral route?
Hep A & E
77
47 year old with acute lower GI bleed; knowing that the most common cause of acute lower GI bleed in patients above 40 is (blank), you would refer out for what test?
Diverticulosis
78
which of the following conditions can be characterized by right lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and increase in WBC count
appendicitis
79
45 year old male comes into your clinic w/ RUQ pain, nausea that comes and goes, and a strange tenderness in his costovertebral region. which condition does this present as?
cholecystitis
80
what does the HbA1C level have to be to be rendered Diabetic?
6.5% or over
81
which of the following is a first-line medication for treatment of Type 2 diabetes
Metformin
82
```
a 39 year old patient develops GERD over the course of 6 years in a high stress job. He is asking for a dietary plan from you. Your recommendation to him should be to avoid all of the following except:
A) caffeine
B) alcohol
C) H2 receptor antagonist
D) nicotine
```
H2 Receptor antagonist
83
abdominal pain that worsens with consumption of food.. what is the likely diagnosis?
gastric ulcer
84
abdominal discomfort in which the pt feels incomplete relief w/ defecation and intermittent diarrhea interrupted by constipation. Aggravated by psychological factors?
IBS
85
which of the following regions does an upper endoscopy not visualize? ST, HT, Duodenum or Esophagus
HT
86
```
Colonoscopy is used to visualize
A) LI & SI
B) LI
C) Esophagus, ST, Duodenum
D) LI, SI, ST
```
LI
87
which of the following regions of the GI tract are sites of enzyme release for carbohydrate digestion?
Mouth and Small intestine
88
Which of the following regions of the GI tract is the site of enzyme release for Fat digestion?
Small Intestine
89
the small intestine region of the GI tract consists of ?
Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum
90
which of the following conditions presents pathology above pectinate line and is not painful
internal hemorrhoid?
91
which pathogen is the major cause of acute diarrhea in US during winter months (is found at high rates in day care centers and kindergartens)
Rotavirus
92
which of the following viruses can spread quickly in closed places such as day care centers, nursing homes, schools and cruise ships?
Norovirus
93
Upper GI and Lower GI is divided by which anatomical sites?
ligament of treitz
94
internal hemorrhoids are...
above the pectinate line, non-painful
95
patient enters with diarrhea and a history of recent antibiotic use.. which is most likely the cause?
Clostridium difficile
96
Vaccines are available for which of the following varieties of Hepatitis?
Hep A & B
97
Which forms of hepatitis have abrupt onset?
Hep A & E
98
Which forms of hepatitis are bloodborne
Hep B & C
99
what is the incubation period for Hep C
14- 180 days
100
```
All of the following statements are true about Hep B except?
A) incubation of 45-160 days
B) blood borne
C) abrupt onset
D) vaccine available
```
abrupt onset
101
which vitamin deficiency is known to cause pernicious anemia?
B12 (cobalamin) deficiency
102
which of the following diseases is best represented by a lab score of AST:ALT= 2:1 or greater?
alcoholic liver disease
103
a patient complains of chronic diarrhea with fatty streaks in stools. He his thin and fatigued. His doctor diagnosed him with dermatitis herpetiformis for his skin rash. A biopsy of his intestines revealed a flattening and loss of villi. Which condition best represents this patient?
celiac disease
104
Guidelines for colonoscopy for colon cancer screening
every 10 years in those >50
105
which herb is used for liver disease
milk thistle
106
which hormone is produced by alpha cells of the pancreas and is capable of raising concentration of glucose in the bloodstream
glucagon
107
which IBD involves the rectum and presents with continuous lesions, abdominal pain with bloody diarrhea?
Ulcerative Colitis
108
which IBD presents with oral ulcers, involves portions of the terminal ileum, colon, abdominal pain, non bloody diarrhea, and perirectal abscess/fistula?
Crohn's disease
109
what is a possibility of LLQ pain?
diverticulitis
110
patient is diagnosis with cachexia and fatigue- what condition does she have
wasting syndrome
111
What organism can cause diarrhea and life threatening inflammation of the colon?
C. Difficile
112
what is the other name for the suspensory muscle of the duodenum?
ligament of treitz
113
it is common to prescribe colorectal cancer screening such as Fecal Occult Blood tests for patients over 50 y.o with average risk how often?
every year
114
what is usually present in feces when bile production is reduced?
fat streaks
115
a patient taking acetaminophen should be monitored for any bleeding, bruising, nosebleeds as well as:
RUQ pain
116
Which type of hepatitis is the most significant infectious risk for workers in the US?
Hep B
117
pt presents with N/V and hardness on lower right side of abdomen. Rebound tenderness can be seen with which of the following signs?
McBurney's Sign
118
increase in RBC can indicate which diseaes
lung disease, polycthemia, cardiovascular disease
119
```
all of the following can cause an increase in blood pressure except:
A) CAD
B) Anemia
C) Pain
D) Steroid Use
```
anemia
120
```
a decrease in WBC may indicate all of the following except:
A) Pneumonia
B) HIV
C) Chemo side effects
D) Bone marrow pathology
```
B) HIV infection
121
Formed elements (RBC, WBC, platelets) comprise what percentage of total blood volume?
45%
122
which leukocyte is primarily involved in helping the body fight off bacterial infections?
neutrophils
123
```
you order a CBC with differentiation for your patient. The report states that his WBC count is elevated with specific elevation in monocytes. What is most likely the diagnosis?
A) allergic reaction
B) parasitic infection
C) chronic infection
D) cancer
```
Chronic infection
124
```
Which hormone has primary involvement in T cell activation and the immune response?
A) seratonin
B) histamine
C) bradykinin
D) estrogen
```
seratonin
125
```
All of the following are opportunistic infections associated with HIV except?
A) candidiasis
B) kaposi's sarcoma
C) pneumonia
D) legionnaire's disease
```
legionnaires
126
how long should one apply continuous pressure to a hematoma of an artery?
up to 4 minutes
127
which of the following immune cells defends the body against helminthic infections
eosinophil
128
which of the following vitamin deficiencies are known to cause megaloblastic anemia
B9 (folate), B12 (cobalamin)
129
blood cells (vs plasma) perform all these physiologic functions except:
A) clotting at sites of injuries of cuts
B) maintains the electrolytes and fluid balance
C) supply of oxygen
D) 45% blood
E) circulation of WBC
maintains the electrolyte and fluid balance
130
what is the function of eosinophils
allergic reactions
131
which of the immune cells performs the activity of engulfing WBCs via phagocytosis
monocytes, neutrophils
132
at what level will CD4 count indicate that an HIV infected person will develop aids
<200
133
MCV values for normocytic anemia
80-100fL
134
What deficiency is associated with mictrocytic anemia
iron
135
which leukemia is most common in children?
Acute Lymbocytic leukemia (ALL)
136
a patient who is low in iron should refrain from what food/beverage?
tea
137
which blood cells help protect the body from pathogens
leukocytes
138
all of the following are considered indications of eosinophilia except?
- collagen vascular disease
- neoplasms
- addisons
- malar flush
- parasitic infection
- allergies
malar flush
139
What is an indication of right sided heart failure
jugular vein distention
140
a reticulocyte count blood test evaluates--
the RBC production by the bone marrow
141
Elevated T4 levels may indicate all of the following except:
- pregnancy
- hyperthyroidism
- birth control
- hypothyroidism
hypothyroidism
142
What hormones are produced by the anterior pituitary gland
LH, FSH, ACTH, TSH
143
which hormone increases levels of calcium in the blood
parathyroid hormone
144
which of the following are not associated with addison's disease?
- hypersecretion of gluccoticoids
- weight loss
- hyperpigmintation
- decrease in blood glucose levels
hypersecretion of gluccoticoids
145
a patient presents with elevated blood glucose, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and weight gain. what is their likely diagnosis
metabolic syndrome
146
what is not a sx of hyperthyroidism?
- nervousness
- increased appetite
- tachycardia
- weight gain
weight gain
147
what is not a sx of type 2 diabetes
- paresthesia
- lack of appetite
- increased thirst
- increased urination
lack of appetite
148
which hormone triggers ovulation
LH
149
if TH (thyroid hormone) levels are low, how will this effect the levels of TSH?
TSH will rise
150
Calcitonin is a hormone associated with ...
thyroid
151
In which of the following cell types is insulin produced?
beta cells in the pancreas
152
a male patient, 38 years old, calls your office stating that he believes that he may have addison's disease. Which of the following signs should you expect to see when he arrives at the office?
- acne
- dark pigmengted skin
- moon face
- buffalo hump
dark pigmented skin
153
a 26 year old female enters your office complaining of fatigue. She remembers that her doctor told her that her waxy face look was due to a condition called myxedema. This condition is related to what organ?
thyroid
154
LH is secreted by the :
anterior pituitary gland
155
during which phase of the female reproductive cycle does a surge of LH and FSH take place
ovulation
156
which of the following hormones are synthesized by the hypothalamus and are released by the posterior pituitary?
- LH & FSH
- GH & prolactin
- ADH & Oxytocin
- TSH & ACTH
ADH & oxytocin
157
which of the following hormones influences human circadian rhythms and when taken orally can treat sleep-wake disorders (often secondary to jet lag or shift work)
- T3
- Hops
- Melatonin
- Valerian
Melatonin
158
which of the following phases of sleep usually occurs 90 minutes after falling asleep? (during this phase dreaming and penile/clitoral tumescence occur and this phase may serve a role in memory processing)
REM
159
the role of the anterior pituitary gland is to produce and release hormones. T or F
T
160
the role of the pituitary gland is to store and release hormones. T or F
T
161
you have a patient requesting you to advise them on improving their SSRI effectiveness. They state that they had bough 5 HTP and was going to ask if you would advise if they could safely take them. Your response is
Don't take them together, it increases the risk of a Seratonin Syndrome
162
Myxedema is the presentation of a patient as a result of underactive...
Thyroid
163
the integumentary system protects the body by:
A) producing white blood cells which fight infection
B) raising the body's temp
C) acting as a barrier against infectious agents
D) killing bacteria and viruses
C) acting as a barrier against infectious agents
164
The B in ABCDs of skin changes/skin cancer examination stands for?
border irregularity
165
A target lesion can often be observed at the contraction of which disease?
Lyme
166
which dermatological pathology typically affects preschool children and presents with thin-walled blisters around the nose and mouth that rupture and form crusty yellow lesions
impetigo bacteria
167
your neighbor brings her 7 year old son to your office concerned about a case of lice being spread among his classmates. what is the best advice to give your neighbor to prevent spreading of lice?
avoid head to head contact
168
44 year old patient w/ intense pruritus, especially at night and after hot showers. the affected sites are hands, axillae, and genitals. Upon closer examination you notice small mite tracks along his area of complaint. what is the condition he most likely suffers from
scabies
169
25 year old female walks into your clinic complaining of recurrent sores in the oral region (cold sore). She explains that she thinks she has had it all her life but she has been eating a lot of dates for the past 3 days. Which virus is most likely causing these sores?
HSV-1
170
25 year old female walks into your clinic complaining of recurrent sores in the oral region (cold sore). She explains that she thinks she has had it all her life but she has been eating a lot of dates for the past 3 days. Which virus is most likely causing these sores? HSV2
Same patient comes back 35 years later with extremely eruption of vesicles unilaterally on her ribs and stop at midline of her chest. which virus is involved
Varicella-Zoster (shingles)
171
Which of the following skin conditions is considered a flat and less than .5cm in diameter?
- macule
- vesicle
- papule
- plaque
- patch
- bullae
macule
172
27 year old male enters your clinic with red and itchy skin. He reveals slivery and scaly plaques on his knees, elbows, gluteal cleft, and scalp. He also has an unusual pitting in his fingernails. Which condition does he likely have?
psoriasis
173
22 year old African american woman enters your office with butterfly shaped rash on her face centered across the nose. She complains of bilateral arthritis. Upon further questioning you find she is ANA(+). Which is likely the condition
SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus)
174
which of the following infections of the epidermis presents with honey colored lesions and is caused by staph aureus or staph pyogenes?
- vitiligo
- erysipelas
- cellulitis
- impetigo
Impetigo
175
Which of the following infections of the dermis and subcutaneous fat is warm erythematous and tender (note: this condition may be associated with an identifiable portal of entry such as a cut, tinea pedia, animal or insect bite, ulcer, or injection site)
cellulitis
176
which of the following is considered a super bug that is resistant to antibiotics such as penicillins and cephalosporins?
- staph aureus
- strep pyogenes
- MRSA
- H Pylori
MRSA
177
Which of the following is best described as painful vesicles evolving into crusted lesions in a dermatomal distribution?
- acne vulgaris (common acne)
- bullous pemphigoid
- herpes zoster (shingles)
- pemphigus vulgaris
herpes zoster (shingles)
178
which of the following types of cancer grows slowly and rarely metastasizes?
- squamous cell carcinoma
- basal cell
- actinic keratoses
- melanoma
basal cell carcinoma
179
all of the following are characteristic of melanoma except:
- diameter >6mm
- Regular border
- asymmetrical shape
- color irregularities
regular border
180
which of the following burns involves the epidermis and superficial dermis which presents as red, wet, and painful with possible blisters
- 1st degree
- 2nd
- 3rd
- 4th
second
181
a 4y/o male patient comes into your clinic with white spots in their mouth, low grade fever, and a rash on their face. What would you suppose this could be?
- measles
- mumps
- varicella zoster
- mumps
measles
182
a patient had left a medical clinic 6 days ago after being treated for abrasions. They come to your clinic with tight skin that is red and painful to the touch on lower leg. What skin condition do you suppose this is?
- folliculitis
- cellulitis
- scabies
- edema
cellulitis
183
what is the most common form of skin cancer?
basal cell carcinoma (growth or sore that will not heal, waxy, smooth, red, pale, flat or lumpy)
184
the apex of the lungs is level with which vertebra?
C7
185
a 66 year old male enters your clinic wanting to use holistic medicine to treat his breathing troubles. Upon further questioning you discover that he has recently received a diagnosis for COPD. what are two common disease taht precede COPD
emphysema & chronic bronchitis
186
Restrictive Pulmonary Disease shares traits with which of these diseases?
sarcoidosis
187
which of the following diseases shares many traits with Obstructive Pulmonary Diseases
- emphysema
- asthma
- sarcoidosis
- obesity hypoventilation syndrome
asthma
188
which is a significant risk factors for COPD
- sugar consumption
- opiate use
- smoking
- acid reflux
smoking
189
which pathogen is causative agent of whooping cough?
- bordetella pertussis
- rhinovirus
- dengue virus
- EBV
pertussis
190
correctly represent the brachial plexus pathway
root, trunk, divisions, cords, branches
191
which medication is beta-agonist used for acute asthma exacerbations
- guaifenesin
- albuterol
- loratadine
- diphenhydraimine
albuterol
192
which of the following conditions is best characterized by chills, high fever, fatigue, chest pain, cough, mucus?
- spontaneous pneumothorax
- tension pneumothorax
- pleural effusions
- pneumonia
pneumonia
193
which of the following metastases is leading cause of cancer death
lung
194
the following are risk factors for repeated cessation of breathing >10s during sleep leading to disturbed sleep and daytime somnolence except:
- obesity
- old age
- female
- disproportionate upper airway anatomy
female gender
195
all of the following are restrictive lung diseases except:
- sarcoidosis
- emphysema
- asbestosis
- goodpasture syndrome
emphysema
196
which of the following types of hypersensitivity is represented by asthma, hay fever (allergic rhinitis), food allergies, eczema and anaphylaxis
- type 1, 2, 3, 4
type 1
197
what is the definition of tachycardia in an adult
resting heart rate over 100bmp
198
44 y/o complaining of cough, hemoptysis, bronchial obstruction, and wheezing. Upon questing you learn his doctor found a pneumonic "coin" lesion on x ray and a non calcified nodule on CT. which of the following conditions is best represented by these s/s
- COPD
- Emphysema
- LU cancer
- TB
LU cancer
199
if a patient w/ lung cancer has a condition which worsens, where would the next s/s be most likely found?
- skin
- brain
- spleen
- colon
brain
200
which of the following conditions is caused by a gram negative, aerobic, pathogenic, and encapulated coccobacillus of the genus bordetella
pertussis
201
which of the following is the leading cause of cancer deaths in women in US
lung
