Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Drugs that interfere with ethanol metabolism leading to disulfiram-like effects:

A
Metronidazole
Griseofulvin
Cephalosporins (some)
Sulfonylureas (1st generation)
Procarbazine
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2
Q

Cimetidine use, mechanism of action and side effects:

A

Effects: anti-acid, H2 blocker

Side effects: decreases androgen production, inhibits P450

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3
Q

What decreases the pain of an ulcer the fastest?

A

Antiacids (proton pump inhibitors as omeprazole)

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4
Q

GI effect of aluminum:

A

Constipation (estreñimiento)

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5
Q

GI effect of magnesium:

A

Diarrhea

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6
Q

When we treat Parkinson’s disease with dopamine one side effect can be:

A

Vomiting

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7
Q

Pharmacological properties and side effects of Omeprazole:

A

Irreversible effect
Long half life (we have to give 1/day)

SE:
C. Difficile, pneumonia
Acute interstitial nephritis
B12 malabsorption
↓ Mg, Ca; fractures!
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8
Q

OrdanSETRON, GraniSETRON effect and mechanism of action:

A

Antiemetics after surgery and in QT

Work very well on vomiting due to GI irritation as infections, QT and DISTENSION
Block serotonin receptors

Side effects: Prolong QT, constipation, headache and dizziness, serotonin sd

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9
Q

Treatment options for motion sickness:

A

Scopolamine: muscarinic antagonist against M1 and M3

Diphenhydramine: 1st generation H1 antagonists that has both antiH1 and antimuscarinic!!!! properties

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10
Q

Good preventing emesis in cancer treatment:

A

Ondansetron (5HT3 antagonist). To suppress acute vomiting

PrOCHLOrperazine (anti D2). On ❤️ problems

Aprepitant (Neurokinin 1 receptor blocker prevents substance P from binding NK1 receptors in the area postrema). To suppress delayed vomiting +- the others fail

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11
Q

Increased 5HIAA (5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid) in urine +- flushing, diarrhea… indicates:

A

Carcinoid tumor/ syndrome

*We call it carcinoid syndrome when the tumor has made metastasis

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12
Q

Phospholipase A2 enzymes action:

A

Release fatty acids from the second group of glycerol (cleave the 2nd carbon)

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13
Q

Thromboxanes function:

A

Platelet aggregators

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14
Q

NSAIDs side effects that acetaminophen does not cause:

A

Asthma exacerbation
Gastric distress
Cardiovascular risk

NSAIS treat pain fever and inflammation while acetaminophen treats pain and fever but not inflammation

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15
Q

Avoid aspirin in kids except on:

A

Kawasaki disease

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16
Q

Ketorolac use:

A

Moderate to severe pain in adults (NSAID)

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17
Q

Sulindac (a NSAID) side effects:

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome and hepatotoxicity

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18
Q

All NSAIDs but aspirin are associated with:

A

Cardiovascular and thrombotic events (such as myocardial infarction and stroke)

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19
Q

Celecoxib side effects and characteristics:

A

COX-2 selective inhibitor
Has less gastrointestinal effects than other NSAIDs

COX1: inhibited by NSAIDs, inhibition causes GI side effects
COX2: inhibited by all; makes prostacyclin in endothelium, inhibition causes hypercoagulation
Both expressed in kidney

Has less anti-platelets action (but might have prothrombotic effects as MI and stroke bc does not inhibit TXA2)
It is a sulfa drug

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20
Q

Treatment for a kid with viral illness:

A

Acetaminophen, ibuprofen… no aspirin

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21
Q

Buspirone effect and mechanism of action:

A

Anxiolytic

Partial agonist of 5HT 1a receptor

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22
Q

Triptans, mechanism and effects:

A

Agonists of 5HT 1d, 1b receptors
Vasoconstrict and reduce acute migraine pain
SE: hypertensive crisis and prinzmetal (beta blockers are also contraindicated in Prinzmetal)

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23
Q

5HT 3 receptor characteristics:

A

Related to emesis
When it activates opens ion channels
Not coupled to a G-prot as other 5HT receptors
‘Vomiting is fast’

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24
Q

To treat an acute episode of gout we use:

A

NSAIDs
Corticoids
Colchicine

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25
Antibiotic of choice for treatment of lung abscesses:
Clindamycin (anaerobic infections above the diaphragm, it is basically a macrolide for anaerobes)
26
Main side effects of thiazides (metolazone):
HyperGLUC: HyperGlycemia, Lipidemia, Uricemia (acute gout) and Calcemia Also hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis, hypothermia and acute kidney injury
27
Main side effects of ACE inhibitors:
Cough Angioedema Hyperkalemia
28
Main side effects of Ca channel blockers (-ipine), verapamil, diltiazem:
Ipines: flushing!!, edema, dizziness, lightheadedness ❤️ Verapamil (and diltiazem): makes CHF worse, AV block!!!, constipation, hyperprolactinemia, gingival hyperplasia
29
Main side effects of beta-blockers:
``` Bradycardia, AV block, heart failure, vasospasm Fatigue, sedation, sleep alterations Impotence Bronchospasm, COPD/ asthma exacerbation Mask hypoglycemia symptoms Contraindicated in prinzmetal ```
30
Name 3 thiazide diuretics:
Hydrochlorothiazide Chlorthalidone Metolazone
31
Side effects of digoxin:
GI: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea Blurry yellow vision Arrhythmia
32
Name two nitrates:
Nitroglycerin | Isosorbide dinitrate
33
Side effects of nitrates:
Hypotension, flushing and headache
34
H1 blocker examples, mechanism and effects:
1st: DiphENhydRAMINE, chlorphENiRAMINE, dimENhydrinate 2nd: Loratadine, Cetirizine, F(S)exofenadine ``` Reversible inhibitors of H1 Decrease allergy (help in motion sickness, sedation) ```
35
Dextromethorphan mechanism and effects:
NMDA antagonist | Dry cough suppressant (decrease CNS excitation)
36
Expectorants examples, mechanism and effects:
Guaifenesin N-acetylcysteine (sulfur donor disrupts disulfide bonds, antidote for acetaminophen) Wet cough suppressants, mucolytics
37
Respiratory alpha-adrenergic agonists examples and effects:
PseudoEPHEDRINE, phenylEPHEDRINE (efe are alpha agonists), xylometazoline, oxymetazoline Vasoconstriction Decrease airway inflammation Fast tachyphylaxis so rebound congestion after day 4. Stop them! SE: hypertension, rebound congestion if used more than 4 days
38
Respiratory beta-adrenergic agonists examples and effects:
fAsT: AlbuTEROL, Terbutaline Slow: SalmeTEROL and formoTEROL Albuterol for Acute, Serial Salmeterol for long term Bronchodilation SE: tachycardia, arrhythmia, tremor, hypokalemia (look at electrolytes) masking of hypoglycemic symptoms
39
Methylxanthines examples, mechanism and effects:
AminoPHYLLINE Inhibit phosphodiesterase Bronchodilation (vasodilation, tachycardia, cardiotoxicity, neurotoxicity, block adenosine action)
40
Inhaled muscarinic blockers examples, mechanism and effects:
TioTROPIUM Competitive blockers of Ach Prevent bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion
41
Respiratory corticosteroids examples, mechanism and effects:
FluticaSOne, budeSOnide, fluniSOlide | Antiinflamatories, exacerbation prevention
42
Cromoglycates examples, mechanism and effects:
CROMolyn, nedoCROMil | Inhibit mast cell degranulation preventing acute asthma attacks
43
Antileukotrienes examples, mechanism and effects:
MonteLUKAST, zileuton Leukotriene receptor blockers Antiinflamatories and aspirin-induced asthma
44
Monoclonal Ab that can be used to treat asthma:
OmaliZUMAB Ab against IgE Ab Last resource in allergic asthma
45
Endothelial receptor antagonists examples and effects:
AmbriSENTAN, boSENTAN Block endothelin receptors!!! Prevents vasoconstriction in pulmonary HT
46
Mechanism of action of Gabapentin:
Prevents seizures by inhibiting presynaptic voltage-gated Ca ch.
47
Mechanism of action of Levetiracetam (keppra), valproate and topiramate:
Levetiracetam: blocks all but Na. Disrupts vesicle fusion in the presynaptic terminal Valproate: blocks all but glutamate Topiramate: blocks all but Ca
48
Metformin mechanism and effects:
Antidiabetic that decreases insulin resistance (renal failure and lactic acidosis -water soluble-)
49
Glitazones examples, mechanism and effects:
PiogliTAZONE | Antidiabetic that decreases insulin resistance (hepatotoxicity, weight gain, heart failure -lipid soluble-)
50
Sulfonylureas examples, mechanism and effects:
First generation: TolbutAMIDE Second generation: GLImepirIDE, GLYburIDE Metglitinides very similar: repaGLIDINE Antidiabetics that activate beta cells to secrete more insulin (renal failure, pancreatic cell death and hypoglycemia)
51
Name 3 examples of rapid acting insulin (1h):
Lispro, aspart and glulisine
52
Name 2 examples of long acting insulin (24h):
Glargine and detemir
53
Alpha-glucosidase examples, mechanism and effects:
Acarbose, miglitol | Antidiabetics that prevent glucose absorption so decrease postpandrial hyperglycemia (diarrhea, bloating)
54
GLP-1/incretin analogs examples, mechanism and effects:
Exenatide, liraglutide | Antidiabetic that activate insulin secretion (pancreatitis, nausea and vomiting)
55
Amylin analogs examples, mechanism and effects:
Pramlintide | Antidiabetic that slows down glucose digestion and makes you feel full
56
DPP4-inhibitors examples, mechanism and effects:
LinaGLIPTIN Antidiabetic that prevent incretin destruction so activate insulin secretion (GI inflammation, increase systemic infections)
57
SGLT2 inhibitors examples and effects:
CanaGLIFOZIN | Increase urinary glucose loss (urinary mycotic infections, hypotension, avoid in renal problems)
58
Methimazole mechanism and side effects:
Inhibits thyroid peroxidase decreasing the amount of thyroid hormone SE: teratogenic (aplasia cutis, esophageal atresia and facial abnormalities) ANCA+ vasculitis agranulocytosis (presents with sore throat and fever)
59
Propylthiouracil mechanism and side effects:
Inhibits thyroid peroxidase decreasing the amount of thyroid hormone Also inhibits 5-deiodinase decreasing conversion of T4 to T3 ``` SE: Less teratogenic but still crosses the placenta: give it on the 1st trimester but then change to methimazole to avoid maternal hepatotoxicity Hepatotoxic! ANCA+ vasculitis Agranulocytosis ```
60
Niacin (B3) mechanism and side effects:
Antagonizes VLDL cholesterol secretion! Increases HDL a lot Decreases FA and VLDL secretion Decreases LDL SE: flushing, pruritus (PGs, give NSAIDs) Hepatotoxicity!! Gout Hyperglycemia
61
Fibrates examples, mechanism and side effects:
``` FenoFIBRATE, gemiFIBRozil Activate PPAR-alpha which increases lipoprotein lipase Decrease VLDL production!!! (~niacin) Decrease triglycerides a lot Increase HDL ``` SE: Muscle toxicity Cholesterol gallstones (inhibit 7alpha hydroxylase)
62
Statins examples, mechanism and side effects:
LovaSTATIN Inhibit HMG-CoA reductase Decrease LDL a lot, reduce coronary events SE: Hepatotoxicity!!! Myalgias and rhabdomyolysis
63
Bile acid resins examples, mechanism and side effects:
CHOlestyramide, COlestipol Prevent intestinal reabsorption of bile acids Decrease LDL SE: Increase TG and VLDL GI discomfort (not in diverticulosis) Prevent absorption of fat soluble substances, ADEK, carful if giving warfarin bc increases it's effect Cholesterol gallstones Satins need to be given 4h apart Also interferes with digoxin, thiazides...
64
Cholesterol absorption blockers examples and side effects:
Ezetimibe Decrease LDL SE: Hepatotoxicity if + statins or niacin Diarrhea
65
Fish oil/omega 3 FA mechanism and effects:
Decrease VLDL and ApoB production | Decrease TG and increase HDL
66
Finasteride mechanism and effects:
Blocks 5-alpha reductase reducing DHT and treating benign prostate hyperplasia and baldness
67
Antiandrogens examples and conditions that they treat:
Finasteride (BPH and baldness) Flutamide (prostate ca. ) Ketoconazole and spironolactone (PCOS)
68
Tamoxifen mechanism and effects:
Antagonist of the estrogen receptor in breast and help ER+ breast ca. 🙂 Partial agonist in bone 🙂 and endometrium 🙁 It is a prodrug metabolized to active endoxifen by P450
69
Spironolactone mechanism and effects:
Aldosterone antagonist, K sparing diuretic useful to treat primary hyperaldosteronism and edema due to cirrhosis or nephrotic sd. (antiandrogen)
70
Estrogen receptor modulators examples and conditions that they treat:
Clomiphene (antagonist in hypothalamus, stimulates ovulation in PCOS) Tamoxifen (antagonist in breast, partial agonist in bone and uterus in ER+ breast ca.) Raloxifene (antagonist in breast and uterus, agonist in bone in osteoporosis)
71
GnRH analogs examples and effects:
``` Leuprolide Agonist pulsatile (infertility) Antagonist continuous (prostate ca. uterine fibroids, precocious puberty) ```
72
Danazol mechanism and effects:
Partial androgen agonist Danazol makes you Danone (hot young man)! Treats endometriosis and hereditary angioedema due to C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency (virilization, acne, edema, decrease HDL, hepatotoxicity)
73
Alpha 1 blockers in reproductive examples and effects:
TamsulOSIN, prazOSIN | Relax m. In bladder and prostate in BPH (hypotension)
74
Drugs that decrease insulin resistance:
Metformin (water soluble) and tazones (fat soluble)
75
Best lipid-lowering drug to reduce LDL:
Statins. They also have cardiovascular benefits | Also ezetimibe
76
Best lipid-lowering drug to increase HDL:
Niacin (B3). But doesn’t decrease the risk of heart events
77
Best lipid-lowering drug to reduce TG:
Fibrates and exercise and weight loss
78
Which lipid-lowering drug can increase TG?
Bile acid resins
79
Adenosine mechanism and effects:
Activates Gi, increases K out of the cells hyper-polarizing Anti-arrhythmic that cardioverts supra-ventricular tachycardia and vasodilates Use for dx in stress test SE: Flushing, hypotension, chest brunt -bronchospasm- atrio-ventricular block Antagonized by methylxanthines
80
Nesiritide and sacubitril mechanism and effects:
Nesiritide: Recombinant BNP Sacubitril: Neprilysin inhibitor (neprilysin breaks down ANP and BNP) Both contribute to INCREASE!!! ANP and BNP in heart failure
81
Selective arterial vasodilators examples, mechanism and effects:
Hydralazine, minoxidil Increase cGMP in smooth arteriolar muscle Acute severe HT, preeclampsia, CHF SE: Lupus-like sd. and ANGINA with hydralazine Reflex tachycardia!!! and FLUID RETENTION!!!→ angina and coronary A disease; because they cause RAAS activation (give with sympatholytics and diuretics in long term use)
82
Beta 1 selective blockers:
Atenolol, bisprolol, esmolol, metoprolol (A to M) Esmolol is very short acting!
83
Beta 1 and 2 non-selective blockers:
Nadolol, propranolol, timolol (N to Z) Pindolol and acebutolol are ISA so they act as beta 1 and 2 partial agonists and therefore cause bronchodilation but are contraindicated in angina (david PINeault hACE mucho) Labetalol and carbendiol are beta 1, beta 2 and ALPHA 1 BLOCKERS so ↓TPR and HR!!!! maintaining SV (CARmen LABa la ropa y bloquea la alpha lavadora). Labetalol for HT in pregnancy
84
Name two examples of macrolide antibiotics:
Erythromycin, azithromycin
85
Which drugs increase the surface expression of LDL receptors so increase LDL reuptake?
Statins
86
Which drugs block HMG-CoA reductase to decrease cholesterol synthesis?
Statins
87
Which drugs activate PPAR-alpha and upregulate LPL?
Fibrates
88
Which lipid-lowering agent increases TG? And why?
Bile acid resins because by blocking cholesterol reabsorption they increased the hepatic production of TG and the release of VLDL in the circulation
89
Mame examples of protease inhibitors:
RitoNAVIR, indiNAVIR, nelfiNAVIR
90
Name examples of quinolone antibiotics:
CiproFLOXACIN NorFLOXACIN Nalidixic acid (first generation)
91
Aromatase inhibitors examples, mechanism and effects:
AnasTROZOLE, exemestane | Decrease estrogen production from androgen and help ER+ breast ca. in postmenopause
92
Cytochrome P450 inducers:
Barb’s funny smoker mom refuses greasy carb shakes: Phenobarbital (barbiturates), phenytoin, hydrocarbons, modafinil, rifampin, griseofulvin, carbamazepine, St. John’s wort ``` Think seizures Alcohol (chronic) Oral contraceptives (estrogens) Nevirapine Smoking (hydrocarbons) ``` You would need to increase the dose of a drug for it to work, contraceptives and warfarin might not work. Prodrugs will become more effective
93
Cytochrome P450 inhibitors:
Gee queen GRACE IS inhibit when eats PI: Gemfibrozil, QUINolones, grapefruit juice, ritoNAVIR (protease inhibitors), AZOLes (and metronidAZOle), cimetidine and omeprazole, eryTHROmycin (macrolides except azithromycin ACE), isoniazid, sulfanilamides, PPis COKE (cimetidine, omeprazole, ketoconazole, eryTHROmycin) + Grapefruit juice + PI (PPis, isoniazid) ``` Alcohol (acute) Amiodarone!!! Chloramphenicol Diltiazem SSRIs (fluvoxamine+!!, fluoxetine-) Cyclosporine Metronidazole TMP-SMX ``` Drugs (statins) will become toxic but prodrugs will become less effective P450 inhibitors that affect methadone: AZOLes, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin and fluvoxamine
94
Drugs metabolized by cytochrome P450:
Think about antiepileptics, theophylline, warfarin, statins (except pravastatin), methadone! benzodiazepines, oral contraceptives, cyclosporin!!! (nephrotoxic) and VITAMIN D (1α,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3)
95
Antiarrhythmics that affect phase 0 and effect:
Class I A (quinidine, procainamide) B (lidocaine) and C (flecainide) They block fast Na ch so decrease the slope of phase 0
96
Antiarrhythmics that affect phase 2 and effect:
Class IV as verapamil and diltiazem. Ca ch blockers
97
Antiarrhythmics that affect phase 3 and effect:
Class III as amiodarone, sotalol and dofetilide. They block K ch
98
Synthetic version of PTH:
Teriparatide You give it in bolus to increase osteoblasts activity and build bone (the contrary than physiological tonic fx).
99
What blocks deiodinase (that releases T3 in tissues)?
High dose propylthiuracil Propranolol Corticosteroids
100
How do vencurONIUM and tubocuraine work?
They are nondepolarizing m. relaxants, competitive inhibitors of Ach receptor that cause an initial fading of the m. response. Can be reversed by AchEi
101
How does succinylcholine work?
It is a depolarizing m. relaxant, AGONIST of Ach receptors that causes an initial stable reduction of the m. response followed by a fading of the response when the receptors get desensitized. It acts fast and is metabolized by cholinesterase fast. Just phase 2 may be reversed by AchEi, in phase 1 they potentiate
102
Treatment of choice for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia:
Adenosine IV (chemical cardioversion)
103
Treatment of choice for ventricular tachyarrhythmias after MI and in digitalis-induced arrhythmias:
Lidocaine, mexiletine and phenytoin (class 1B)
104
Drugs that can induce drug induced lupus:
Hydralazine Isoniazid (slow acetylators with ↓acetyltransferase activity are also at risk of isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy) Procainamide α-Methyldopa ``` anti TNF-α Penicillamine Phenytoin Quinidine Carbamazepine INF-α Diltiazem Minocycline (tetracycline) Chlorpromazine Pyrazinamide Terbinafine Sulfasalazine ``` Presentation: anti-histone Ab, fever, myalgia, arthralgias and serositis (blood, kidney and CNS are normally ok and no butterfly rash)
105
Drugs that reduce mortality in CHF:
``` ACE inhibitors (-pril) ARB (-sartan) Neprilysin inhibitor+ARB (sacubitril+valsartan) Aldo antagonists (-one) Beta blockers (-olol) ```
106
Cause of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura:
ADAMTS13 deficiency (due to autoantibodies)
107
Heparin’s mechanism of action and clinical consequence of it:
Activates antithrombin 3 | In antithrombin 3 deficiency heparin doesn’t increase PTT unless is super high dose
108
Common pharmacological cause of vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency:
Isoniazid treatment for TB
109
Treatment of sickle cell anemia and how does it work?
Hydroxyurea because it increases HbF which is protective for sickle cell anemia
110
Treatment for hairy cell leukemia:
Cladribine (2-CDA), an adenosine deamimase inhibitor that makes adenosine accumulate in neoplastic B cells killing them
111
Treatment for CML:
Imatinib, a tyrosine kinase blocker
112
What do we use Edrophonium for?
For tensilon test in dx. of miastenia gravis. It is a AchE inhibitor but very short acting so we just use it for dx. (improves it but just for a little bit)
113
DA agonists examples and use:
Pramipexole, ropinirole and bromocriptine | Early tto. in Parkinson, can postpone need for levodopa
114
COMT inhibitors examples and use:
EntaCAPONE | Prevent levodopa break down in plasma +-DA in brain (tolcapone) in patients with fast wearing-off
115
MAO-B inhibitors examples and use:
Selegiline | Prevent DA break down in brain
116
Amatidine mechanism and use:
Increases DA release and decreases DA reuptake | Used in Parkinson
117
CNS anticholinergics examples and use:
BenzoTROPine, trihexyphenidyl | In young patients improves tremor and rigidity in Parkinson but not bradykinesia
118
Name 3 examples of K sparing diuretics and their mechanisms of action:
Amiloride and Triamterene (block ENaC in the luminal collecting duct). Also trimethoprim! causing hyperkalemia! EplerenONE, spironolactONE (block Aldo receptors so block Na/K ATPase in the basolateral collecting duct)
119
Treatment for Giardiasis:
Metronidazole
120
Name the 6 possible emesis therapies:
``` 5HT3 anatagonist (graniSETRON) DA antagonist (prOCHLOrperazine) H1 antagonists (diphenhydramZINE) Muscarinic antagonist (SCOPolamine) NK1 antagonist (aprepitant) Cannabinoids (dronaBINOL) ```
121
How do you treat a PCP and amphetamines overdose? Why?
With ammonium chloride because they are weak bases and ammonium chloride acidifies the urine
122
How do you treat an aspirin overdose? Why?
With sodium bicarb. because it is a weak acid and sodium bicarb. alkalinizes the urine
123
How do you treat hepatic encephalopathy? Why?
With lactulose that is converted to lactic acid because amonia is weak base and lactic acid acidifies the stools
124
Name 4 drugs with low therapeutic index:
``` Warning! These Drugs Are Lethal: Warfarin Theophylline Digoxin Antiepileptics Lithium ```
125
What molecules use JAK-STAT pathway:
Prolactin EPO, thrombopoietin, G-CSF GH (somatotropin) Interferons, IL, cytokines
126
Which receptors use Gs proteins?
All betas D1 V2 H2
127
Which receptors use Gi proteins?
``` MAD2; all 2s except beta M2 and Mu opioid receptors Ach2; Alpha2 D2 5-HT1 (helps inhibit anxiety and migraines) ```
128
Which receptors use Gq proteins?
``` All odd numbers except beta; HAVa an MandM H1 (lung smooth muscle Qnstrictor) Alpha1; AT1 V1 (vasoQnstrictor) M1 and M3 (bladder Qnstrictor) ``` Oxytocin, TRH, GnRH GQ Qnstricts the smooth muscle! in other tissues turns on PKC
129
Name selective muscarinic agonists:
Cols and loc | CarbaChOL, bethaneChOL, piLOCarpine and Cevimeline
130
Name muscarinic blockers:
Tropes and scopes (atropine, scopolamine, ipratropium...) plus: Cross BBB: Sexyhexy (trihexyphenidyl), benztropine Selective and no cross BBB: Glycopyrrolate, Hyoscyamine, Propantheline (can be given in MG to counteract the peripheral side effects of neostigmine)
131
Which diuretics can cause ototoxicity?
Loop diuretics: furoSEMIDE, bumetanide
132
Treatment of central diabetes insipidus:
Desmopressin (ADH analog)
133
Treatment of SIAH:
Demeclocycline (tetracycline that is ADH antagonist) | ConiVAPTAN, tolVAPTAN (block V2 receptor)
134
Where does acetazolamide act in the nephron?
At the proximal convoluted tubule
135
Where does mannitol (osmotic diuretic) act in the nephron?
At the proximal tubule and descending loop of Henle
136
Where do loop diuretics (furosemide, bumetanide) act in the nephron?
At the thick ascending loop of Henle
137
Where do thiazides (metolazone) act in the nephron?
At the distal convoluted tube
138
Where do K sparing diuretics (amiloride, triamterene, eplerenone) act in the nephron?
At the collecting duct
139
Glaucoma drugs that decrease intraocular fluid production:
β-blockers (timolol) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (azetazolamide); good for close angle α2 agonists (brimonidine)
140
Glaucoma drugs that increase fluid outflow:
Prostaglandins (latanoprost pgF2) Muscarinic agonists (chols and loc: piLOCarpine, carbaChOL, Cevimeline) Manitol
141
Insulin mechanism of action:
Binds insulin receptors to increase glucose uptake
142
Sulfonylureas and meglitinides mechanism of action:
Inhibit K ch on the beta cell
143
Metformin mechanism of action:
Inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis Decreases methilation around insulin-responsive promoters, stimulate AMPK (a prot kinase)
144
Thiazolidinediones (-tazones) mechanism of action:
Bind enhancer elements at the gene level, activate transcription regulator PPAR-gamma
145
GLP-1 agonists (-tide)
Increase glucose-dependent insulin secretion from the pancreas
146
DPP4 inhibitors (-gliptin) mechanism of action:
Increase endogenous GLP-1 and GIP that increase glucose-dependent insulin secretion
147
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors mechanism of action:
Decrease GI sugar absorption
148
SGLT2 inhibitors (-glifozin) mechanism of action:
Increase renal glucose excretion
149
UTI treatment:
Ciprofloxacin (no if anti-acids) TMP-SMX Nitrofurantoin (1st line in pregnant) Penicillins/cephalosporins (2nd line in pregnant)
150
Presentation and treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome:
Hypertermia, m. rigidity, mental status changes, autonomic instability, myoglobinuria, tremor, tachycardia, hyperreflexia After exposure to antipsychotics as haloperidol and -azines Tto: dantrolene and DA agonists
151
Presentation and treatment of malignant hyperthermia:
Hyperphosphatemia, m. rigidity, myoglobinuria, tachycardia, hypertension, hyperkalemia After exposure to inhalation anesthesia as halothane and succinylcholine Tto: dantrolene
152
Drugs that cause photo-toxicity:
``` SAT For Photo: Sulfonamides Simeprevir Amiodarone!!! Tetracyclines (cyclins) 5-Fluorouracil ```
153
Drugs that cause lactic acidosis:
NRTIs (didanosine, zidovudine) | Metformine
154
What vitamin deficiency is caused by isoniazid?
Pyridoxine (B6)
155
Name 2 first generation antihistamines:
Diphenhydramine (antimuscarinic effects) | Chlorpheniramine
156
Name 3 second generation antihistamines:
LORatadine, desloratadine CETIrizine FExofenadine (sexofenadine) Less anticholinergic effects so good for BPH Less sedation Not good for motion sickness
157
Drugs that cause gingival hyperplasia:
Phenytoin Non-dihydropiridines ❤️ Cyclosporine
158
What muscle relaxant should be used in hepatic and renal impairment?
Atracurium (can cause seizures)
159
D2 receptor BLOCKERS names, use and side effects:
MetoCLORpramide, ProCHLORperazine Act in the area postrema and treat chemotherapy induced vomiting and vomiting due to migraine Prokinetics (good for post-surgical disorders and diabetic gastroparesis but do not give in obstruction) SE: drowsiness, galactorrhea, long QT, extrapyramidal symptoms because of DA blockage (can be prevented by diphenhydramine, an anticholinergic) Can also cause depression and neuroleptic malignant syndrome
160
Sulfa drugs:
Sulfonamide (Ab) Sulfasalazine (Ab) Sulfonylureas ``` Pharm FACT: Probenecid Furosemide Acetazolamide Celecobix Thiazides ```
161
Drugs with disulfiram-like effect:
``` Metronidazole Griseofulvin Cephalosporins (some) Sulfonylureas (1st generation) Procarbazine ```
162
Name 3 direct thrombin inhibitors and their mechanism of action:
Argatroban Dabigatran Bivalirudin Directly block thrombin (factor 2)
163
Heparin mechanism of action:
Activates antithrombin 3 that inhibits a lot of factors form the intrinsic pathway (11, 9, 8, 10, 5, 2)
164
Warfarin mechanism of action:
Inhibits vit K epoxide reductase so vit K cannot gamma-carboxilate factors 10, 9, 7, 2 Also COUmadin (same) and diCOUmarol
165
Drugs that can cause dyslipidemias:
B-blockers Thiazides Quetiapine, clozapine, olanzapine (atypical antipsychotics) fat as a QOO
166
What is the difference in the mechanism of action between zileuton and -lukasts?
Zileuton inhibits lipoxygenase (LOX) and decreases LT formation -Lukasts block LT receptor
167
What keeps open and what closes the ductus arteriosus?
Prostaglandin E1, alprostadil, keeps it open (released by the placenta) Indomethacin closes it
168
Which drugs absorption is affected by chelators? and by PPIs?
``` Chelation by iron or antacids (contain Ca, Mg or aluminium): Tetracyclines (including doxi) Quinolones (floxacines) Levothyroxine Digoxin Phenytoin ``` Decrease stomach acid by PPIs: Azoles Warfarin Also decreasing the stomach acid can increase chelation
169
Drugs that can cause priapism:
Trazodone Hydralazine, prazosin Sildenafil Chlorpromazine
170
Therapeutic uses of prostaglandins:
Misoprostol E1: stomach ulcers Alprostadil E1: maintain ductus/ impotence Mia is the 1st on hEr class! Dinoprostone E2/ carboprost F2: abortion 2 carbon dinosaurs abort (because they have high pressure in the eye and in the lung)! Latanoprost F2: glaucoma Epoprostenol I2/ prostacyclin I2: pulmonary HT
171
Name 3 typical antipsychotics:
Haloperidol and the Zines: Haloperidol, FluphenaZine, Trifluperazine (+extrapyramidal: muscle rigidity) The trio Halo Fluphe and TRIflu makes you hard because they have high potency! ChlorpromaZine, ThioridaZine (+anti: muscarinic, his (sedation), α1 (orthostatism)) Typical have Zs, old last letter
172
Name 4 atypical antipsychotics:
Idones and APines: ``` ClozAPine OlanzAPine QuetiAPine RisPeridone AriPrazole ``` Atypical have Ps. They are D2 and 5HT2A antagonist. They make you depressed
173
Drugs that undergo 0 order kinetics:
Phenytoin Ethanol Aspirin
174
Drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia:
Carbamazepine
175
Drug used on neuropathic pain (postherpetic and diabetic):
Gabapentin
176
Drugs that can cause ginecomastia:
Cimetidine Spironolactone Risperidone Azoles
177
Drugs that increase gallstone risk:
Fibrates Oral contraceptives Ceftriaxone Octreotide
178
Drugs that can cause ototoxicity:
Loops (bumetanide) Cysplatin Aminoglycosides (mycins) Vancomycin
179
Do nitrates affect preload or afterload?
Decrease preload because they are venodilators
180
Drugs that can affect thyroid function:
Lithium Amiodarone Contrast
181
Treatment for heparin overdose:
``` Protamine sulfate (fast) You cannot use FFP bc it contains antithrombin! ```
182
Treatment for warfarin overdose:
Fresh frozen plasma (fast) | Vit K is slow
183
Drugs used for smoking cessation, mechanisms and side effects:
Bupropion: inhibits NE and DA reuptake SE: seizures Varenicline: nicotinic Ach partial agonist SE: nausea, insomnia, nightmares!!!!
184
Metabolic disorder in aspirin toxicity:
Respiratory alkalosis fists Respiratory alkalosis + metabolic acidosis (both CO2 and bicarb low) Combined acidosis
185
Which anti-diabetic drug can cause fluid retention? What are other side effects?
Tazones Cause exacerbation of CHF, osteoporosis and weight gain
186
TCAs examples mechanism, effects and antidote:
ClomipraMINE 🍆 AmitriptylINE Mechanism: block 5HT and NE reuptake Side effects: antimuscarinic (AmitriptylINE most) and alpha block (3Cs: coma, convulsions, cardiotoxicity - because they close the fast Na ch. so tachycardia and increase QT-) ProtriptylINE is the least sedating of all Antidote: Sodium bicarbonate
187
Illnesses treated with antimetabolites antibiotics:
Nocardia: TMP/SMX Pneumocystis: TMP/SMX Toxoplasma: pyrimethamine/sulfadiazine
188
Drugs that can cause SIADH:
``` Can't Concentrate Serum Sodium Carbamazepine Cyclophosphamide SSRIs, TCAs, MAOIs Amphetamines and ecstasy cause hyponatremia Hypothyroidism causes hyponatremia ``` NSAIDs Chlorpropamide (sulfonylurea) Vincristine Vinblastine
189
Drugs that can cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus:
Lithium Demeclocycline (tetracycline) Fluoride Hypercalcemia They affect the collecting duct
190
What antiemetic do you give for a patient taking doxorubicin?
Not ondansetron because causes long QT so you give prochlorperazine (anti D2 good for QT induced nausea too)
191
Bisphosphonates (pamidronate) mechanism of action and side effects:
Inhibit osteoclasts; bind to calcium found in hydroxyapatite ``` SE: Esophagitis (not in Barrets, achalasia...) Jaw osteonecrosis Femoral stress fractures Hypocalcemia ```
192
Drugs that can cause esophagitis:
``` Bisphosphonates NSAIDs Tetracyclines Ferrous sulfate Potassium chloride ```
193
Name main muscarinic effects:
Ach makes you leaky ``` Diarrhea Urination Miosis Bronchospasm Bradycardia Emesis Lacrimation Sweating Salivation ```
194
Treatment of lead poisoning:
Chelation with EDTA, dimercaprol or succimer
195
Treatment for long QT sd:
MNoPQ: | Metoprolol, Nadolol or Propranolol
196
Treatment for cryptococcus? And in meningitis?
Amphotericin B and flucytosine (flucytosine causes bone marrow suppression) Amphotericin B and flucytosine followed by Fluconazole! in meningitis
197
Cardiac effects of digoxin:
Increase ejection fraction. Ca accumulates in sarcoplasm by inhibiting the Na/K ATPase in the muscle cell Decrease HR and conduction thorough the AV node (Afib)! Increases vagal activity by inhibiting the Na/K ATPase in neurons
198
Antimicrobials to avoid in pregnancy and effects:
``` SAFe Children Take Really Good Care Sulfonamides: kernicterus (bind albumin and displace bilirubin so there is more free bilirubin) Aminoglycosides: ear Fluoroquinolones: cartilage Clarithromycin Tetracyclines: teeth and bone Ribavirin Griseofulvin Chloramphenicol: gray baby ``` OK in pregnancy: penicillins, cefalosporins and most macrolides
199
Drugs that can cause gout:
``` Painful Tophi and Feet Need Care: Pyrazinamide Thiazides Furosemide (loop) Niacin Cyclosporine NSAIDs, aspirin ```
200
Drugs that can cause Stevens-Johnson's:
``` Anti-epileptics (lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin: associated with HLA-B1502 in asians) Allopurinol Sulfa drugs Sulindac (a NSAID) Penicillin ```
201
Drugs that target the ADP or P2y12 receptor:
ClopidoGREL->Ticlopidine PrasuGREL TicaGRELor
202
Drugs that target the IIb/IIIa receptor:
Abciximab EptiFIBatide TiroFIBan
203
Drugs that directly target factor Xa; by target factor Xa which reaction so they block?
Rivaroc FondaparinuX They block factor Xa action therefore they block the conversion of PROTHROMBIN (II) to THROMBIN (IIa) but thrombin time is normal! (because thrombin time is measured adding thrombin to plasma and measuring the time to cloth)
204
Drugs that directly target factor 2:
Argatroban Dabigatran Bivalirudin Directly block thrombin (factor 2)
205
Oral thrush treatment mechanisms:
Normal patient: topical nystatin that binds ergosterol and makes holes in the membrane (like amphotericin B) AIDS or pharyngeal infection: azoles that inhibit the fungal cytochrome P450 dependent enzyme 14-alpha-demethylase
206
Macrolides side effects:
MACRO Motility increase (erythromycin, no in obstruction) Arrhythmias (prolong QT) Cholestatic hepatitis (↑↑Alkaline Phosphatase) Rash eOsinophilia Inhibit P450 (clarythromycin and erythromycin) Resistance through Methilation of 23S rRNA
207
Mechanism of action of amphotericin B and nystatin:
Bind ergosterol and make holes in the membrane
208
Mechanism of action of flucytosine:
Cytosine deaminase converts it into 5-fluorouracil so it inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis In cryptococcus with amphotericin B (careful in AIDS because it causes bone marrow suppression)
209
Mechanism of action of the azoles:
Inhibit the fungal Ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting cytochrome P450 dependent enzyme 14-alpha-demethylase
210
Mechanism of action of terbinafine:
Inhibits the fungal Squalene epoxidase so it inhibits Lanosterol synthesis In dermatophytoses!!!
211
Mechanism of action of echinocandins (-fungins)
Inhibit the synthesis of beta-glucan for the cell wall
212
Mechanism of action of griseofulvin:
Interferes with microtubule function disrupting mitosis In superficial infections, deposits in keratin
213
Sings of inhalant intoxication (glue, aerosol cans...)
Apathy, drunken appearance, headaches, parkinsonism, nasal crusting
214
Drugs that act on microtubules:
Mebendazole, bendasoles Griseofulvin Colchicine (also decreases leukotriene B4 formation) Vincristine, vinblastine and paclitaxel (anti ca. phase M)
215
Treatment for a diabetic with history of heart failure and renal failure:
Glimepiride because it has hepatic clearance (second generation sulfonylureas)
216
How do you treat a walking pneumonia?
Macrolides 'throm' (block translocation, macroslides)
217
Treatment for hyperkalemia:
Mild: Na Severe: Ca, Bicarb, Beta-agonists, Insulin+Glucose, Kayexalate, Dialysis (C BIG K Die)
218
What anticonvulsants can you give in pregnancy? | What do you give to prevent eclamptic seizures?
Normal epilepsy, no teratogenic: gabapentin, lamotrigine and levetiracetam (GA LA para LEVEs problemas en el bebe) Eclamptic seizures: Magnesium sulfate (blocks Ach release at the motor endplate)
219
What treatment do you need to give after TIPS?
Lactulose to increase ammonia excretion
220
How do you treat Klebsiella? How is it different from the treatment of other pneumonias?
Cefotaxime 1st line for lobar/walking pneumonia is macroslides (azithromycin/erythromycin) but if it is klebsiella you give 3rd generation cephalosporins
221
Drugs that can cause direct Coombs positive:
Alpha-methyldopa Penicillin Cephalosporins
222
Drugs that can cause pulmonary fibrosis:
``` My Nose Cannot Breathe Bad Air Methotrexate! Nitrofurantoin Carmustine Busulfan Bleomycin! Amiodarone! ```
223
How do you treat tumor lysis sd? How do you prevent it? Which drug is contraindicated?
Treatment: Rasburicase and pegloticase; recombinant urate oxidase that convert uric acid into allantoin that is secreted in the urine (SE: G6PD hemolysis, anaphylaxis!, methemoglobinemia) Add Ca supplementation to prevent hypocalcemia Prevention: Allopurinol and febuxostat; inhibit xanthine oxidase so reduce the conversion of hypoxanthine to uric acid * they do not decrease the amount uric acid that already exists (SE: Steven-Johnson and renal stones) Contraindicated: Probenecib!!! uricosuric agent that blocks the reabsorption of uric acid at the PCT; it is 2nd line for gout but you cannot give it in a patient with tumor lysis sd, history of stones or decreased GFR
224
Methyldopa mechanism and effect:
It converts to alpha-methylNE that is a alpha 2 agonist to treat preexisting HT during pregnancy SE: Coombs + warm hemolysis
225
What do we use glycopyrrolate, hyoscyamine and oxybutinynin for?
They are muscarinic antagonists; Glycopyrrolate: reduces glandular secretions pre-surgery Hyoscyamine: irritable bowel disease Oxybutinynin, tolterodine: urge incontinence
226
Side effects of Lithium:
``` LiTHIUM Low Thyroid Heart (Ebstein) Insipidus, nephrogenic DI and chronic kidney disease Unwanted Movements (ataxia, temor) ``` Thiazides, NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors (-prils) reduce it's clearance TAN! for lithium VAQ! for digoxin
227
Mechanisms of resistance to penicillins, | vancomycin, aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, tetracyclins, linezolid and macrolides:
``` Penicillins: beta-lactamases, mutation of PBP=transpeptidase (MRSA) Vancomycin: D-Ala D-Lac mutation Aminoglycosides: transferases Chloramphenicol: acetyltransferase Tetracyclins: pump Linezolid: point mutation Macrolides: methylation ```
228
Side effects of atypical antipsychotics:
All give all but the more specific side effects are: -apines: metabolic sd Ziprasidone: long QT Clozapine: agranulocytosis seizures and myocarditis Risperidone: hyperprolactinemia
229
How do you treat resistant schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder+suicidal? which are its side effects?
Clozapine | SE: agranulocytosis, seizures and metabolic sd
230
How do you treat deep vein thrombosis in pregnancy?
Low molecular weight heparin (dalteparin, subcutaneous) because they do not cross the placenta
231
Drugs that give you vision changes:
Ethambutol: color blindness (eyethambutol) Digoxin: blurry yellow vision; muscarinic agonist Sildenafil: blue vision; inhibits PDE6 in the retina. Also causes optic disk edema
232
How do you treat hypertension in pregnancy?
``` He Likes My Neonate: Hydralazine (severe HT, preeclampsia) Labetalol Methyldopa Nifedipine (for preexisting, before w. 20) ```
233
Drugs that increase survival in heart failure, decrease remodeling:
ACE inhibitors (prils) ARAs (sartans) Beta-blockers (Bisoprolol, Carvendiol, Metoprolol -Beta blockers Curve Mortalily-) Sacubitril (increases ANP) + valsartan ``` Aldo antagonists (spironolactone, eplerenone) in EF less than 35% Hydralazine + isosorbide dinitrate in African-americans ```
234
Which drug can vasodilate and decrease insulin secretion?
Diazoxide (and minoxidil); opens K channels so it will hyperpolarize the beta pancreatic cell and the arteriolar smooth muscle Can be used to treat severe HT and hypoglycemia (hyperinsulinism)
235
How do you treat meningitis in a neonate?
Cefotaxime for group B strept and E. coli Ampicillin for Listeria * Listeria has PBP with low affinity for cefalosporins, ampi inactivates those PBP
236
Which Ca ch blocker is contraindicated in congestive heart failure?
Verapamil, is the one that causes the biggest reduction in contractility (the most negative inotropic)
237
Which diuretic is contraindicated in crush injury and rhabdomyolysis?
K sparing | Crush injuries lead to rhabdomyolysis causing acute renal failure. All those lead do K overload
238
Which PGs increase uterine tone?
The 2s: PGf2=carboprost. Bronchoconstricts (not is asthma) FGe2=dinoprostone Used in abortion and postpartum hemorrhage (if cannot use oxytocin that is 1st line)
239
Effects of Isoproterenol, Epi+phentolamine, Phenylephrine and Epi+propranolol in insulin release:
Isoproterenol activates Beta 2 so increases insulin Epi+phentolamine (blocks Alpha 2) activates Beta 2 so increases insulin Phenylephrine activates Alpha 2 so decreases insulin Epi+propranolol (blocks Beta 2) activates Alpha 2 so decreases insulin
240
Candida treatment:
``` Thrush: topical nystatin + AIDS/pharyngeal involvement: azoles Esophagitis: azole Diaper rash: topical nystatin Vulvovaginal: topical azole Systemic: ampho B ```
241
Ateplase and streptokinase effect and mechanism of action:
tPa (tissue plasminogen activators), transform PLASMINOGEN into PLASMIN that breaks fibrin! P→P
242
Opioids that can be used to treat diarrhea:
Loperamide (inhibits Ach release from myenteric plexus, also anticholinergic effects decrease secretions) Diphenoxylate (together with hioscina/atropine to avoid abuse)
243
Ticlopidone use, mechanism of action and side effects:
Blocks the ADP P2Y12 receptor (like clopidoGREL and ticaGRELor) Anticoagulant for stents Neutropenia
244
Treatment of ulcerative colitis:
Mild, moderate: rectal/oral MesaLAZINE (SulfasaLAZINE has more side effects) Severe: IV methylprednisone
245
Drugs with antimuscarinic effects:
TCAs (amitriptyline) H1 blockers (1st generation antihistamines as diphenhydramine, chlorpheniramine) Antipsychotics (chlorpromazine) Meperidine (opioid) Cyclobenzaprine (m. relaxant) Quinidine (can increase HR and cause arrhythmia) Amantidine DD. stimulants (methylphenidate, amphetamines, coca, modafinil) will cause symptoms similar to antimuscarinic drugs but with diaphoresis
246
Drugs that can be used to treat urge incontinence:
``` Antimuscarinics; tropes and scopes but newer better drugs are: Oxybutinynin Tolterodine Darifenacin Solifenacin Succinate Trospium Fesoterodine ```
247
How do you treat ETEC (traveller's diarrhea)?
Fluoroquinolones (floxacins) or Macrolides (thro)
248
Opioids groups and examples:
Full agonists: fentanyl, meperidine, codeine, heroin, METHADONE (LONG HALF LIFE to ↓ cravings) PARTIAL agonists= LOWER EFFICACY: BUPRENORPHINE (suboxone is buprenorphine+naloxone withdrawal if take too much or IV for detox) Antagonists: naloxone (for OD, increases pain, less than 1h half life), naltrexone (suppress cravings for alcohol or opiates, CAN take it if drinking, LONG half life) methylnaltrexone (for opioid-induced constipation)
249
How do you treat opioid-induced constipation?
Stoll softener | Methylnaltrexone mu antagonists that doesn't cross the BBB so antagonizes mu just in the intestine
250
Antineoplastics that can cross the BBB:
Nitrosureas (carmustin,lomustin) Procarbazine Capecitadine
251
Drugs that can cause hemorrhagic cystitis:
Cyclophosphamide Ifosfamide Can be prevented with mesna
252
First line treatments for leukemias:
AML: cytarabine (pyrimidine). M3: all-trans retinoic acid Hairy cell: cladridine (purine) CLL: ibrutinib!! CML: imatinib, dasatinib
253
Lyme disease treatment:
Doxycycline (causes teeth discoloration, bone problems, photosensitivity so do not give it in kids) Amoxicillin: first line in younger than 8, pregnant and nursing (cefuroxime can be given because is oral) IV Ceftriaxone if severe or disseminated (if AV block, carditis, arthritis or neuroborreliosis)
254
Main side effects of halothane:
Hepatotoxicity 2-3 days after surgery by P450 transformation to reactive intermediates Malignant hyperthermia Arrhythmias
255
First line treatment for pseudomembranous colitis:
Oral vancomycin (causes altered taste) Fidaxomicin (inhibits RNA polymerase) Metronidazol
256
Drugs that should not be prescribed to older according to Beers criteria:
``` α1 ('zosins') and α2 blockers Anticholinergics, antidepressants, antihistaminics, opioids Benzodiazepines, barbiturates NSAIDs PPIs Antiarrhythmics 1a, 1c and 3 Estrogens ```
257
Drugs that can cause aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis and thrombocytopenia:
Aplastic anemia (no RBCs, no all leukocytes, no platelets): Cloramphenichol, Benzene, NSAIDs, Busulfan, Vinblastine, phenytoin Agranulocytosis (no neutrophils, less than 100): Dapsone, Clozapine, Colchicine, Ganciclovir Aplastic/agranulocytosis: Carbamazepine, propylthiouracil, methimazole Neutropenia (less than 500): Ticlopidone, Aprepitant, Fosaprepitant Thrombocytopenia (no platelets): Heparin, abciximab, valproic acid, vancomycin, linezolid, sulfonamides, indanivir, ganciclovir, furosemide, NSAIDs, quinidine, quinine, gold
258
What are the only α1 blockers that cannot be used to treat hypertension?
TamsuloSin, silodoSin because they are selective α1A selective, α1A are just for the prostate
259
What is phenazopyridine and what is its main side effect?
Urine turns red!! (or orange!) Can look like peeing blood Over the counter urinary analgesic for dysuria in UTIs Red!!!-orange urine discoloration as all the -azo Also happens with rifampin and sulfasalazine
260
DA agonists examples and use:
Pramipexole, ropinirole and bromocriptine | Early tto. in Parkinson, can postpone need for levodopa
261
Drugs contraindicated in bowel obstruction:
Anticholinergics (metoclopramide) Erythromycin Ca ch blockers Senna (bowel stimulant)
262
Drugs that prolong QT (predispose to torsades de pointes):
Some Risky Meds CAn Prolong QT: Sotalol, dofetilide (class 3) Risperidone, haloperidol, ziprasidone (antipsychotics) Macrolides (thros), fluoroquinolones (floxacins) Chloroquine Azoles, Arsenic! Protease inhibitors (-navir) Quinidine, procainamide, dysopiramide (class 1a) flecainide (class 1c) Methadone!! Ranolazine Thiazides, TCAs (amitriptyline), Ondansetron, Cisapride ↓K and ↓Mg
263
Cause and treatment of methemoglobinemia, cyanide and CO poisoning:
Methemoglobin (chocolate): Cause: Nitrites (from nitrates, NO), benzocaine Treatment: Methylene blue, vit C Cyanide (almond): Cause: Nitroprusside, amygdalin, fire, seeds Treatment: Nitrites (make methemoglobin), hydroxocobalamin (binds cyanide directly), Na thiosulfate (supplies sulfur) CO (cherry): Cause: cars, heaters Treatment: O2
264
Define tolerance and cross-tolerance:
Tolerance: as you keep using a drug you need more and more dose Cross-tolerance: same as tolerance but to a different drug than the one you are using but with similar properties (alcohol and benzos, different opioids, methamphetamine and amphetamines)
265
Drugs that can cause ANCA+ vasculitis:
Hydralazine, methimazole and propylthiouracil
266
Allergic reactions caused by drugs and treatment (tto):
ACEi: angioedema; Tto: bradykinin; does not respond to antiHistaminics Ampho B: fever; Tto: NSAIDs/antiHis Vancomycin: red man sd; Tto: antiHis Niacin: flushing and pruritus; Tto: NSAIDs Aspirin, NSAIDs, OPIATES, contrast, vanco, muscle relaxants: IgE INdependent DIRECT mast cell degranulation and histamine release; causes angioedema + urticaria; Tto: Responds to antiHistaminics Penicillin for syphilis: Jarisch Herxheimer endotoxic shock; Tto: monoclonals against IL1, IL6 and TNF-α
267
Which drug is contraindicated in inferior MI?
Nitrates (nitroglycerine)
268
First line treatment for MAC:
Macrolide + ethambutol
269
First line treatment for lepra:
Tuberculoid: dapsone + rifampin Lepromatous: dapsone + rifampin + clofazimine
270
Which drug sudden discontinuation can cause rebound HT? and hypotension?
HT: Clonidine (α2 agonist tto for refractory hypertension), important to taper when discontinuing Hypotension: corticoids
271
Which drugs decrease digoxin clearance?
VAQ: Verapamil, Amiodarone and Quinidine (digoxin blood levels will be high) Loops and thiazides increase digoxin toxicity because they cause hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia also toxic (digoxin blood levels will be normal!) TAN! for lithium VAQ! for digoxin
272
Which drugs, especially in combination, can cause 5-HT sd?
``` SSRIs MAOIs (Selegiline) Buspirone Triptans Ondansetron Linezolid (MAOI propreties) PROCARBAMAZINE (anti cancer with MAOI propreties) Dextromethorphan! Meperidine Ecstasy St john's wort TRAMADOL!! MDMA (amphetamine) Mesna ```
273
Which % of drug concentration at the steady state do I reach after 1, 2 and 3 half lifes?
1 half life: 50% 2 half lifes: 75% 3 half lifes: 87.5%
274
Which antibiotics are contraindicated in myasthenia gravis?
Aminoglycosides ('mycins')
275
Treatment of diabetic gastroparesis:
Metoclopramide
276
How do you treat enterococcus?
Ampicillin + aminoglycosides
277
How do you treat gonorrhea?
Ceftriaxone + macrolide/doxy (because of potential resistance and possible chlamydia coinfection)
278
Mifepristone use and mechanism of action:
Progesterone antagonist used with misoprostol (PGe1 agonist) for abortion
279
How do you treat pneumocystis on an AIDS patient?
Oral TMP-SMX + increase antiretrovirals | If TMP-SMX is contraindicated use IV pentamidine
280
Methotrexate use, mechanism of action and side effects:
Use: rheumatoid arthritis (methotrexate and other DMARD take some time to start working so give prednisone until it becomes effective) Mechanism: inhibits dehydrofolate reductase SE: pulmonary fibrosis!!!!! hepatotoxicity, renal insufficiency, GI ulcers, pancytopenia and alopecia
281
Treatment for rheumatoid arthritis:
Short term: intraarticular corticoids and NSAIDs Disease modifying; take weeks to work but decrease long term deformity: methotrexate, sulfasalazine, hydroxychloroquine, minocycline, TNFα
282
Name two platelet aggregation inhibitors that ↑ cAMP:
They also act as peripheral vasodilators: Cilostazol PDE-3 inhibitor (contraindicated in HF) used in intermittent claudication Dipyridamole used in cardiac stress test
283
Methysergide use, mechanism of action and side effects:
Ergot alkaloid used in migraine or cluster headache prophylaxis because it vasodilates SE: retroperitoneal/retropulmonary fibrosis
284
Pharmacological treatment of irritable bowel disease:
Loperamide
285
Name 2 weird loop diuretics and 2 weird thiazides:
Loop: bumetanide, ethacrynic acid (-mides) Thiazide: metolazone, chlorthalidone, indapamide (-thiazide)
286
6-mercaptopurine use, mechanism of action and side effects:
Used after transplant to prevent rejection! can also be used in Chron, SLE and rheumatoid arthritis Purine analog SE: Hepatitis and cholestasis
287
Describe the mechanisms of action of Phenylephrine, Pseudoephedrine, Phenoxybenzamine, Phentolamine and Diphenhydramine:
Phenylephrine: α1 α2 agonist Pseudoephedrine: α1 and β2 agonist Phenoxybenzamine: irreversible α antagonist Phentolamine: reversible α antagonist Diphenhydramine: 1st generation H1 antagonist with anticholinergic properties
288
Key features of Propofol, Ketamine and Etomidate:
Propofol (GABA agonist): redistributed fast, hypotension, increases TG Ketamine (NMDA antagonist): bronchodilator, analgesic, dissociative, increases cerebral flow, hallucinations, vivid dreams Etomidate (GABA agonist): hemodynamically neutral, inhibits corticoids synthesis so avoid in septic shock and do not use for maintenance
289
Name 6 SSRIs:
Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine Sertraline Paroxetine Citalopram, Escitalopram
290
Name 5 SNRIs:
Venlafaxine, Desvenlafaxine Duloxetine (DM) Milnacipran, Levomilnacipran
291
Name 7 TCAs:
Amitriptyline, Nortriptyline Imipramine, Desmipramine, Clomipramine Doxepin Amoxapine
292
Name 4 MAOIs:
TRA-PE-ZIum TRAnylcypromine PhEnelzine IsocarboxaZId Selegilide (MAO B)
293
Drugs that can cause folate deficiency:
``` Phenytoin Carbamazepine Alcohol 5-FU Methotrexate Trimethoprim ```
294
Pseudomonas treatment:
Think about a MAN dressed as BATMAN on a CAR smoking a PIPE that is driving to his PIME where his coworker is asking what? DIME? but he ends up hitting a TREE that has a FLOWER on it that needs OXIGEN!!! to live carbaPENEms (imipemen, meropenem) PIPEracillin, CARbenicillin, tiCARcillin +BAcTam azTREEonan (monobactam) cefePIME (4th generation), ceftaziDIME (3rd generation) floxacins (fluorquinolones: ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin) mycins!! (aminoglycosides)
295
Which second generation antipsychotic can prolong QT?
Ziprasidone
296
Which diuretic can cause folate deficiency?
Triamterene, because it inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (like methotrexate, trimethoprim and pyrimethamine)
297
Which is the only group of penicillins that is resistant to beta-lactamases?
Anti staph: nafcillin, oxacillin, methicillin (penicillinase-resistant, no need of clavulanic) That is why MRSA resistance is through mutation of PBP
298
Which gout drug needs good renal function to work?
Probenecid, inhibits uric acid reabsorption at the PCT
299
Which illnesses are treated with TNF inhibitors (infliximab, adalimumab, etarnecept)?
Refractory psoriasis Refractory rheumatoid arthritis Chron with fistulas
300
Paliative tto of MM:
Take out a little marrow and give to patient: Thalidomide, lenalidomide (do a pregnancy test before!) or bortezomib (proteasome inhibitor) Then you give the marrow back after reducing tumor load on patient
301
Toxicities associated with ethylene glycol and methanol:
``` Ethylene glycol (antifreeze) → glycolaldehyde: nephrotoxic (renal failure 72h after ingestion) Methanol → formic acid=formaldehyde: ocular damage (blurry snowy vision) ```
302
Hep B treatment:
Tenofovir (disoproxil fumarate) In cirrhosis livelong tto SE: nephrotoxicity and decreased bone density
303
Drugs that can cause acne:
Androgens Epidermal groth factor receptors Lithium Comedones=acne!
304
Which non-depolarizing neuromuscular-blocker can be used in patients with compromised renal function? Why?
Atracurium | Because it is spontaneously inactivated by plasma cholinesterases (Hofmann degradation)
305
Which is the most frequent electrolyte imbalance caused by foscarnet?
Hypocalcemia (can also cause hypophosphatemia, hypomagnesemia and hypokalemia)
306
Which glucocorticoid is a prodrug?
Prednisone | It is a prodrug of prednisolone, needs to be reduced to prednisolone by 11β hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
307
What do we use andexanet alfa for?
Antidote for direct factor Xa inhibitors as rivaroXABAN, apiXABAN and fondaparinuX
308
What do we use idarucizumab for?
Antidote for direct thrombin inhibitors as Dabigatran, Argatroban and Bivalirudin
309
Which drugs decrease lithium clearance?
NAT: Thiazides, NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors (lithium blood levels will be high) because they decrease GFR
310
Imiquimod use and mechanism of action:
Used to treat warts (HPV), superficial basal cell and actinic keratosis (aldara) Activates TLR7 so up regulates NFκB so activates lymphocytes induces apoptosis by inhibiting BCL2 and inhibits angiogenesis by inhibiting fibroblast GF
311
What drug class are doxorubicin and daunorubicin?
Anthracyclines; intercalating agents that also interfere with topoisomerase 2
312
Drugs sequestered by cholestyramine:
Lipid soluble: propranolol, furosemide
313
How do you treat the hemodynamic problems in shock?
DA | Because at high doses is α1 and β1 agonist so it increases BP and CO
314
How do you adjust the dose in obese? Which parameter varies between obese and lean people?
For hydrophilic drugs (aminoglycosides, heparins, anesthetics) do NOT use the total body weight. Use the lean body weight or an adjusted body weight For lipophilic drugs (phenytoin) use total body weight, you can use an initial loading dose to saturate the fat stores Obese people have a higher Vd for lipophilic drugs so the same amount of drug takes longer to reach the plasma
315
Name a BCL2 inhibitor
Venetoclax
316
Mechanism of pseudoallergic response:
IgE INdependent DIRECT mast cell degranulation and histamine release secondary to low potency opioids (morphine and meperidine), aspirin, NSAIDs, vancomycin and radioiodine contrast Same symptoms of type 1 hypersensitivity but no IgE involved, treat with antiHis Vs foods, stings, beta-lactams and sulfonamides that will cause IgE mediated degranulation
317
Which drug can cause skin darkening as a side effects?
Ketokonazole because it blocks desmolase that is needed to make testosterone and cortisol, low cortisol increases ACTH and therefore MSH
318
Main side effects of ganciclovir?
Neutropenia Anemia Thrombocytopenia Ganciclovir is bad for the marrow
319
Which measurement is the best estimate of bioavailability?
The area under the plasma concentration vs time curve To calculate oral bioavailability you should divide the area under the curve of the oral medication by the one for an IV drug
320
What is the treatment if you see acute congestive heart failure/ lung edema?
Loops
321
What can you use to treat the anxiety and agitation of initial alcohol withdrawal?
Chlordiazepoxide, long acting Bz with low addiction potential
322
Which antidepressant is associated with some weight loss?
Fluoxetine
323
Which antidepressant can cause gynecomastia and parkinsonism?
Amoxapine that is a TCA with antidopaminergic action
324
Which antidepressants work the fastest?
SNRIs in 2-3 weeks Venlafaxine, Desvenlafaxine, Duloxetine (DM), Milnacipran, Levomilnacipran
325
What inhibits COX1 and 2 and what effect do they have?
COX1: inhibited by NSAIDs, inhibition causes GI side effects COX2: inhibited by NSAIDs and celecoxib; makes prostacyclin in endothelium so inhibition causes prothrombotic . Actually celecoxib might have more prothrombotic effects as MI and stroke bc does not inhibit TXA2 which is COX1 mediated while NSAIDs inhibit both prostacyclin and TXA2 so their effect is more balanced Both are expressed in the kidney so both are associated with renal impairment
326
Which antibiotic can cause hyperkalemia?
Trimethoprim, it blocks ENaC so do not give with K sparing diuretics
327
Name 2 short acting and 3 long acting benzodiazepines:
Short: TM, you get rid of them in a TiMely manner; TriazOlam, MidazOlam, Oxazepam 'OLAM'. More addictie, do not transform into active metabolites Long: FLUncionan todo el DIA; DIAzepam, ChlorDIAzepoxide, FLUrazepam, transform into active metabolites
328
Mechanism of action of 3 most important contraceptives:
E+progestins: Inhibit GnRH and LH/FSH so prevent 1) ESTROGEN SURGE during follicular phase inhibiting 2) LH SURGE and inhibiting 3) OVULATION (progestins key to block LH surge). The decrease in LH decreases ovarian androgen production! They also increase serum hormone-binding globulin which treats the hyperandrogegism in PCOS Progestins: Thicken cervical mucus impairing sperm penetration Cooper IUD: Chronic inflammatory response impairing sperm migration
329
How do you treat angina ±TIA? How do you anticoagulate in FA with and without risk of embolic stroke RF?
Angina ±TIA and FA without risk: Antiplatelets: Low dose aspirin is 1st line and clopidogrel if contraindicated *In angina you normally add a statin to reduce atherosclerotic plaque formation FA with risk of embolic stroke RF: Antithrombotics: warfarin
330
Which autonomic drug can be used to treat PTST? what is its mechanism of action? Which autonomic drug can be used to treat depression what is its mechanism of action?
PTST: Prazosin; α1 blocker Depression: Mirtazapine; α2 blocker
331
Which autonomic drug can be used to treat orthostatic hypotension what is its mechanism of action?
Midodrine; α1 agonist
332
Which drug is contraindicated in inferior MI?
Nitroglycerin; because it reduces preload so it can reduce CO even more
333
Which antipsychotic is associated with retinal pigmentation? and with corneal deposits?
Chlorpromazine: corneal deposits Thioridazine: retinal deposits Both are low potency typical antipsychotics
334
What do you give for depression+bulimia?
Fluoxetine
335
Which SSRI is contraindicated in pregnant?
Paroxetine
336
How do you treat vomiting due to gastroenteritis?
With 5HT3 receptor antagonists (Ondansetron)
337
How do you treat vomiting due to migraine?
With dopamine antagonists (Metoclopramide)
338
Main pharmacokinetic characteristics of halothane and NO:
Halothane: ↑ potency ↓ MAC ↑ soluble = ↑blood/water coefficient = ↑AV gradient slow NO: ↓ potency ↑ MAC ↓ soluble = ↓blood/water coefficient = ↓AV gradient fast
339
Key features of first and Zero order kinetics:
First: Exponentially increasing part of the curve (first comes first) Dose matters Constant fraction, proportion Zero: Plateau, enzymes are saturated Constant amount
340
Which 4 conditions increase thrombin time?
Fibrinogen absence ↑ fibrin degradation products because they interfere with fibrinogen formation as in DIC OR tPA treatment Direct thrombin inhibitors (Argatroban, Dabigatran and Bivalirudin) Heparin
341
Which type of drug is erythromycin?
A macrolide!!! THRO wins!
342
What is the function of oseltamivir?
Inhibits viral particle release
343
Which type of resistance mechanism should you think about if you see it changes with pH or Na concentration?
Pumps; they use ATP, Na gradients or proton gradients to work
344
What is the treatment of hypertensive emergency?
Nitroprusside (↑cGMP by releasing NO) | Fenoldopam (D1 agonist Gq that vasodilates)
345
Which antiemetic promotes gastric emptying?
Metoclopramide
346
Name 2 first generation sulfonylureas, what is characteristic about them?
Clorpromadide, tolbulamide | Disulfiram-like effect
347
What is the treatment of bartonella?
Macrolides, azithromycin
348
What do you add to the statin if the LDL is still high? and if TG are high?
LDL: Ezetimibe TG: Fibrate
349
What is the treatment protocol of ventricular fibrilation?
Defibrillation→ Epinephrine→ Amiodarone
350
Which inhaled anesthetic causes seizures?
Enflurane epileptogenic
351
Uses of colchicine:
Gout Pericarditis Familial Mediterranean fever
352
Which antidiabetic causes flatulence, diarrhea and elevated transaminases?
Acarbose
353
How do you treat gram + cocci infections in allergic to penicillin?
Macrolides (azithromycin)
354
What type of drug is aripiprazole?
Atypical antipsychotic; it is a D2 partial agonist while the rest are 5HT2 and D2 antagonist
355
Which antineoplastics cause hyperpigmentation? How do you differentiate them in terms of side effects?
Busulfan (cross-links DNA) and bleomycin (free radicals) Both cause pulmonary fibrosis but busulfan causes myelosuppression and bleomycin does not
356
How do you treat endometritis and aspiration pneumonia?
Gentamicin + clindamycin: endometritis Clindamycin: aspiration (it is basically a macrolide for anaerobes)
357
What is the mechanism of action of bacitracin?
Inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis; inhibits translocation of D-ala D-ala from inside to outside the bacterial cell wall
358
What is the treatment for TCAs overdose?
Sodium bicarbonate
359
Which type of inhibitors are the statins and methotrexate?
``` Competitive Increase Km (=Michaelis-Menten constant) ```
360
How can you cause mydriasis but not cycloplegia?
With alpha 1 agonists (NE) Muscarinic antagonists will cause both mydriasis and cycloplegia
361
What is the treatment for cluster headaches?
Acute: O2 or sumatriptan Prophylaxis: verapamil
362
How long do you need to be on ahminoglycosides to get ATN?
7-10 days
363
Which drug can vasodilate and increase HR?
Milrinone; PDE-3 inhibitor that increases cAMP in cardiomyocytes and vascular smooth muscle
364
What is the mechanism of action of isoniazid?
Inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acids
365
Which beta blockers are contraindicated in agina?
Pindolol and acebutolol, they have ISA (intrinsic sympathomimetic activity) so they act as beta-1 partial agonists and will not reduce the myocardial O2 demand
366
What pharmacologic treatment should you give to a patient with ADPKD?
ACE inhibitors because they are renoprotective
367
Which Ca ch blockers is contraindicated in patients with unstable angina or MI?
Nifedipine, because it can exacerbate myocardial ischemia due to reflex tachycardia
368
Side effects of sirolimus and tacrolimus:
Sirolimus: Pancytopenia Insulin resistance Hyperlipidemia Tacrolimus: Neurotoxicity Nephrotoxicity (correct with diltiazem) Increased risk of DM
369
Which beta-blockers are used to treat portal hypertension? why?
Propranolol, timolol (also in glaucoma), nadolol | Because they also block beta-2 which decreases portal blood flow
370
Which is the only symptom of hypoglycemia not blocked by beta-blockers?
Sweating
371
What is the treatment of PCP in patients with sulfa drug allergy?
Pentamidine Atovaquone Dapsone can be given as prophylaxis
372
What is the difference between direct thrombin inhibitors and LMWH?
Direct thrombin inhibitors are oral and inhibit factor Xa directly while LMWH are subcutaneous and inhibit factor Xa indirectly
373
Main SE of INF-α inhibitors
Depression | Flu-like
374
What is the difference in binding 30s between tetracyclines and aminoglycosides?
Tetracyclines bind 30s reversibly | Aminoglycosides irreversibly
375
Which type of drug is primidone?
A barbiturate used to treat seizures and essential tremor
376
Which substrate concentration is the best to measure the amount of enzyme?
The one that leads to Vmax because Vmax is proportional to the amount of enzyme
377
Mechanism of action of Sildenafil:
NO is made in the endothelium but it acts on cGMP on the smooth muscle! Sildenafil acts on the SMOOTH M. vasodilating the deep ARTERY to increase blood flow into the corpora cavernosa! It does not synthesize NO it just increases cGMP!
378
What should be avoided on a patient taking L-dopa/carbidopa?
Vit B6, because it promotes the conversion of L-dopa to dopa in the periphery
379
Define how MAC and fast/ slow onset correlates with solubility of inhaled anesthetics:
↑ Blood/gas = ↑ blood solubility = Slower; as halothane ↑ Oil/gas = ↑ potency = ↓ MAC; as halothane
380
Why are thiazides adjutants of loop diuretics?
They potentiate the effects of loops because they block the reabsorption of all the Na that the loops leave on the tubules, they avoid that all the work to excrete the Na gets overridden downstream
381
Which drugs can be used to treat nephrogenic diabetes insipidus? and SIADH?
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus: Indomethacin Amiloride if is due to Li Thiazides SIADH: Demeclocycline Vaptams
382
Mechanism of action of praziquantel:
↑Ca influx into the sarcoplasm
383
Mechanism of action, indications and main side effects of Daptomycin:
Disrupts cell membranes by creating transmembrane channels via insertion of charged lipid tail in cell membrane → ion flux → rapid DEPOLARIZATION → K+ dependent DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis cease → cell dies Indications: vancomycin-resistant bacterias Do not use in pneumonia because surfactant inactivates it! SE: rhabdomyolysis (monitor CK), peripheral neuropathy and eosinophilic pneumonia
384
Mechanism of action of carfizomib:
Decreases protein degradation by proteosomes and therefore decreases activation of CD8 T cells because less things are presented in MHC1
385
Key feature and main side effects of pyrazinamide:
AntiTB that is activated in acidic pH! therefore it works better inside phagolysosomes SE: hepatotoxicity and gout
386
What causes tardive dyskinesia?
Upregulation of DA receptors after prolonged exposure to DA-blocking agents
387
What is the main mechanism by which dihydropyridine Ca ch blockers improve HF symptoms?
They are vasodilators selective for the ARTERIOLES so they mainly decrease afterload therefore decrease the heart's oxygen demand
388
What is the first line therapy for women with PCOS and hirsutism?
Oral contraceptives
389
Which antibiotics are specific for anaerobes? Which for gram positive?
Anaerobes: Aminoglycosides Clindamycin (above diaphragm; macrolides are for aerobes) Metronidazole (below diaphragm) Gram +: Vancomycin
390
What is the first line treatment for lyme in younger than 8, pregnant and nursing?
Amoxicilin
391
How do you treat spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?
3rd generation cephalosporins (cefoTAXime) because it is normally due to gram negative as E.Coli and Klebsiella
392
Treatment of hypertensive emergency:
``` Fenoldopam Nitroprusside Labetalol (that prevents reflex tachycardia because blocks beta 1, so pick it if you see that the HR went down!) ``` FiNaL
393
What is a possible treatment for acute pulmonary edema?
IV morphine
394
Caffein mechanism of action:
Inhibits adenosine effect so releases DA/NE, the renal adenosine blockage leads to diuresis *Contraindicated in chemical stress test
395
Why Thiazides cause hyponatremia and loops don't?
The pump that is inhibited by loops is in charge of keeping the medullary osmolarity so they generate less driving force to move water out of the urine, it is very hard to reabsorb too much water and become hyponatremic Thiazides do not affect the medullary osmolarity so you can still reabsorb water in the collecting duct while you loose Na so you can get hyponatremic
396
Psoriasis and dermatitis herpetiformis tto:
Psoriasis: Local: vit A, D (calcipotriene), TAR Spread: oral steroids, methotrexate, UVB, PUVA (UVA+psoralen) Refractory: TNF alpha blockers Dermatitis herpetiformis: Dapsone
397
What is the treatment for Kaposi sarcoma?
INF-alpha
398
What does INF-alpha treat?
``` Hairy cell leukemia Kaposi Melanoma Condyloma accuminata Renal cell carcinoma ```
399
Mayor SE of fluorinated inhaled anesthetics:
Increase cerebral blood flow thereby increasing intracranial pressure But they cause a decrease in cerebral metabolic rate
400
What is the advantage of atracurium?
Neither renal or hepatic elimination, it is eliminated by enzymes You should use it in hepatic and renal dysfunction
401
Pharmacodynamic characteristic of aminoglycosides:
Highly charged Low Vd Do not distribute in adipose tissue
402
Mechanism of action of oseltamivir and zanamivir:
Block neuraminidases that promote virus progeny release from host cells; neuraminidase cleave sialic acid
403
What is the preferred first-line drug for African American patients with isolated hypertension?
Chlorthalidone
404
What is the treatment for acute intermittent porphyria? And for porphyria cutanea tarda?
Acute intermittent porphyria: hemin | Porphyria cutanea tarda: hydroxycloroquine
405
Key characteristics of Indinavir, Saquinavir, Atazanavir, Zidobudine, Lamivudine, Tenofovir, Stavudine, Emtricitabine, Efavirenz, Integravir and Enfuvirtide:
Indinavir: kidney stones Saquinavir, Atazanavir: prolong QT NRTIs Zidobudine: ~pregnant, marrow suppression Lamivudine: hep B tto, least toxic Tenofovir: hep B tto, nucleotide, fanconi, GI upset Stavudine: lipodystrophy Emtricitabine: hyperpigmentation of palms and soles NNRTIs are teratogenic and hepatotoxic: Efavirenz: vivid dreams Integravir: high CK Enfuvirtide (gp41): skin reaction Maraviroc (gp120)
406
Which anti-herpes drugs do not require phosphorylation by the viral kinase?
Cidofovir (+probenecid) and foscarnet | Important in HIV infected with HSV, CMV or VZV because they get viruses that become resistant
407
How do you treat Ureaplasma and Mycoplasma?
Macrolides
408
Good drugs for treating DM2 and cause weight loss:
Tides (GLP1 agonists)