Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What do you need to remember about naloxone?

A

1/2 life only minutes (may need infusion/repeat doses)
Pt will go crazy (security?)
Pt will be in pain
Lowers pt seizure threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is amiodarone?

A
Class II anti-arrhythmic
K+ channel blocker
Used in chemical cardioversion
Prolong QT interval
Inhibits hepatic enzymes (be careful if used with digoxin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is flecainide?

A

Na+ channel blocker

Class I C anti-arrhythmic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is sotalol?

A

Non cardio-selective ß-blocker
Class III anti-arrhythmic (rhythm control)
Prolongs QT interval
Renally excreted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is verapamil?

A
Non-dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blocker
Class IV anti-arrhythmic
Hepatic metabolism
Can cause AV block
Rate limiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What receptors does noradrenaline work on?

A

+++ alpha-1
+++ alpha-2
+ ß1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What receptors does adrenaline work on?

A

+++ alpha-1
++ alpha-2
+++ ß1
++ ß2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What receptors does dopamine work on?

A
\++ alpha-1
\+ alpha-2
\++ ß1
\+++ ß2
\+++ DA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What receptors does dobutamine work on?

A

+ alpha-1
+++ ß1
+ ß2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What receptors does isoproterenol work on?

A

++ ß1

++ ß2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why is verapamil and bisoprolol a bad combination?

A

Verapamil causes AV block

Combined with ß-blocker-> bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is ciprofloxacin?

A
A quinolone Abx
Broad spectrum (gram+ and -)
Gram -ve sepsis, skin, UTI, resp
Can be used in penicillin allergy (instead of tazocin)
SE: thrush, D&V, MRSA promotion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Issues with metformin in an acute patient?

A
Can potentiate hypoglycaemia
Raises lactate (confuses clinical picture)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Warfarin and diclofenac co-prescription is bad because:

A

Both highly protein bound, compete with eachother, more free drug
Diclofenac also causes gastritis, warfarin can cause bleeding-> GI bleeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What drugs should not be combined in someone with renal issues?

A

NSAIDs, ACEi and betablockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Causes of poor pain relief

A
  • Inadequate assessment
  • Poor choice of analgesic
  • Incorrect dose
  • Wrong frequency (24hr clock)
  • Wrong mode of delivery (eg orally in a pt with an ileus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the 1st step in the WHO analgesia ladder?

A

Paracetamol

NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the 2nd step in the WHO analgesia ladder?

A

Weak opioid (codeine)
Paracetamol
NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the 3rd step in the WHO analgesia ladder?

A

Strong opioid
Paracetamol
NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the 4th step in the WHO analgesia ladder?

A

Nerve block
Epidurals
PCA pump
Spinal stimulators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the proper name for paracetamol?

A

Acetaminophen

22
Q

Dose of paracetamol

A

1g/6hrly in adults >50kg
60mg/kg/day max if <50kg
90mg/kg/day max in children

23
Q

SE of NSAIDs

A

COX-2 SE-> platelet function (increases risk of bleeding), gut mucosal damage (peptic ulceration), renal impairment, bronchospasm.

24
Q

Contraindications of NSAIDs

A

Allergy, asthma, GI upset, coagulopathy, renal impairment, CVS disease

25
Why is effect of codeine variable?
Metabolism varies between individuals with codeine via CYP2D6. Oral only. Synergism with paracetamol.
26
What opioid is best in renal failure
Fentanyl (doesn't accumulate)
27
Which opioid is best in obstetrics
Pethidine
28
Which opioid is better tolerated that codeine?
Oxycodone
29
SE of opioids
n&v, bradycardia, pruritis, constipation, dizziness, sedation, hallucinations, respiratory depression, tolerance/dependence/addiction.
30
What is a PCA?
Patient controlled anaesthesia Syringe driver with button (locks off for 5 mins) Fentanyl/oxycodone/morphine
31
Contraindications to local anaesthetics
Patients refusal, shock, sepsis, coagulopathy, neuro disease
32
What are other meds used for pain relief
Amitriptyline & gabapentin for neuropathic pain Ketamine Clonidine Entonox (for procedures, rapid)
33
Contraindications to entonox
Pneumothorax Bowel obstruction Air embolus
34
Define MRSA
Meticillin, flucloxicillin resistant staph aureus | De-colonisation treatment is given to eradicate is esp pre operatively, if admitted to a ward, in susceptible patients.
35
What predisposes someone to C.diff?
* Broad spectrum/cephalosporin antibiotic use * Bowel surgery * PPI use * Malnutrition * TPN
36
Treatment of C.diff
Metronidazole | Complicated: Vancomycin/fidaxomycin orally for 14 days
37
Complications of C.diff
Can develop into toxic megacolon/pseudomembranous colitis
38
What antibiotics should be avoided in 1st trimester of pregnancy?
Co-trimoxazole, trimethoprim, rifampicin Tetracyclines Quinolones
39
What abx should be avoided in 2nd and 3rd trimester of pregnancy?
chloramphenicol, co-trimoxazole, nitrofurantoin, rifampicin Tetracyclines Quinolones
40
How much Na is required per day?
1-2mmol/kg/day
41
When would a fit person die with water and no food?
60 days
42
What should be taken into consideration when prescribing maintenance fluid?
* Age * Weight * Co-morbidity, eg heart failure * Clinical situation (well/ill) * Medications * Anticipated ‘nil by mouth’ period
43
How much potassium is needed per day?
0.7-1mmol/kg/day
44
How many calories are needed per day (baseline)
25kCal/kg/day
45
How much chloride is needed?
Same at sodium | 1-2mmol/kg/day
46
What fluid is used to treat hypoglycaemia in diabetes?
20% dextrose + insulin
47
When is fluid loss 'pure water'?
Fever, dehydration, hyperventilation
48
What do you become deficient in with vomiting and NG tube loss?
Chloride Potassium H+ = metabolic alkalosis
49
What do you become deficient in with biliary drainage loss
Na+ K+ Cl- HCO3-
50
What do you become deficient in with inappropriate urinary loss
K+ H+ (variable)
51
Diarrhoea loss?
Na+ K+ HCO3-
52
When should fluids be given in a pt with ileus?
1L every 12hrs through 3rd space losses if you have a paralytic ileus. Cautious about reintroduction of fluids, due to pooling of fluid, vomiting and aspiration. 24-48hrs after, wait for bowels to open.