Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NBDE 2 > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

what metabolizes esters

A

esterases in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the mechanism of action of local anesthetics

A

prevent generation of nerve impulses by preventing sodium transport into the neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what form of LA is absorbed into the neuron

A

non-ionized form (free base form)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how does inflammed tissue affect LA absorption

A

is decreases the pH of the tissue which decreases the amount of non-iodized form of the LA meaning less gets into the nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Effect of beta blockers on LA concentrations

A

taking beta blockers slows down heart conduction and blood flow and thus causes LA to be in circulation longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the initial effect of LA in toxic concentration, then second effect at higher levels

A

first they inhibit inhibitory neurons = convulsions

higher doses inhibit inhibitory and excitatory = CNS depression, coma, death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does epinephrine initially cause

A

elevated pulse rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Graves disease

A

hyperthyroidism = high metabolic state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which is the only LA that causes vasocontriction

A

Cocaine

also causes stimulation of the cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what happens to the ratio of ionized and free base form of a LA if the pH and pKa are the same

A

there will be 50/50 ionized and free base form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

penicillin V vs. G

A

G is more sensitive to acid degredation and thus usually injected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which penicillin has the best gram negative spectrum

A

ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which antibiotics are cross-allergenic with penicillin

A

cephalosporin

not erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

dicloxacillin

A

penicillinase resisitant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what antibiotic for pseudomonas infection

A

extended spectrum carbenicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
Bacterial types 
Healthy gongiva
Chronic perio
Aggressive perio
ANUG
A 
Actinomyces Viscosis
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Bacterioides forsythus
AA 
Treponema denticola
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Macrolides

A

Bind 50s subunit of ribosomes, inhibit translation
protein synthesis inhibitor
bacteriostatic
Azithromycin, erythromycin, clarithromycin
Use: patients with penicillin allergies
SE: GI upset, inhibition of drug metabolism, QT prolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Nystatin

A

Antifungal
topically administered
used for oral candidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Beta lactams

Bacteriocidal

A

penicillins
carbapenems
monobactams
cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Penicillin G

A

narrow spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Penicillin V

A

narrow spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Penicillins

A

beta lactams (cell wall inhibitors)
bacteriocidal
effective against gram negative cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Naficillin

A

administration: IV
used to treat methicillin sensitive staph aureus
Penicillinase resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Oxacillin

A

administration: IV
used to treat methicillin sensitive staph aureus
Penicillinase resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Clavulanic Acid
Sulbactam
Tazobactam

A

beta lactamase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Carbenicillin

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa infections
“Antipseudomonal penicillin”
administration: enteral or parenteral
used with aminoglycoside to prevent resistance formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Sulfonamides

A

folic acid sytnthesis inhibitor
Bacteriostatic
Use: UTI, RA, Ulcerative colitis, ance, conjuctivitis
used less frequently due to increasing bacterial resistance
SE: Crystalluria, Rashes, Psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Piperacillin

A

antipseudomonal

29
Q

Trimethoprim

A

Folate inhibitor

Used to treat UTI

30
Q

Trimethoprim

A

Folate inhibitor
Use: UTI
SE: Rash, Megaloblastic anemia, Leukopenia
used with sulfamethoxazole

31
Q

Amphenicols

A

protein synthesis inhibitor (bacteriostatic)
used for serious, resistant infections
SE = severe bone marrow depression (gray baby syndrome)

32
Q

Tetracycline

A

protein synthesis inhibitor
Bacteriostatic
Broad Spectrum
use: for periodontitis, severe acne, chlamydia
EX: tetracycline, doxycycline, minocycline

33
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

protein synthesis inhibitor
EX: gentamycin, amikacin, Neomycin, Streptomycin
SE: Ototoxicity, Nephrotoxicity

34
Q

Clindamycin

A

narrow spectrum
50 S subunit inhibitor
Use: Oral infections, prophylaxis
BT: S. Pneumonia, S. Pyogenes, S. Aureus, Viridans, Bacteroids

35
Q

Streptomycin

A

Used for Tuberculosis

36
Q

Penicillin G

A

administration = IV or IM (unstable in gastric acid)

37
Q

Penicillin V

A

administration = Enteral

38
Q

Floroquinolones

A

Levofloxacin, Ciprofloxacin, Moxifloxacin, norfloxacin, sparfoloxacin

39
Q

Most common antibiotics for oral infections

A

penicillin

40
Q

Amphotercin B

A

SE: Lipophilic can lead to toxicity

41
Q

Acyclovir

A

Prodrug

42
Q

Amantadine

A

Use: influenza (resistance is common)

43
Q

Rimantadine

A

Use: influenza (resistance is common)

44
Q

patients who need prophylaxis

A
  1. Heart Valve surgery
  2. Endocarditis
  3. Heart transplant with abnormal valve function
  4. uncured cyanogenic congenital heart disease
  5. congenital heart defects repaired in last 6 months
  6. residual heart defects
45
Q

What to use as prophilactic with penicillin allergy

A

clindamycin
clarithromycin
azithromycin

46
Q

What to use as prophilactic, no allergy, no oral medication

A

ampicillin
cefazolin
Ceftriaxone

47
Q

What to use as prophilactic, allergy, no oral medication

A

Clindamycin
Cefazolin
Ceftriaxone

48
Q

Inipenem

A

atypical beta lactam

Use: P. Aeruginosa, Gram - rods, Streptococci

49
Q

Vancomycin

A

last resort antibiotic
Use: MRSA, C dificile
administration: IV

50
Q

Aminopenicillins

A

Amoxicillin, Ampicillin, Bacampicillin

51
Q

Amoxicillin

A

SE: Rash in people with mono or taking allopurinol

52
Q

Ampicillin

A

Administration: Parenteral
Use: intraabdominal infections, severe UTI
taken with sulbactam

53
Q

Ticarcillin

A

antipseudomonal

taken with clavulanic acid

54
Q

Penicillinase resistant penicillins

A 
methicillin
oxacillin
dicloxacillin
cloxacillin
nafcillin
55
Q

Cloxacillin

A

penicillinase resistant

56
Q

Metronidazole

A

narrow spectrum

use: parasitic infection

57
Q

Oseltamivir (tamiflu)

A

neuraminidase blocker (required for viral budding)

58
Q

What occurs when diazepam or triazolam is taken with the following drugs:
itraconazole
clarithromycin
cytochrome P-450 inhibitors

A

increased sedation

59
Q

What occurs when tetracyclines are taken with the oral antacids

A

reduced absorption of tetracylines

60
Q

What occurs when aspirin is taken with anticoagulants

A

increased bleeding tendancy

61
Q

what occurs when aspirin is taken with probenicid

A

decreased effect of prebenicid

62
Q

what occurs when aspirin is taken with methotrexate

A

increased methotrexate toxicity

63
Q

what occurs when acetominophen is taken with alcohol

A

increased risk of liver toxicity

64
Q

what occurs when local anesthetics are given with cholinesterase inhibitors

A

reduced effect of the cholinesterase inhibitors

65
Q

What drugs are contraindicated in a patient with methaglobin reductase deficiency

A

benzocaine, prilocaine

causes methemogloinemia

66
Q

What drugs are contraindicated in a patient with Glucose -6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

A

aspirin, primaquine, sulfonamides

hemolytic anemia

67
Q

What drugs are contraindicated in a patient with abnormal heme synthesis

A

barbiturates, sulfonamides

porphyria

68
Q

What drugs are contraindicated in a patient with Low plasma cholinesterase activity

A

procaine and other ester anesthetics

Local anesthetic toxicity

NBDE 2 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions