Pharmacology Flashcards
1
Q
What is the equation for volume of distribution?
A
V(d) = amount of drug in the body/ plasma drug concentration
2
Q
What is the formula for clearance?
A
CL= rate of elimination of drug/ plasma drug concentration = Vd X K(e)
3
Q
What is the formula for half life?
A
half life= (0.7 X Vd) / Clearance
4
Q
What is the formula for loading dose?
A
loading dose = (target plasma concetration X Volume of distribution) / bioavailability
5
Q
What is the formula for maintenance dose?
A
maintenance dose = (target plasma concentration X clearance) / bioavailability
6
Q
What is the formula for therapeutic index?
A
TI= median lethal dose/ median effective dose
7
Q
What are the effects of the alpha 1 receptor?
A
increase vascular smooth muscle contraction, increase pupillary dilator muscle contraction (mydriasis), increase intestinal and bladder sphincter muscle contraction
8
Q
What are the effects of the alpha 2 receptor?
A
decrease sympathetic outflow, decrease insulin release
9
Q
What are the effects of the beta 1 receptor?
A
increase heart rate, increase contractility, increase renin release, increase lipolysis
10
Q
What are the effects of the beta 2 receptor?
A
vasodilation, bronchodilation, increase heart rate, increase contractility, increase lipolysis, increase insulin release, decrease uterine tone
11
Q
What are the effects of the M1 receptor?
A
CNS, enteric nervous system
12
Q
What are the effects of the M2 receptor?
A
decrease heart rate and contractility of the atria
13
Q
What are the effects of the M3 receptor?
A
increase exocrine gland secretions, increase gut peristalsis, increase bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction, increase pupillary sphincter muscle contraction (miosis), ciliary muscle contraction (accommodation)
14
Q
What are the effects of the D1 receptor?
A
relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle
15
Q
What are the effects of the D2 receptor?
A
modulatees transmitter release, esp in the brain
16
Q
What are the effects of the H1 receptor?
A
increases nasal and bronchial mucus production, contraction of the bronchioles, pruritus, and pain
17
Q
What are the effects of the H2 receptor?
A
increase gastric acid secretion
18
Q
What are the effects of the V1 receptor?
A
increase vascular smooth muscle contraction
19
Q
What are the effects of the V2 receptor?
A
increase H20 permeability and reabsorption in the collecting tubules of the kidney
20
Q
bethanoechol
A
cholinomimetic agent (direct agonist) use: postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention --> activates bowel and bladder smooth muscle
21
Q
carbachol
A
cholinomimetic agent (direct agonist) use: glaucoma, pupillary contraction, and relief of IOP
22
Q
pilocarpine
A
cholinomimetic agent (direct agonist) use: potent stimulator of sweat, tears, saliva
23
Q
methacholine
A
cholinomimetic agent (direct agonist) use: challenge test for dx of asthma (stimulates muscarinic receptors in airway causing bronchoconstriction)
24
Q
neostigmine
A
anticholinesterase
use: postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention, myasthenia gravis, reversal of neuromuscular junction blockade (postoperative)
25
pyridostigmine
anticholinesterase
| use: myasthenia gravis (long acting), does not penetrate CNS
26
edrophonium
anticholinesterase
| use: dx of myasthenia gravis ( extremely short acting)
27
physostigmine
anticholinesterase
| use: glaucoma (crosses bbb --> cns) and atropine overdose
28
echothiophate
anticholinesterase
| use: glaucoma
29
What are the symptoms of cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning?
often due to organophosphates, such as parathion, that irreversibly inhibit AchE
causes diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, excitation of skeletal muscle and CNS, lacrimation, sweating, and salivation
antidote- atropine + pralidoxime (regenerates active AchE)
30
atropine
muscarinic antagonist
| affects the eye- produces mydraisis and cycloplegia
31
homatropine
muscarinic antagonist
| affects the eye- produces mydriasis and cycloplegia
32
tropicamide
muscarinic antagonist
| affects the eye- produce mydriasis and cycloplegia
33
benzotropine
muscarinic antagonist
affects CNS
use: parkinson's disease to reduce adverse effects of antipsychotics (ie tremor)
34
scopolamine
muscarinic antagonist
affects CNS
use: motion sickness
35
ipratropium
muscarinic antagonist
affects respiratory
use: asthma, COPD
36
oxybutynin
muscarinic antagonist
| affects genitourinary, reduce urgency in mild cystitis and reduce bladder spasms
37
glycopyrrolate
muscarinic antagonist
| affects genitourinary, reduce urgency in mild cystitis and reduce bladder spasms
38
methscopolamine
muscarinic antagonist
| affects GI system, used for peptic ucler tx
39
pirenzepine
muscarinic antagonist
| affects GI system, used for peptic ucler tx
40
propantheline
muscarinic antagonist
| affects GI system, used for peptic ucler tx
41
What are the effects of atropine?
increase pupil dilation, cycloplegia
| decrease secretion, acid secretion, gut motility, urgency in cystitis
42
hexamethonium
nicotinic antagonist
use: ganglionic blocker, used to prevent vagal reflex responses to changes in BP, ie prevents reflex bradycardia caused by NE
toxicity: severe orthostatic hypotension, blurred visions, constipation, sexual dysfunction
43
epinephrine
alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1, beta 2
| app: anaphylaxis, glaucoma, asthma, hypotension
44
NE
alpha 1, alpha 2 > beta 1
| use: hypotension (but decreased renal perfusion)
45
isoproterenol
B1= B2
| use: AV block (rare)
46
dopamine
D1 = D2 > beta > alpha, inotropic and chronotropic
use: shock (increase renal perfusion), heart failure
47
dobutamine
beta 1 > beta 2, inotropic but not chronotropic
| use: heart failure, cardiac stress testing
48
phenylephrine
alpha 1 > alpha 2
| use: pupillary dilation, vasoconstriction, nasal decongestion
49
metaproterenol, albuterol, salmeterol, terbutaline
selective beta 2- agonists
use: MAST
Metaproterenol and Albuterol for acute asthma
Salmeterol for long-term treatment
Terbutaline to reduce premature uterine contractions
50
ritodrine
beta 2
| use: reduces premature uterine contractions
51
ephedrine
indirect general agonist, releases stored catecholamines
| use: nasal decongestion, urinary incontinence, hypotension
52
clonidine, alpha- methyldopa
centrally acting alpha2-agonists, decreased central adrenergic outflow
used for hypertension, especially with renal disease (no decrease in blood flow to kidney)
53
phenoxybenzamine
irreversible alpha blocker
used: pheochromocytoma (use it before removing tumor, since high levels of released catecholamines will not be able to overcome blockage)
toxicity: orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia
54
phentalamine
reversible alpha-blocker
used: pheochromocytoma (use it before removing tumor, since high levels of released catecholamines will not be able to overcome blockage)
toxicity: orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia
55
prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin
alpha 1 selective
use: hypertension, urinary retension in BPH
use: 1st dose orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, headache
56
mirtazapine
alpha 2 selective
use: depression
toxicity: sedation, increase serum cholesterol, increase appetite
57
nonselective beta antagonists
propranolol, timolol, nadolol, pindolol
58
beta-1 selective antagonist
acebutolol (partial), betaxolol, esmolol (short acting), atenolol, metoprolol
59
nonselective alpha and beta antagonist
carvedilol, labetalol
60
partial beta agonist
pindolol, acebutolol
61
antidote for acetaminophen
N-acetylcysteine
62
antidote for salicylates
NaHCO3 (alkalinize urine), dialysis
63
antidote for amphetamines (basic)
NH4Cl (acidify urine)
64
antidote for acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, organophosphates
atropine, pralidoxime
65
antidote for antimuscarinic, anticholinergic agents
physostigmine salicylate
66
antidote for beta blockers
glucagon
67
antidote for digitalis
stop dig, normalize K+, lidocaine, anti-dig Fab fragments, Mg2+
68
antidote for iron
deferoxamine
69
antidote for lead
CaEDTA, dimercaprol, succimer, pinacillamine
70
antidote for mercury, arsenic, gold
dimercaprol (BAL), succimer
71
antidote for copper, arsenic, gold
penicillamine
72
antidote for cyanide
nitrite, hydrocobalamin, thiosulfate
73
antidote for methemoglobin
methylene blue, vitamin C
74
antidote for carbon monoxide
100 O2%, hyperbaric O2
75
antidote for methanol, ethylene glycol (antifreeze)
ethanol, dialysis, fomepizole
76
antidote for opioids
naloxone, naltrexone
77
antidote for benzodiazepines
flumazenil
78
antidote for TCAs
NaHCO3 (plasma alkalinization)
79
antidote for heparin
protamine (antagonist)
80
antidote for warfarin
vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma
81
antidote for tPA, streptokinase
aminocaproic acid (analogue of lysine, so inhibitor of enzymes that bind lysine)
82
antidote for theophylline
beta blocker
83
Which drug causes atropine-like side effects?
TCAs
84
Which drug causes coronary vasospasm?
cocaine, sumatriptan
85
Which drug causes cutaneous flushing?
VANC: vancomycin, adenosine, niacin, Ca2+ channel blokers
86
Which drug causes dilated cardiomyopathy?
doxorubicin, daunorubicin
87
Which drug causes torsades de pointes?
class III (sotalol), class IA (quinidine) antirrhythmics
88
Which drug causes agranulocytosis?
clozapine, carbamazepine, clchicine, propylthiouracil, methimazole, dapsone
89
Which drug causes aplastic anemia?
chloramphenicol, benzene, NSAIDS, propylthiouracil, methimazole
90
Which drug causes a direct Cooms-positive hemolytic anemia?
methyldopa
91
Which drug causes gray baby syndrome?
chloramphenicol
92
Which drug causes hemolysis in G6PD- deficient patients?
Isoniazid (INH), sulfonamides, primaquine, aspirin, ibuprofen, nitrofurantoin (hemolysis IS PAIN)
93
Which drug causes megaloblastic anemia?
phenytoin, methotrexate, sulfa drugs
94
Which drug causes thrombotic complications?
OCPs
95
Which drug causes cough?
ACE inhibitors
96
Which drug causes pulmonary fibrosis
bleomycin, amiodarone, busulfan (its ahrd to BLAB when you have fibrosis)
97
Which drug causes acute cholestatic hepatitis?
macrolides
98
Which drug causes focal to massive hepatic necrosis?
halothane, valproic acid, acetaminophen, Aminita phalloides
99
Which drug causes hepatitis?
INH
100
Which drug causes pseduomembranous colitis?
clindamycin, ampicillin
101
Which drug causes adrenocortical insufficiency?
glucocorticoid withdrawal (HPA suppression)
102
Which drug causes gynecomastia?
spironolactone, digitalis, cimetidine, chronic alcohol use, estrogens ketoconazole
103
Which drug causes hot flashes?
tamoxifen, clomiphene
104
Which drug causes hypothyroidism?
lithium, amiodarone
105
Which drug causes gingival hyperplasia?
phenytoin
106
Which drug causes gout?
furosemide, thiazides
107
Which drug causes osteoporosis?
corticosteroids, heparin
108
Which drug causes photosensitivity?
sulfonamides, amiodarone, tetracycline (SAT for a photo)
109
Which drug causes rash (stevens-johnson syndrome)
ethosuximide, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, sulfa drugs, penicillin, allopurinol
110
Which drug causes SLE-like syndrome?
hydralazine, INH, procainamide, phenytoin
111
Which drug causes tendonitis, tendon rupture and cartilage damage?
fluoroquinolones
112
Which drug causes Fanconi's syndrome?
expired tetracycline
113
Which drug causes interstitial nephritis?
methicillin, NSAIDs, furosemide
114
Which drug causes hemorrhagic cystitis?
cyclophosphamide, ifosmide
115
Which drug causes cinchonism?
quinidine, quinine
116
Which drug causes diabetes insipidus?
lithium, democlocyline
117
Which drug causes Parkinson-like syndrome?
haloperiodl, chlorpromazine, reserpine, metocloprine
118
Which drug causes seizures?
bupropion, imipenem/cilastatin, isoniazid
119
Which drug causes tardive dyskinesia?
antipsychotics
120
Which drug causes disulfiram-like reaction?
metronidazole, certain cephalosporins, procarbazine, 1-st generation sulfonyureas
121
Which drug causes nephrotoxicity/neurotoxicity?
polymyxins
122
Which drug causes nephrotoxicity/ototoxicity?
aminoglycosides, vancomycin, loop diuretics, cisplatin
123
What drugs are p-450 inducers?
Queen Barb Steals Phen-phen and Refuses Greasy Carbs Chronically
quinidine, barbiturates, St. John's wort, phenytoin, rifampin, griseofulvin, carbamazepine, chronic alcohol use
124
What drugs are p-450 inhibitors?
INHIBIT yourself from drinking beer from a KEG because it makes you Acutely SICk.
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HIV protease inhibitors
ketoconazole
erythromycin
grapefruit juice
acute alcohol juice
acute alcohol use
sulfonamides
isoniazid
cimetidine
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