Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What does each branch of motor neuron axon innervate?

A

Each branch innervates an individual skeletal muscle cell (muscle fibre) within a muscle. The neurone and the number of fibres that it innervates are known as a motor unit

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2
Q

Where are the cell bodies of motor neurones located?

A

In the ventral/anterior portion of the spinal cord

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3
Q

What type of receptors are located on the end plate of the muscle cells at the neuromuscular junction?
What are these receptors compose of?

A

Nicotinic ACh receptors - each receptor is composed of 5 glycoprotein subunits, which assemble to form a pentomeric complex, with each subunit totally spanning the plasma membrane. They surround the cation selective pore (formed by five M2 helices).

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4
Q

What is a “quantum” in terms of the NMJ?

A

A quantum is a roughly fixed umber of ACh molecules; the content of each vesicle tends to be rather uniform e.g. around 1000 molecules

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5
Q

What causes the end plate potential?

What type of response is this?

A

The e.p.p. is caused by the activation of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors at the endplate and is a graded response

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6
Q

If the epp is large enough, what does it trigger?

A

The e.p.p., if large enough, triggers the opening of voltage-activated Na+ channels around the end plate causing an action potential which is an ‘all or none response’

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7
Q

What does the term “safe synapse” mean?

A

Normally one action potential in the motor nerve triggers one action potential in the muscle (one to one coupling) and a subsequent ‘twitch’ (contraction) of the muscle
I.e. there is a 1:1 relation ship – “safe synapse” – where post synaptic activity faithfully follows presynaptic activity

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8
Q

How do drugs that reduce the epp work?

A

Drugs, or toxins, that reduce the amplitude of the e.p.p., such that it does not reach threshold for the opening of voltage-activated Na+ channels, block neuromuscular transmission because no muscle action potential is generated

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9
Q

What path does the AP take from propagation at the NMJ ro causing Ca2+ to flood out of the sacroplasmic reticulum?

A

Action potential propagates over the surface membrane (sarcolemma) of skeletal muscle fibre and enters transverse (T) tubules (invaginations of the sarcolemma that dip deeply into the muscle cell). T-tubules are in close apposition to the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR, Ca2+ store)
Action potential arriving at the T-tubule triggers release of Ca2+ from the SR which in turn causes contraction by interacting with troponin associated with the myofibrils

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10
Q

What does flooding for Ca2+ out of the sacroplasmic reticulum and into the cytoplasm cause?

A

It causes an increase in intracellular concentration of Ca2+, which binds to troponin, which slides out of the way, allowing actin and myosin to crossbridge over each other, shortening the length of the skeletal muscle

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11
Q

What is Neuromyotonia and what causes it?

What is the treatment an how does it work?

A

Symptoms include multiple disorders of skeletal muscle function including cramps, stiffness, slow relaxation (myotonia), and muscle twitches (fasiculations)
In the acquired form (most common) is considered to have an autoimmune origin: antibodies against voltage-activated K+ channels in the motor neurone disrupt function resulting in hyperexcitability (repetitive firing)
Drug treatment includes anti-convulsants (e.g. carbamazepine, phenytoin) which block voltage-activated Na+ channels

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12
Q

What is Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic syndrome and what causes it?
How does drug treatment work?

A

Characterised by muscle weakness in the limbs, very rare and associated with small cell carcinoma of the lung
Has an autoimmune origin: antibodies against voltage-activated Ca2+ channels in the motor neurone terminal result in reduced Ca2+ entry in response to depolarization and hence reduced vesicular release of ACh
Drug treatment includes anticholinesterases (e.g. pyridostigmine) and potassium channel blockers (e.g. 3,4-diaminopyridine) which increase the concentration of ACh in the synaptic cleft

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13
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis characterized by and what causes it?
Hoe do drug treatments work?

A

Characterised by progressively increasing muscle weakness during periods of activity (fatiguability, contrast with LEMS that may transiently improve upon exertion). Often weakness of the eye and eyelid muscles is a presenting feature
In the majority of cases has an autoimmune origin: antibodies against nicotinic ACh receptors in the endplate result in reduction in the number of functional channels and hence the amplitude of the e.p.p.
Drug treatment includes anticholinesterases (e.g. edrophonium for diagnosis, pyridostigmine for long term treatment) and a variety of immunosuppressant agents (e.g. azathioprine). Anticholinesterase increase the concentration of ACh in the synaptic cleft

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14
Q

Define pain

A

“An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience, associated with actual tissue damage or described in terms of such damage”

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15
Q

What are the three types of pain?

A

(i) Nociceptive pain - adaptive
(ii) Inflammatory pain - adaptive
(iii) Pathological pain - maladaptive

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16
Q

What does the term maladaptive pain mean?

A

Pain has outlived its initial prupose

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17
Q

What are nociceptors?

A

Nociceptors are specific peripheral primary sensory afferent neurones normally activated preferentially by intense stimuli (e.g. thermal, mechanical, chemical) that are noxious
There are dedicated neurones in the PNS which act to detect Noicious stimuli; only normally activated by intense stimuli

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18
Q

Nociceptive pain is adaptive - what does this mean?

Does it have a high or low threshold?

A

It serves as an early warning system to detect and minimise contact with damaging stimuli (noxious events)
High threshold – provoked only by intense stimuli that activate nociceptors

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19
Q

Is there such thing as a pain receptor?

A

Pain only occurs one it is consciously perceived – there is no such thing as a pain fibre in the periphery; there are Nociceptive fires which sense Nociceptive stimuli

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20
Q

What is inflammatory pain caused by?

A

Caused by activation of the immune system in injury, or infection
This is adaptive and is provoked by moderate stimulation e.g. tendonitis

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21
Q

What two things does inflammatory pain cause?

A
  1. Hypersensitivity (heightened sensitivity to noxious stimuli)
  2. Allodynia - a non-noicious stimulus now becomes painful
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22
Q

What does pathological pain result from?

A

It results from abnormal nervous system function - may be neuropathic, or dysfunctional

23
Q

What are the two types of pathological pain?

Give some features of each?

A

Neuropathic pain – can result by a neuronal lesion which might be due to a peripheral axon, where the axon is severed, or it may result from some neurological disaster, e.g. a stroke
These kinds of damage result in abnormal processing of sensory input
Nerve fibres that normally respond to non-noicious stimuli can now suddenly start to be activated spontaneously
Tends to evoke pain by very low threshold stimuli
This pain frequently persists after feeling has occurred
Dysfunctonal pain
No inflammation, no neural lesion, yet the patient experiences pain; this can only be due to abnormal central processing occurring

24
Q

What categories of drugs are used in inflammatory arthritis?

A
  1. Symptomatic relief
    - Paracetamol
    - Opiate compounds
    - NSAIDs
    - Atypical analgesics
2. Disease modifiers
 A: DMARDS
 - Methotrexate
 - Sulphasalazine
 - Hydroxychloroquine
 B: Biologics 
 - Anti-TNF
 - Rituximab
 - Tocilizumab
25
Q

Paracetamol function?

A

Pure analgesic with little anti-inflammatory action

26
Q

NSAIDs

  • Function?
  • Examples?
A
Anti-inflammatory + analgesic
Ibuprofen
Naproxen - in Tayside formulary
Diclofenac
Celecoxib (cox 2 inhibitor)
27
Q

Indications for using an NSAID>

A

Inflammatory arthritis
Mechanical musculoskeletal pain
Pleuritic / pericardial pain
Other painful conditions

28
Q

Side effects of NSAIDs?

A

Peptic ulceration, dyspepsia, oesophagitis, small/large bowel ulceration
Renal impairment
Increased CVS risk (cox 2 inhibitors and others)
Exacerbation of asthma
Fluid retention
Rash

29
Q

COX-2 inhibitors
How do they work?
What side effect do they reduce the risk of?
What side effect do they increase the risk of?

A

NSAIDs which selectively target cyclooxygenase-2, an enzyme responsible for inflammation and pain
Reduces risk of peptic ulceration
Increases risk of CVS disease

30
Q

What is the best treatment of choice in a patient newly diagnosed with RA?
Why?
What might you also give at the same time?

A

In a patient with newly diagnosed RA, the best treatment of choice is methotrexate – most likely to affect disease progression i.e. make the biggest difference. You might also give an anti-inflammatory, and also prednisolone for a period of time – these are used for symptoms short term while you wait for the methotrexate to work.

31
Q

Which condition is hydroxychloroquine useful in and which condition can it be used as adjuvant therapy for?

A

Very useful in SLE

Can be used as an adjuvant in inflammatory arthritis

32
Q

What is the time goal for a DMARD to be administered after onset of symptoms of inflammatory arthritis?

A

Ideally a DMARD should be started in RA within 3 months of symptoms starting, or as soon as the diagnosis is made. If drugs are started within that window then the long term outcome is best.

33
Q

DMARDs

  • Fast or slow acting?
  • How do they act?
  • Monitoring?
A

Slow acting - weeks to months – window of symptoms while you wait for the drug to work
They switch off the disease, which prevents ongoing inflammation and damage to the joints
Pure anti-inflammatory with no direct analgesic effect
Improve standard laboratory tests of inflammation e.g. ESR, CRP
Reduce rate of joint damage
Most need regular monitoring for adverse effects

34
Q

Inflammatory arthritis

  • What are the DMARDs of choice?
  • What if patient doesn’t respond to these?
  • How do you step down DMARD therapy?
A

Methotrexate and sulfasalazine are the DMARDs of choice due to their more favourable efficacy and toxicity profiles
DMARD therapy should be sustained in patients with early RA to control signs and symptoms of disease
A combination DMARD strategy, rather than sequential monotherapy should be considered in patients with an inadequate response to initial DMARD therapy
Where parallel or step down strategies are employed, DMARDs should be carefully and slowly withdrawn in patients who are in remission

35
Q

Is there a critical time period for administration of DMARDs?

A

Yes - you only have a certain time period to suppress inflammation before it doesn’t matter anymore – even if you get it down to zero, there may be a loss of function that you cannot recover – this period of time is around 3-6 months.

36
Q

Give four commonly used DMARDs in inflammatory arthritis

A

Methotrexate
Sulphasalazine
Leflunomide
Hydroxychloroquine – typically added to other drugs if they aren’t working optimally

37
Q

Methotrexate

  • What is it an antagonist of?
  • How does this impact on treatment?
  • Is it treatment of choice?
  • Administration?
  • What conditions is it used in?
A

Mode of action unknown
Folate antagonist – patients have to take folic acid supplementation
First choice DMARD in most patients
Can be given orally or subcutaneously (injection) – injection is better tolerated for nausea etc
Often used in combination
Used in RA, Psoriatic arthritis, Connective Tissue Disease and Vasculitis

38
Q

Side effects of methotrexate?

A
Leucopenia / thrombocytopenia 
Hepatitis / cirrhosis (alcohol intake must be limited)
Pneumonitis
Rash / mouth ulcers
Nausea / diarrhoea
Needs monitoring of FBC and LFTs
TERATOGENIC
39
Q

Leflunomide

  • What class of drug?
  • Similar efficacy to what drug?
  • Side effects?
  • Other important thing to note?
A
DMARD 
Similar efficacy to methotrexate
Similar side effects
Also teratogenic
Very long half life, so requires wash out (which is a hassle, so properly plan before giving to a patient) – if you just stop it, patients should be advised to not get pregnant for 2 years after
40
Q

Sulphasalazine
Used in combination with which drug?
Side effects?

A

Often used in combination with methotrexate in early inflammatory arthritis
Nausea
Rash / mouth ulcers
Neutropenia – if you stop the drug then this will recover
Hepatitis
Reversible oligozoospermia – temporary male infertility
Monitoring of FBC and LFTs

41
Q

Hydrochloroquine
What class of drug?
Side effects?
What other condition is it typically used for?

A

DMARD
Very well tolerated, but can cause retinopathy (rare, but irreversible)
No effect on joint damage
Used in connective tissue disease such as SLE (helps skin, joints and general malaise) Sjogren’s syndrome and RA
Retinopathy - recognised but rare

42
Q
Anti-TNF therapy
What class of drug?
Which conditions is it licensed for?
Administration
Examples?
A

Biologic
Licensed for RA, psoriatic arthritis and ankylosing spondylitis
Sub-cutaneous injection
Etanercept
Adalimumab – the biggest grossing drug worldwide – brings in most revenue worldwide
Certolizumab
Infliximab

43
Q

Anti-TNF therapy
Criteria for use?
Side effects?

A

Strict criteria for use
- High disease activity score
- Use of previous standard DMARDs, one of which must be methotrexate
Adverse effects
- Risk of infection (esp reactivation of latent TB) – patients have to be screened for past TB exposure
- Question over risk of malignancy - especially skin cancer
- Contraindicated in certain situations e.g. pulmonary fibrosis, heart failure

44
Q

Patient on anti-TNF therapy who develops cough and weight loss?

A

Reactivation of latent TB

45
Q

Is anti-TNF therapy teratogenic?

A

Fetal abnormalities are not a side effect of anti-TNF therapy – in fact they are used throughout pregnancy.

46
Q

What are the two categories of drug given for gout?

Give three examples of each

A
Acute episode drugs
- Colchicine (diarrhoea common)
- NSAIDs
- Steroids, either oral or IM
Prophylaxis drugs - urate lowering
- Allopurinol
- Febuxostat
- Uricosurics
47
Q

Allopurinol

  • How does it work?
  • How should it be administered in an acute attack?
A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor – inhibits one of the pre compounds to uric acid
Rapid reduction in uric acid level may result in exacerbation of gout - do not commence during acute attacks, always co-prescribe anti-inflammatory for first few weeks

48
Q

Side effects of Allopurinol?

A
Rash (vasculitis) commoner in elderly and in renal impairment, therefore use lower doses
Azathioprine interaction
 leads to (rarely) marrow aplasia which is irreversible
49
Q

Febuxostat

  • How does it work?
  • Who is it given to?
  • Side effect?
A

Probenecid
Sulphinpyrazone
Azapropazone

50
Q

What is the aim of long term gout treatment?

How is this achieved?

A

Aim of long term gout treatment – lower urate to below 360 micromol/litre.
Someone needs to start on a drug to lower urate; then check it 6 weeks later, and do something if it isn’t low enough e.g. increase drug dose. Keep doing things until the urate level is lowered below 360 micromol/litre.

51
Q

Corticosteroids

Which conditions are they used for?

A

Connective tissue disease
Polymyalgia rheumatica / giant cell arteritis
Vasculitis
Rheumatoid arthritis

52
Q

Corticosteroids

Modes of administration?

A

Oral
Intra-articular – useful if only 2 or 3 joints are affected
Soft tissue injections
Intramuscular – used in RA
Intravenous – severe connective tissue disease

53
Q

Side effects of corticosteroids?

A
Weight gain - centripetal obesity
Muscle wasting
Skin atrophy
Osteoporosis
Diabetes
Hypertension
Cataract
Glaucoma
Fluid retention
Adrenal suppression
Immunosuppression
Avascular necrosis of the femoral head