Microbiology Flashcards
1
Q
Staphylococcus characteristics:
A
Gram+
Cocci arranged in clusters
Catalase+
2
Q
Streptococcus characteristics:
A
Gram+
Chains or pairs of cocci
Catalase-
3
Q
Lyme disease is caused by:
A
Borrelia burgdorferi
4
Q
Syphilis is caused by:
A
Treponema pallidum
5
Q
Q fever is caused by:
A
Coxiella burnetii
6
Q
Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by:
A
Rickettsia rickettsii (transmitted by ticks)
7
Q
Chlamydiae infection is treated with:
A
Azithromycin or doxycycline (tetracycline for C. pisttaci)
8
Q
Toxoplasmosis is caused by:
A
Toxoplasma gondii
9
Q
Chagas disease is caused by:
A
Trypanosoma cruzi
10
Q
Kaposi sarcoma is caused by:
A
HHV8
11
Q
The most important global cause of infantile gastroenteritis is:
A
Rotavirus
12
Q
Name three symptoms of measles:
A
3C’s
Cough
Coryza (rhinitis)
Conjuntivitis
13
Q
Drugs that inhibit folic acid synthesis (DNA methylation):
A
Sulfonamides (SULFAdiazine)
Trimethoprim
14
Q
Drugs that inhibit DNA tropoisomerases 2 and 4:
A
Fluoroquinolones (ciproFLOXACIN)
15
Q
Antibiotic that damages DNA by making free radicals:
A
Metronidazole
Bleomycin has also this mechanism
16
Q
Antibiotic that inhibits mRNA synthesis (RNA polymerase):
A
Rifampin
17
Q
Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis inhibiting 50s subunit:
A
Macrolides (aziTHROmycin) and Clindamycin: block translocation
Linezolid: blocks initiation
Streptogramims (DalfoPRISTIN, QuinuPRISTIN): block extrusion
Chloramphenicol: blocks peptidyltransferase
18
Q
Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis inhibiting 30s subunit:
A
Aminoglycosides (amikaCIN, gentamiCIN): block 30s binding to Shine Dalgano sequence
Tetracyclines (doxyCYCLINE): block tRNA to bind the ribosome A site
19
Q
Antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking:
A
Penicillins (AmoxiCILIN, piperaCLIN)
Cephalosporins (CEFazolin, CEFtaroline)
Carbapenems (doriPENEM)
Monobactams (aztreonam)
20
Q
Antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis:
A
Glycopeptides (bacitraCIN, vancomyCIN)
21
Q
Cephalosporins with high activity against Pseudomonas:
A
4th generation (cefepime) and 3rd generation (ceftazidime)
22
Q
5th generation cephalosporins (ceftaroline) spectrum:
A
Broad gram-positive and gram-negative including methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus
Does not cover Pseudomonas
23
Q
Antibiotics that treats anaerobic infections above the diaphragm:
A
Clindamycin
24
Q
Antibiotics that treats anaerobic infections below the diaphragm:
A
Metronidazole
25
Treatment of Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus:
Non beta-lactams because mecA decreases PBP affinity for beta lactams
```
Vancomycin
Clindamycin
Linezolid
TMP-SMX
Doxycyclin
```
26
Treatment of Vancomycin-Resistant Enterococci:
Linezolid
| Streptogramins (quinuPRISTIN)
27
Antibiotics to avoid in pregnancy:
```
Sulfonamides
Aminoglycosides
Fluoroquinolones
Clarithromycin
Tetracyclines
Ribavirin (antiviral)
Griseofulvin (antifungal)
Chloramphenicol
```
SAFe Children Take Really Good Care
28
Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococci), characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Group A, beta hemolytic and bacitracin sensitive, hyaluronic acid capsule, Protein M
Diseases: Pharyngitis, scarlet fever and pyoderma/impetigo. Sequelae: Rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis (+ streptozyme test)
Treatment: Beta-lactam or erythromycin
29
Staphylococcus aureus, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Beta hemolytic, yellow, gram + cocci (clusters), catalase and coagulase +
Diseases: Gastroenteritis, endocarditis, abscesses and mastitis, toxic shock, impetigo, pneumonia, surgical infection and osteomyelitis
Treatment: Methicillin or vancomycin and fusidic acid if resistant
30
Streptococcus agalactiae (group B streptococci), characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Group B, beta hemolytic, bacitracin resistant and hydrolyzes hippurate
Diseases: Neonatal septicemia and meningitis, the meningitis starts a few weeks after birth vs Listeria that starts a few days after birth
Treatment: Ampicillin (Listeria) with cefotaxime
31
Streptococcus pneumoniae, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Alpha!! partially hemolytic, gram+, catalase-, encapsulated, lancet-shaped, diplococcus, bile soluble (unable to be cultured in bile) and optochin sensitive
Diseases: Bacterial pneumonia, adult meningitis, otitis media and sinusitis in children
Treatment: Penicillin G, start with macrolides!! for community acquired pneumonia. Vancomycin+-rifampin!! if meningitis
32
Viridians streptococcus, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Alpha hemolytic, bile and optochin resistant, s. sanguinis makes dextrans
Diseases: Dental caries and endocarditis
Treatment: Penicillin G (with aminoglycoside if endocarditis)
33
Enterococcus characteristics:
Gram+
Catalase-
PYR (pyrrolidonyl arylamidase)+
Grows on salt and bile
34
Enterococcus faecalis, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Gram+, group B, bile esculin+, grows in 6.5% salt
Diseases: Urinary, biliary track infections and subacute endocarditis (damaged valve)
Treatment: All strains carry some drug resistance
35
Bacillus characteristics:
Gram+ rods
Spore-forming
Aerobic
36
Bacillus anthracis, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Large gram+ spore-forming rods with poly-D-glutamate capsule
Diseases: Antrax, cutaneous antrax and pulmonary Wool Sorter’s Disease
Treatment: Ciprofloxacin or doxycycline
37
Listeria characteristics:
```
Gram+
Nonspore-forming rods
Facultative intracellular
Tumbling motility!!
Cold growth 🍦
```
38
Mycobacterium characteristics:
Acid fast rods with waxy cell wall
| Obligate aerobes
39
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Auramine-rhodamine staining bacilli, acid fast, aerobic, slow growing on Lowenstein-Jensen, produce niacin and heat sensitive catalase
Diseases: Tuberculosis
Treatment:
First 2 months(isoniazid+rifampin+pyrazinamide)
Next 4 months (isoniazid+rifampin)
+ ethambutol or streptomycin
40
Clostridium characteristics:
Gram+ rod
Spore forming
Anaerobic
41
Neisseria characteristics:
Gram-
Diplococci with flattened sides
Oxidase+
42
Neisseria meningitidis, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Gram-, kidney/bean shape cocci in pairs, large capsule, grows on chocolate agar and ferments maltose
Diseases: Meningitis and meningococcemia
Treatment: Penicillin G or ceftriaxone
43
Neisseria gonorrhoeae, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Gram- diplococci, culture on Thayer-Martin medium
Disease: Gonorrhea
Treatment: Ceftriaxone + macrolide
44
Pseudomonas characteristics:
Gram- rod
MOTILE (twitching motility thanks to type IV pili and flagellum)
Oxidase+, catalase+
Aerobic
Make slime glycocalix (avoids phagocytosis)
Nonfermenting (grows in McConkey agar but doesn’t turn it pink)
45
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Gram- rods, motile, oxidase+, aerobic, non-fermenting, pyocyanin pigment (blue-green), grape-like odor, MOTILE
Diseases: GI track colonization, folliculitis and eye ulcers in normal people. Pneumonia, septicemia, ectyma gangrenosum, malignant otitis externa... on diabetic, burn, neutropenic, chronic granulomatous disease...
Polysaccharide capsule forms biofilm so causes chronic pneumonia in CF!
Treatment: Antipseudomonal penicillin, 3g cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones
46
Legionella characteristics:
Weakly gram-
Requiere cysteine and iron
Water organisms
47
Legionella pneumophila, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Gram- but stain poorly, require cysteine and iron, facultative intracellular
Disease: legionnaires disease (pneumonia, hyponatremia, mental confusion and diarrhea with no bug in GI tract)
Treatment: Levofloxacin + rifampin in immunodeficiency
48
Bordetella characteristics and main illness:
Gram- small rods
Strict aerobes
B. Pertussis: Whooping cough, unvaccinated with lymphocytosis and hypoglycemia
49
Francisella characteristics and main illness:
Gram- small cocobacilli
Facultative intracellular: needs Th1 and gives type 4 hypersensitivity
Zoonotic: 🐇 🦌 🐁 hunters (dermacentor tick)
F. Tularensis: tularemia, black ulcer due to tick bite, lymphadenopathy, atypical pneumonia (skinning rabbit), septicemia, diarrhea form eating undercooked rabbit
Tto: streptomycin (aminoglycosides)
50
Brucella characteristics and main illness:
Gram- rods
Aerobic
Zoonotic: 🐂 🐐 farmers, vets, unpasteurized 🥛 in Mexico
Facultative intracellular
Brucellosis: undulant fever, sweating a lot; can last years
51
Yersinia characteristics and main illness:
Gram- rods
Coagulase positive
Facultative intracellular
Bipolar 🧷 staining
Y. Pestis; Plague: Bubonic (fever, buboes-lymphadenopathies-, conjunctivitis) Pneumonic (hemoptisis, chests pain, dyspnea)
Zoonotic: southwest dessert flea from🐀🐿 and prairie dogs
Y. Enterocolitica: 🐶 mesenteric adenitis +- ileitis (pseudoappendicitis, discarded in CT or sx)
Zoonotic: raw pork, unpasteurized 🥛 in clod climates (Y. enteroCOLDitica), unfiltered water or pet feces
Tto: aminoglycosides
52
Bartonella characteristics and main illness:
Gram- rods + with warthin-starry
Transmission: 🐱 🐶 scratch/bite (in bite you clean and give amoxicillin-clavulanic for pasteurella if stays think bartonella)
B. Henselae: papule+ lymphadenopathy+- fever +- headache. Bacillary angiomatosis in AIDS
Stellate granulosis with central necrosis in lymph nodes
53
Campylobacter characteristics:
Gram-curved rod with polar flagella
| Microaerophilic
54
Campylobacter jejuni, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Gram- curved motile rods (seagull appearance) microaerophic (grows on Campy or Skirrow’s agar)
Disease: self limited enteritis that can lead to guillain-Barré
Treatment: Fluoroquinolones, erythromycin
55
Helicobacter pylori, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Gram- spiral with flagella, microaerophilic, 37deg, oxidase+
Diseases: Chronic gastritis and duodenal ulcers, associated with stomach cancer
Treatment: Omeprazole+amoxicillin+clarithromycin
56
Escherichia characteristics:
Gram- rod, enterobacteriaceae, ferments lactose
57
Toxins that increase cAMP
Cholera
Antrax
E.Coli (M,E)
Pertussis
58
Escherichia coli, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Gram- rod, motile, anaerobic, oxidase-, ferments lactose
Diseases: Urinary tract infection, neonatal septicemia and meningitis, septicemia
Treatment: Depends, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for traveler’s diarrhea, fluoroquinolones for bloody diarrhea with pus and fever
59
Major encapsulated organisms:
Some Killers Have Pretty Nice Capsules:
```
Strep pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae Type b
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Neisseria meningitidis
Cryptococcus neoformans
```
60
Klebsiella characteristics:
Gram- rod, enterobacteriaceae, major capsule
61
Klebsiella pneumoniae, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Gram-, larger capsule, mucous, lactose-fermenting, oxidase-
Diseases: Pneumonia, urinary tract infections, septicemia
Treatment: test antibiotic sensitivity
62
Salmonella characteristics:
Gram- rod (enterobacteriaceae), non-lactose fermenter, flagellated and motile (flagella contributes to hematogenous spread)
63
Salmonella typhi, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Gram- rods, Vi capsule, non-lactose fermenting, produces H2S
Disease: Typhoid fever
Treatment: Ciprofloxacin or ceftriaxone
64
Yersinia characteristics:
Gram- rod, enterobacteriaceae (oxidase-)
65
Enterobacteriaceae characteristics:
Gram- rods
Non-sporing
Ferment glucose
Reduce nitrate to nitrite
66
Enterobacteriaceae bacteria with clinical significance:
Highly pathogenic:
Yersinia
Salmonella
Shigella
```
Facultatively pathogenic:
E. Coli
Klebsiella
Enterobacter
Proteus
Serratia
Citrobacter
```
67
Proteus characteristics:
Gram- rod (enterobacteriaceae), with flagella, non-lactose fermenting, urease+, oxidase -
Alkalinizes the urine! and smells like ammonia
68
Vibrio characteristics:
Gram- curved rod with polar flagella, oxidase+
69
Haemophilus characteristics:
PLEOMORPHIC Gram NEGATIVE COCCOBACILLI!!! that requires growth factors X (hematin) and V (nicotinamide) so grows in chocolate agar or co-culture with S. Aureus
70
Haemophilus influenzae, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Gram- rods, requires factors X and V (chocolate agar)
Diseases: Meningitis in unvaccinated, otitis media, bronchitis, pneumonia, epiglottitis, conjuntivitis
Treatment: Cefotaxime or ceftriaxone for meningitis (rifampin for prophylaxis!!)
71
Treponema characteristics and others of that type:
Spirochetes (spiral, axial filament) poor gram stain (Gram-but very thin to see)
Other spirochetes: Borrelia and Leptospira
72
Treponema pallidum, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Poor gram stain (gram-), thin spirochete, obligate pathogen
Disease: Syphilis
Treatment: Penicillin G
73
Borrelia characteristics:
Large spirochetes, gram- and microaerophilic
74
Borrelia burgdorferi, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Poorly seen in gram stain, spirochete
Disease: Lyme disease
Primary treatment: Doxycycline, amoxicillin or azithromycin, clarithromycin
75
Rickettsia characteristics and diseases:
Obligate intracellular, gram-
```
Rocky Mountain spotted fever (rickettsii; tick; flu like + centripetal rash)
Typhus epidemic (prowazekii; louse) endemic (typhi; flea)
```
76
Chlamydia characteristics:
Obligate intracellular, not seen in gram but you can see iodine or giemsa-staining intraepithelial inclusion bodies, cannot make ATP, cell wall lacks muramic acid
77
Chlamydia trachomatis, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Obligate intracellular, cannot make ATP, found in metabolically active cells, not seen in gram, no muramic acid
Diseases: STD, lymphogranuloma venereum, trachoma
Primary treatment: Doxycycline or azithromycin
78
Mycoplasma characteristics:
Smallest extracellular bacteria, no cell wall, sterols in membrane
79
Mycoplasma pneumoniae, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: extracellular, no cell wall, not seen in gram, requires colesterol in vitro culture! (Eaton agar)
Disease: Pneumonia
Primary treatment: macrolides
80
Gram+ bacteria are stained in:
Purple/blue
81
Gram- bacteria are stained in:
Red/pink
82
Antiphagocytic bacterial components:
Capsule
Pili of Neisseria gonorrhoeae
M-protein of Streptococcus pyogenes
A proteins of Staphylococcus aureus
83
Mechanism of action of both diphtheria toxin and pseudomonas exotoxin A:
Inhibition of protein synthesis trough inactivation of EF2
84
Gram- diplococcus, oxidase+ and does not ferment lactose
Neisseria
85
Gram+ coccus, catalase+ and coagulase-
Staphylococcus saprophyticus (UTI in newly active adolescent women)
86
Gram+ coccus, optochin-resistant and catalase-
Steptococcus viridians (subacute infective endocarditis and caries)
87
The oxidation-reduction requirement of anaerobes is:
Low
88
Filarial worm maturing in the lymphatics and causing elephantiasis
Wucheria bancrofti
89
Carrier of epidemic typhus and Trench Fever
Pediculus humanus
90
Two causative agents of elephantiasis are:
Wuchereria
| Brugia
91
What do reduviid bugs transfer? How does it present?
American trypanosomiasis or Chagas disease
Periorbital edema+ myocarditis+ meningoencephalitis if acute dilation of organs if chronic
92
What do Tsetse flies transfer? How does it present?
African trypanosomiasis or sleeping sickness
Axially lymph node+ fever + flagellated trypomastigotes in blood or CSF
93
HPV 6 and 11 cause and are considered:
Anogenital condyloma acuminatun and laryngeal papillomas
Considered benign
94
HPV 16, 18 and 31 cause and are considered:
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
Considered malignant: most common cause of neoplasia
95
The leading cause of deaths AIDS is:
Pneumonia
96
Viral vaccines types and examples:
Recombinant: HepB and HPV
Killed: Rest In Peace Always (Rabies!!! Influenza, Polio Salk, HepA)
Live not attenuated:
Adenovirus
```
Live attenuated:
All the rest
Ex: MMR
Mumps
Measles or rubeola
Rubella or german measles
Rotavirus only live attenuated given in 👦
```
97
The window period in hepatitis is:
Between the end of the detectable HBsAg and the beginning of antibody to HBsAg
HBc antibody and HBeAg are present (HBcAg is not detectable in plasma)
98
Indicates carrier state in hepatitis:
HBsAg the past 6 months
99
Indicates viral production in hepatitis:
HbeAg
100
Grows in alkaline medium and the isolate is oxidase+
Vibrio cholerae
101
Owl’s eyes are and are caused by:
Basophilic intranuclear inclusions with smaller eosinophilic cytoplasmatic inclusion bodies
Caused by Cytomegalovirus (herpes virus, dsDNA)
102
Bacteria that require cysteine for growth:
Four Sisters Ella of the Cysteine Chapel:
Francisella
Legionella
Brucella
Pasteurella
103
Rheumatic fever occurs only after:
Pharyngitis with Group A streptococcus (s. pyogenes)
- Not after Group C streptococcus
- Not after group A skin infections
104
A key characteristic of Neisseria is that:
Is a facultative intracellular organism often seen within neutrophils
105
Mechanism of toxicity related to gram- bacteria:
EnDotoxin release
106
Achalasia, megacolon or megaureter could be caused by:
Trypanosoma cruzi (Chagas disease)
107
Common bacteria isolated in intraabdominal infections:
Bacteroides fragilis
| Escherichia coli
108
Species that can cause disease with little amount of organisms:
```
Giardia lamblia (1 organism)
Entamoeba histolytica (1 organism)
Shigella (10-200 organisms)
Campylobacter jejuni (500 organisms)
Clostridium perfringens (500 organisms)
```
109
Vibrio cholerae, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Gram-, oxidase+, comma-shaped rod, grows on alkaline but not on acidic media
Disease: cholera
Treatment: fluids, electrolytes and doxycycline/ciprofloxacin
110
Bugs with eXotoxins that inhibit translation or protein synthesis:
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
| Pseudomona aeruginosa
111
Bugs with eXotoxins that increase fluid secretion:
Enterotoxigenic E. coli
Bacillus anthracis
Vibrio cholerae
112
Bugs with eXotoxins that inhibit release of neurotransmitters:
```
Clostridium tetani
Clostridium botulinum (blocks fusion of Ach vesicles to the mb cleaving SNAP-25, synaptobrevin and syntaxin)
```
113
Bugs with eXotoxins that lyse cell membranes:
Clostridium perfringens
Staphylococcus aureus
(both have alpha toxin)
114
Bugs with eXotoxins that are superantigens causing shock:
Staphylococcus aureus
| Streptococcus pyogenes
115
Corynebacterium diphtheriae, characteristics, diseases and treatment:
Characteristics: Gram+ rod, non-motile, unencapsulated, clustered resembling letters, cytoplasmic granules that stain with aniline dyes, cultured on cysteine-tellurite agar
Disease: diphtheria
Treatment: antitoxin (passive immunization), erythromycin, DTP (active immunization)
116
Classic clinical manifestations of congenital rubella:
Congenital cataracts
Sensory-neural deafness
Patent ductus arteriosus, pulmonary stenosis
Blue berry muffin baby
117
Examples of heterophile antibody tests:
Monospot test for Epstein-Bar virus
Weil-Felix test for Rickettsia
VDRL for syphilis
118
A frequent cause of anaerobic lung abscesses is:
Oral bacterial flora (specially in elderly, alcoholic, demetria and depressed cough)
119
Most common cause of self-limited EXTERNAL otitis:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (but it can become malignant and cause osteomyelitis of temporomandibular joint and base of the skull in diabetics)
Otitis media is due to:
S.pneumo
Haemophilus
Moraxella
120
Molluscum contagiosum genome:
DNA, double-stranded, linear, enveloped
121
Poliovirus genome:
RNA, naked, single-stranded positive, part of the picornavirus (PERCH: polio, echo, rhino, coxakie, hep A)
122
Schistosoma haematobium is a risk factor of:
Bladder disease (including cancer)
123
Helicobacter pylori eradication treatment:
Triple therapy:
Amoxicillin (Metronidazole if allergy)
Clarithromycin
PPI
```
Quadruple therapy:
Metronidazole
Tetracycline
Bismuth subsalicylate
PPI
```
124
Gram-, non-lactose fermenting, oxidase+ rod
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
125
Causative agents of congenital infections:
TORCH:
```
Toxoplasmosis
Other (syphilis)
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes simplex virus
```
126
Name 4 bacteria that require cysteine:
Francisella
Legionella
Brucella
Pasteurella
127
Tumbling motility is associated with:
Listeria monocytogenes
128
Lactose fermenting, gram- bacillus that generates jelly sputum, tissue necrosis and abscess formation:
Klebsiella pneumoniae (encapsulated)
129
How can we identity a lactose fermenting bug?
It turns MacConkey agar pink
130
C. tetani’s exotoxin blocks the release of:
GABA and glycine
131
C. botulinum exotoxin blocks the release of:
Ach
132
Pseudomona and diphtheria toxin mechanism:
ADP-ribosilate and inactivate elongation factor 2, so block translation
133
Only DNA viruses that can replicate on the cytoplasm:
Poxviridae (smallpox and molluscum contagiosum)
134
Only RNA virus type that needs the nucleus to replicate:
Orthomyxovirus (influenza)
135
Organism that causes LOBAR pneumonia after aspiration
Klebsiella pneumoniae
136
The presence of cord factor in M. Tuberculosis correlates with:
Virulence
137
Mayor virulence factor and vaccine target for S. Pneumoniae:
Polysaccharide!!!! capsule
138
Laboratory abnormality very specific of legionella in pneumonia:
Hyponatremia
139
Cold agglutinin formation is characteristic of which microorganisms?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
140
What is the most common cause of aseptic meningitis?
Enterovirus
141
Major virulence factor for C. difficile:
Toxin A: enteroroxic—>diarrhea
Toxin B: cytotoxic—>necrosis
They disrupt the actin cytoskeletal structure and intracellular signaling
142
What are the most important pathogens in bacterial meningitis?
Capsules
143
Main transmission of Campylobacter jejuni:
```
Undercooked poultry
Domesticated animals (kennels)
```
144
What difference Staphylococcus aureus form the other staphylococci?
It is coagulase positive and the others (s. epidermidis, s.saprophyticus) are coagulase negative
145
Most frequent cause of meningitis in neonates:
B strep agalactiae (vaginal canal)
E. coli (vaginal canal)
Listeria: crosses the placenta and causes granulomatosis infantiseptica
The meningitis from B strep starts a few weeks after birth vs Listeria that starts a few days after birth
146
Most frequent cause of meningitis in children and teenagers:
N. meningitidis (trough nose)
147
Most frequent cause of meningitis in adults/elderly:
S. pneumoniae
148
Most frequent cause of meningitis in non vaccinated kid:
H. influenza
149
Gram - oxidase + curved rod is:
Campylobacter
150
Gram - oxidase - nonmotile non-lactose fermenter rod is:
Shigella
151
Gram - oxidase - very motile rod that produces H2S gas is:
Salmonella
152
If they tell you gram-negative, oxidase positive nonfermenting bacillus think about:
Other characteristics:
Pseudomona aeruginosa
| Blue-green pigments and grape-like odor
153
If they tell you gram-negative, pleomorphic rod think about:
| Other characteristics:
Haemophilus influenzae
| Requires factors X and V
154
What is the major protection factor of C. difficile?
Ability to form spores when there is high antibiotic concentration
155
Transformation definition:
Uptake of naked DNA from the environment. They will refer to lysate (note that supernatant is just the media, does not contain DNA)
156
Conjugation definition:
Gene transfer from one bacteria to another trough direct cell-to-cell contact, when you see a transfer of a big drug resistance plasmid think conjugation
157
Transduction definition:
Transfer of DNA by a phage vector (bacteriophage)
Generalized: lytic phage, package problem, can't keep his cycle and can't cause productive infection, efficient, different new traits for different bacteria, just ONE phage is able to transduce
Specialized: lysogenic phage, just flanking genes transmitted so less efficient, same traits for different bacteria, all phages are able to trasduce, ABCD'S toxins: group A stept, Botulinum, Cholera, Diphtheria, Shiga, Salmonella O
158
Bacteria that can bind fibrinogen and IgG:
S. aureus
| Because of it’s coagulase activity it binds fibrinogen and because of prot A it binds IgG
159
What fungi is endemic form the east coast?
| Form characteristics:
Blastomyces
Forms broad based budding yeast in tissue. Alone
160
What fungi is endemic from California?
| Form characteristics:
Coccidioidomyces
Archeology, earthquakes
Forms arthroconium in soil and biggest SPHERULES and endoSPORES in tissue
161
What fungi is endemic from Mississippi and Ohio?
| Form characteristics:
Histoplasma
Spelunking (cave exploring): 🐦 🦇 💩
Forms tuberculated macroconidia and microconidia in culture and intracellular narrow based budding yeast inside the macrophages. Histoplasma hides within macrophages, smallest
162
What fungi is endemic from Latin America?
| Form characteristics:
Para-coccidioidomyces
Big thick yeast with multiple buds, Capitain's wheel
163
Name gram + cocci species:
Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Enterococcus
164
Name gram + rod species:
Spore formers N’ CLAM
```
Bacillus
Clostridium
Nocardia
Corynebacterium
Listeria
Actinomyces
Mycobacterium
```
165
Name gram - cocci species:
Neisseria
Moraxella!!!
Veillonella
166
How do I differentiate between bacillus anthracis and clostridium tetani on culture?
Both are gram + spore forming rods
Bacillus is aerobic and clostridium is anaerobic
167
Which organism presents with stormy fermentation in milk media and double zone of hemolysis?
Clostridium perfringens
168
Pathogens associated to colon ca:
```
Clostridium septicum (sepsis)
Steptococcus group D!! Gallolyticus -bovis- (endocarditis)
```
169
How do I differentiate between actinomyces and nocardia on culture? How do I treat them?
Both are gram + branching rods
Actinomyces is anaerobic and nocardia is aerobic and partially stains with acid fast
Actinomyces is treated with penicillin and nocardia with TMP-SMX
170
Thayler Martin (a variant of chocolate agar) is used to culture which organism? Which antibiotics contains?
Neisseria
| It has antibiotics to select neisseria (Very Typically Cultures Neisseria: Vanco, Trimethoprim, Colistin and Nystatin)
171
What do we use to confirm syphilis in the different phases?
Primary: biopsy of the lesion and dark field microscopy, FTA-ABS or MNSTP
Secondary: non-treponemal RPR o VDRL (look for abs that bind to cardiolipin; screening then you do treponemal)
Tertiary: treponemal FTA-ABS or MNSTP
172
Tests that indicate that the ineffective organism has a capsule:
What organism have a capsule?
Quellung reaction (swelling)
Latex particle agglutination
India ink
Think meningitis. Some Killers Have Pretty Nice Big And Elaborated Capsules: Strep. Pneumo, Klebsiella, Haemophilus, Pseudomona, Neisseria meningitidis, Bacillus, Strep. Agalactiae, E. Coli (K1 neonatal disease), Crypto
173
What do we use to diagnose Lyme?
ELISA (a lot of false negatives) then, Western blot
174
Classic clinical manifestations of congenital toxoplasmosis:
1st trimester:
Microcephaly
Intracranial calcifications (periventricular en CMV)
Hydrocephalus
2nd trimester:
Chorioretinitis
Strabismus
175
Chocolate agar is used to culture:
```
Neisseria
Haemophilus influenzae (needs X and V)
```
176
Charcoal yeast extract agar is used to culture:
The one that need cysteine and iron:
Legionella (causes hyponatremia)
Brucella
Francisella
Pasteurella
177
Most common cause of meningitis in unvaccinated children:
Haemophilus influenzae
178
What are common causes of bloody diarrhea outbreak at a day care?
Shigella (leukocytosis)
Others:
EHEC (no leukocytosis because non invasive)
Yersinia enterocolitica (leukocytosis)
179
Surfactant-rich exudate and SILVER-staining cysts in lung biopsy indicates:
Pneumocystis jirovecii
180
Name important urease positive organisms:
```
KiSS PUNCH
Klebsiella
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Proteus
Ureaplasma
Nocardia
Cryptococcus
Helicobacter
```
181
B12 deficiency after eating raw fish:
Diphyllobothirium latum
182
Name examples of lysogenic conversion:
```
CO-BEDS (share beds)
Cholera toxin
O antigen of salmonella
Botulinum toxin
Erythrogenic toxin of S. pyogenes
Diphtheria toxin
Shiga toxin
```
183
Predominant cells in CSF of meningitis depending on the agent:
Bacteria: neutrophils=PNMs
| Virus, fungi or mycobacterium: lymphocytes (fungi and mycobacterium will have low glucose)
184
Bugs that can be used in bioterrorism and how to diagnose:
```
Yersinia pestis: 🧷 bipolar staining
The rest serology
Francisella
Brucella
Bacillus anthracis
Coxiella
Smallpox
```
185
Intracellular organisms:
Obligate: Stay inside when it’s Really CHilly and COld. Hard to grow in the lab
Rickettsia
Chlamydia
Coxiella
```
Facultative: Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY
Salmonella typhi
Neisseria gonorrheae, Nocardia
Brucella
Mycobacterium
LISTERIA
Francisella
LEGIONELLA
Yersinia
```
Toxoplasma
Leishmania
Babesia, plasmodium
Criptococcus
Histoplasma
Require Th1, INFgamma, IL2 (activates CD8) and you make granulomas
186
Which illnesses can be transmitted by dermacentor tick:
Rocky Mountain: rickettsia
Tularemia: francisella!!!
Colorado tick!!! fever: Colorado tick fever virus
187
Pathology and complications associated with Entamoeba histolytica:
Bloody diarrhea with inverted flask-shaped deep ulcers.
Can lead to fulminant colitis and liver abscesses
188
Thiosulfate citrate bile salt sucrose (TCBS) medium is used to culture:
Vibrio
189
Name important oxidase positive bacteria:
```
Pseudomona
Vibrio
Neisseria
Helicobacter
Campylobacter
```
190
Name the three dermatophytic fungi:
Tricophyton: hair, nails, skin
Microsporum: hair, skin (fluorescent)
Epidermophytum: nails, skin
191
Pathology and staining associated with Malassezia furfur:
Tinea versicor: hypopigmented spots
KOH shows🍝 yeast clusters with curved septate hyphae
192
Causative organism and hallmarks of cat scratch disease:
Bartonella henselae
Papule+- lymphadenopathy (biopsy: stellate ⭐️ granulomas) +- bacillary angiomatosis (nodular lesion following blood vessel distribution)
DD. Pasteurella. Pasteurella is due to bites and healed with amoxi-clavulanic
193
Acid fast oocysts in stools indicate:
| How does it cause the symptoms?
Cryptosporidium
Causes diarrhea in AIDS due to intracellular multiplication within intestinal epithelium
194
Which illnesses can be transmitted by the ixodes scapularis tick:
Lyme: borrelia
Babesiosis (spiky fever + maltese cross on RBSs): babesia
Human granulocytic anaplasmosis (flu-like + low leukocytes + low platelets + morulae inside granulocytes): Anaplasma
195
Bugs associated with raw oysters 🦪?
```
Hep A
Vibrio parahaemolyticus (watery diarrhea)
Vibrio vulnificus (watery diarrhea +-septicemia +-cellulitis
```
196
Candida morphology:
At 37deg: germ tubes, germinating hyphae
Also:
Pseudohyphae (constricted at septi)
Oval budding yeasts
True hyphae
197
What antibodies need to be used to detect neonatal infection?
IgM (1st produced) or IgA (mucosa)
IgG crosses the placenta
198
What parasite is associated with liver hydatid cysts?
Echinococcus granulosus
DD. With Entamoeba that causes liver abscess
199
What parasite is associated with pigmented gallstones?
Clonorchis sinensis
| Can evolve to cholangiocarcinoma
200
What parasite is associated with brain cysts?
Taenia solium (neurocysticercosis)
201
Pneumocystis morphology:
Extracellular atypical
| Dx: Cysts in silver (methenamine) staining of the lavage
202
Segmented viruses:
```
ROBA
Reovirus (Rotavirus)
Orthomyxovirus (Influenza)
Bunyavirus (Hantavirus)
Arenavirus (LCMV, Lassa fever)
```
If they are talking about any of those viruses think REASSORTMENT
'Robar en un resort'
203
What parasite is associated with acid-fast oocysts in stools?
Cryptosporidium parvum
204
Bacterial vaccines types and examples:
Conjugated (conjugate the meninges) ->T activation:
Neisseria meningitidis
Strep pneumoniae 13 serotypes 👦
Haemophilus influenza B
Polisaccharide:
Strep pneumoniae 23 serotypes 👴
Toxoid:
DTaP: diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis
205
Heterophile negative mononucleosis:
CMV (can be transmitted by blood transfusion, less risk if irradiated)
Toxoplasmosis
HIV
HVS 6
206
What is the difference between gram + and gram -?
Gram - have an outer membrane covering the peptidoglycan
207
Which bug causes hyponatremia?
Legionella
208
Differential diagnosis of vaginal discharge:
Gardnerella: gray thin and odorous, clue cells, +Whiff, high pH, endogenous→ metronidazole
Trichomona: frothy green-yellow, trophozoite with corkscrew motility, STD→ metronidazole
Candida: cottage cheese, pseudohyphae, germ tubes→, topical or oral azole
209
Differential diagnosis of genital lesions and treatment:
Treponema pallidum, syphilis: painless chancre and painless lymphadenopathy. Micro: corkscrew. Tto: Penicillin 0
Klebsiella granulomatis: granuloma inguinale or donovanosis: painless nodule that ulcerates (beefy red) and can bleed (PSEUDObubon) WITHOUT lymphadenopathy. In Africa. Giemsa, intraCYTOPLASMATIC bipolar ~🧷 staining. Tto: doxy/macrolide 0
Clamydia trachomatis (L): painless ulcers→ tender painful lymphadenopathies that ulcerate (buboes) lymphogranuloma venereum. In Latin America and Africa. Micro: Giemsa, intraCYTOPLASMATIC. Tto: Doxy 1
Haemophilus ducreyi: chancrOID, deep purulent painful ulcers (papule→ pustule→ ulcer→ BLEEDING) with ragged borders, GRAY base and SUPPURATIVE inguinal lymphadenitis. Micro: clumping, school of fish. Tto: ceftriaxone/macrolide 2
HSV2: superficial ITCHY painful vesicles or ulcers w erythematous base (but do not bleed) and tender lymphadenopathy (but not suppurative) ± discharge ± constitutional symptoms (FEVER, malaise). Heal in 10 days. Easier to get AIDS. Micro: intraNUCELAR and multinucleated cells. Tto: acyclovir 2
210
Antibodies against nonstructural protein 1 indicate:
Dengue, transmitted by the Acedes mosquito
211
Where does JC virus remains latent?
In kidney and lymphoid organs
212
Bugs associated with hemochromatosis:
Listeria
Yersinia enterocolitica
Vibrio vulnificus
213
Which drugs can be a RF for oral thrush? How can you prevent it?
Inhaled corticosteroids for asthma
Prevent it by washing the mouth with water after use
214
Which parasites are transmitted by flies and what is their treatment?
Tsetse fly: trypanosoma brucei->suramin, melarsoprol
Sandfly: leishmania->sodium stibogluconate (ampho B for visceral)
Black fly: onchocerca->ivermectin
Deer/horse/mango fly: loa loa->diethylcarbamazine
215
Which are the natural transformers? Bacteria that tend to transfer DNA by transformation:
```
They have at least the enz. RecA for transformation
Think meningitis:
S. Pneumoniae
H. Influenza type B
Neisseria species
Those 3 also have IgA protease
```
Other natural transformers:
Bacillus species
H. Pylori
216
Organisms associated with bites:
Cat/Dog bite: Pasteurella multocida. Treat with amoxiclavulanic
If does not heal:
Human: Eikenella corrodens (Cepha 3rd)
Dog: Capnocytophaga canimorsus (Cepha 3rd)
Cat scratch: Bartonella henselae (azithromycin)
217
Which are the dimorphic yeasts?
```
Body Heat Changes Shape:
Blastomyces
Histoplasma
Coccidioidomyces
Sporothrix
```
Mold in the cold and yeast in the beast (yeast more imp for dx)
218
What can give you chronic meningitis?
M. tuberculosis
Syphilis
Brucella
Fungi
219
How can pseudomonas cause chronic pneumonia even if they are treated?
Polysaccharide capsule forms biofilm so causes chronic pneumonia in CF!
220
How do you treat cestodes (tapeworms) and trematodes (flukes)?
How does it work?
Praziquantel (albendazole for echinococcus)
| Increases permeability of cell mb. to Ca
221
How do you treat menatodes (roundworms)?
| How does it work?
Bendazoles (but ivermectin for onchocerca and diethylcarbamazine for loa loa and wuchereria)
Bind to β-tubulin and inhibit its assembly into microtubules
222
Which bugs need to be cultured in live tissue?
Mycobacterium leprae
| Pneumocystis jirovecii
223
What is the capsule composition of S. pyogenes, S. pneumonia, H. influenza, Pseudomona, B. anthracis and Salmonella?
S. pyogenes: Hyaluronic acid
S. pneumonia: Polysaccharide
H. influenza: Polysaccharide, polyribosylribitol phosphate!!!
Pseudomona: Polysaccharide that can form biofilm
B. anthracis: Polypeptide poly D!!!!-glutamate
Salmonella typhi: Vi
224
Which pathogenic factors get transferred by specialized transduction:
A lysogenic phage transfer flanking DNA; ALSO CALLED LYSOGENIC CONVERSION
```
ABCD'S tOxins:
Group A stept (pyogenes) exotoxins A-C
Botulinum toxin
Cholera toxin
Diphtheria toxin (presence tested by ELEK)
Shiga toxin
Salmonella O antiges
```
225
What is the ELEK test? what does it test?
Presence of diphtheria toxin. If they are crossing lines there is toxin!
Diphtheria toxin is acquired by a lysogenic/temperate phage!!!!
Diphtheria toxin ADP-ribosilates and inactivates elongation factor 2 blocking translation
226
How do you treat community acquired pneumonia in adults?
Macrolides or doxycycline
227
Histological hallmarks of HIV encephalopathy and progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy:
HIV: microglial nodules, multinucleate giant cells, p24+ cells
JC: multifocal non-enhancing lesions, demyelination in white matter, intranuclear inclusions
228
Which bacteria causes lymphocytosis and why?
Bordetella pertussis (produces lymphocytosis promoting factor that prevents lymphocytes to enter the lymph node)
229
What are the different causes of endocarditis?
Acute IV drugs: Staph aureus
Subacute dentist: Strept viridians
Subacute urologist: Enterococci
Subacute prostatic valve or IV drugs: Staph epidermidis
Subacute gram negative: HACEK (Haemophilus, Aggregatibacter, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella)
230
Name all the spirochetes:
Borrelia (the biggest and the only one that can be seen in Giemsa)
Leptospira
Treponema
231
Infections associated with 🐦 and their treatments:
Both cause pneumonia
C. psittaci; tetracycline
Histoplasma; fluconazole
Flaccid paralysis
West Nile
Meningitis in HIV
Cryptococcus (pigeons)
232
Which fungal infection can present as lobar consolidation?
Aspergillus
233
How do hep C and plasmodium enter the cell?
CD81 is used by hep C and plasmodium to enter and infect the cell
234
HACEK examples, presentation and treatment:
```
Haemophilus
Aggregatibacter
Cardiobacterium
Eikenella
Kingella
```
Endocarditis in normal patient with a new murmur; very mild symptoms so hard to dx; they are mouth flora (maybe got it by punching someone on the face)
Two: 3rd cefalosporin
235
Define MIC and MBC:
MIC: minimal inhibitory concentration (color change in test tube)
MBC: minimal bactericidal concentration needed for immunocompromised (bacteria in agar)
236
Name 4 bacteria that secrete IgA protease:
Neisseria meningitidis and gonorrhoeae
Stept pneumo
Haemophilus influenzae
It cleaves IgA at the hinge region
237
How do you get rid of proteins, spores, RNA and lipid bilayer envelopes?
Proteins, naked viruses and spores: autoclave and chlorine-based solutions (such as bleach -sodium hypochlorite-)
RNA and DNA: ionizing Radiation (radiotherapy causes DNA double strand breaks and free radicals)
DNA: aldehydes and iodine
Lipid bilayer envelope, destroy cell membranes: alcohol, heating at 60 deg for 30 min
Other mechanism:
Destroy intracelular constituents: chlorhexidine
Cross-link DNA and proteins: aldehydes
Halogenation of DNA: iodine
Free radicals formation: hydrogen peroxide
238
Which is the most common cause of non-purulent celulitis? and of purulent celulitis?
Non-purulent: Strep pyogenes
| Purulent: Staph aureus
239
Fungi that are budding yeasts:
Candida at 20 deg
Cyptococcus, narrow
Blastomyces, broad
Paracoccidioides
240
Acid fast stains: other names, color of acid-fast positive organism and change of color:
Other names: Kinyoun, Fite and Ziehl-Neelsen
Acid fast organism look pink
Carbon Fuchsin enters the cell at high temperature making all pink, then you go back to normal temperature and add Methylene Blue, acid fast will remain pink and the rest will become blue
241
Which illness is associated with serratia osteomyelitis?
Chronic granulomatous disease
242
Bugs for which the most important mechanism for presentation is molecular mimicry:
Chagas
Lyme
GAS=S. pyogenes (rheumatic fever)
243
Big joint artritis that moves:
Lyme
Rheumatic fever
Gonorrhea
244
Which pneumonias can form and abscesses?
Anaerobes
Staph aureus
Klebsiella
Because they are caused by aspiration abscesses are normally on the lower lobes of the right lung!
245
Main virulence factors of S.pyogenes and S.aureus:
S. pyogenes: Protein M (binds to factor H and prevents opsonization and complement destruction)
S. aureus: Protein A (binds Fc of IgG and prevents opsonization)
246
Bugs that are observed in Giemsa stain:
```
Rickettsia
Chlamydia
Trypanosomes
Plasmodium
Borrelia
Helicobacter
```
RICKy got CHLAMYDIA as he TRIed to PLease the BORred Hot Geisha
247
Genetic causes of genetic shift and drift:
Drift: point mutation; yearly mutations human to human
Shift: genetic reassortment; species to species
248
Define the following mechanisms of viral interaction: Recombination, Phenotypic mixing, Reassortment and Interference
Recombination: gene exchange between two dsDNA viruses with homologous regions
Phenotypic mixing: genes are form one strain and capsid/envelope from another
Reassortment: exchange of whole genome segments, just happens in segmented viruses
Interference: one virus stops another virus that is infecting the same cell
249
What is the characteristic appearance of the chickenpox rash?
dewDROP on a rose petal
250
Peeling erythematous rash resembling a sunburm is characteristic of which infection?
Desquamating rash in toxic shock syndrome
251
Schüffner's dots are characteristic of which malaria species? What are they?
P. vivax (maybe also ovale)
| Schüffner stippling: red granules inside the cytoplasm of big RBCs
252
Main virulence factors of M. tuberculosis
Sulfatides: inhibit phagosome-lysosome fusion. The 1st week of exposure to TB in healthy patient there is intracellular bacteria proliferation
Cord factor=trehalose dimycolate: paralyzes the host cells, induces TNFα release and leads to granulomas. Correlates with virulence.
Tuberculin= surface protein: leads to granulomas
253
DD. salt tolerant gram positive cocci:
Enterococcus
| Staphylococcus
254
Which is the main pathogenic factor of Giardia?
Ventral sucking disk (can be identified because it has a falling leaf motility)
255
Neonatal conjuntivitis causes and timing:
Gonococcal conjuntivitis. In 2 days old. Prevented with erythromycin prophylaxis
Chlamydia conjuntivitis. In 2 weeks old. Chlamydia is calm and goes slow!
256
Where does Parvovirus B19 bind?
P antigen in RBCs also called globoside
257
DD between HSV's gingivomastitis and coxakie's hand foot and mouth disease:
Both have vesicular lesions but HSV involves gums and hard palate and coxakie does not
258
What protects you from influenza virus infection after previous exposure or immunization?
Serum antibodies against hemagglutinin, prevent the virus from entering the host cells
259
Live cycle of plasmodium:
SSant Thomas Medical Group:
```
Sporozoite (enters the body)
Schizont (infect liver and then rupture)
Trophozoite (infects RBCs)
Merozoites (free in blood and cause fever)
Gametocyte (in mosquito)
```
260
What defines viral tissue tropism?
Surface glycoproteins
261
Cause of apendicitis:
E. coli
262
DD for epiglottis, croup and whooping cough:
H. influenza type B: epiglottis, tripod position, inspiratory stridor, thumb sign👍, unvaccinated
Parainfluenza: croup, laryngitis and tracheal edema of the SUBGLOTTIC LARYNX below the vocal folds, barking cough, inspiratory stridor, steeple sign )( unvaccinated
Pertussis: whooping COUGH, inspiratory whoop!!, vomiting, long illness with phases, lymphocytosis, unvaccinated, 3 toxins (Adenylate cyclase, Gi, tracheal)
263
Phase variation:
Method for dealing with rapidly varying ENVIRONMENTS without requiring random mutation. It involves the variation of protein expression within different parts of a bacterial population
264
What is the gram, shape and Os requirement of lactobacillus?
Gram positive! anaerabic rod. The vagina is positive!
265
How do you confirm PCP?
Direct fluorescent antibody test
266
DD of roseola, rubella and measles rashes:
Roseola: maculopapular from trunk to face, postauricular lymphadenopathy
Rubella: maculopapular rash from the head down, postauricular lymphadenopathy, forheimers spots on the soft palate
Measles (rubeola): maculopapular rash from the head down, koplik spots on buccal mucosa
267
What is the only positive marker during window period?
Hep B core antibody
268
Hoe does cryptosporidium cause watery diarrhea?
Multiplies intracellularly, within the intestinal epithelium
269
By which mechanism bacteria exchange multi-drug resistant plasmids? And single drug resistant genes?
Multi drug: transposition
| Single drug: Conjugation, takes longer time and is less efficient
270
Which organism grows on fried egg colonies?
Mycoplasma
271
Which organism grows mucoid gray-white colonies?
Klebsiella
| It also turns 'eosin methylene blue agar' purple because acidifies the medium
272
What do the different HIV genes encode for?
gag: p24 (inner capsid membrane, dx) and p17 (outer membrane)
pol: reverse transcriptase, integrase, protease
env: envelop made of gp160 that divides into gp120 (antigenic variation, attaches, maraviroc) and gp41 (fusion, enfuvirtide)
tat: transcription! regulatory protein, to initiate HIV transcription
rev: transport! regulatory protein that allows virus to progress
nef: decreases CD4s and MHCI
273
Which animals are the natural reservoir for lyme?
Mice (larvae) and deer (adult)
The white-footed mouse is the host of Ixodes tick larvae and the white-tailed deer is the obligatory host of adult Ixodes ticks
274
What is the main difference in presentation of hepatitis B in adults vs neonates?
Transaminases do not go up a lot in babies because they do not have a lot of CD8+ that are the ones that cause the cell damage, they also do not have symptoms for the same reason but the hepatitis very frequently becomes chronic
275
How do you get resistance to aminoglycosides?
By enzymes transferases that inactivate the antibiotic via phosphorylation, acetylation, or adenylation
276
How do you differentiate between gonococcal and chlamydial conjunctivitis?
Gonococcal conjunctivitis: baby is 2 days old. Prophylaxis: erythromycin drops
Chlamydia conjunctivitis: baby is 1-2 weeks old, watery discharge. Tto: oral erythromycin
277
What is used to diagnose strep on a patient that comes with pharyngitis?
Swab immunoassay for strep group A antigens!
278
Which are the only 3 DNA and the 3 RNA viruses with circular genomes?
DNA: Papilloma, Polyoma and Hepadna (gets envelope form RER)
RNA: BAD; Bunya, Arena, Delta
279
Why MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) need to be a live vaccine
They form syncitia, you need a vigorous cell mediated response to kill them
