Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between sarcoma and carcinoma?

A

A sarcoma is any malignant neoplasm arising from mesenchymal cells (which give rise to connective tissue and non-epithelial tissue). There are three broad categories:
1. Soft tissue cancers
2. Primary bone cancers
3. GI stromatal tumours
Carcinomas affect epithelial cells and frequently cause breast, bowel and lung cancers.

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2
Q
What is a ganglion cyst (ganglia)?
Where are they common?
What causes them?
Treatment?
Complications?
Is it really a true cyst?
A

These are smooth, multilocular swellings containing fluid in communication with joint capsules or tendon sheaths.
Common around the wrist.
Degenerative change within connective tissues.
Treatment is not needed unless they cause pain or pressure (e.g. median nerve compression at the wrist).
Aspiration may work, but surgical dissection gives less recurrence. Problems include painful scars, neurovascular damage and recurrence.
Not a true cyst - no epithelial lining

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3
Q
Superficial fibromatoses
Features?
Arises from what?
Aggressive? 
Example?
What is it called on the penis?
A

Common slow growing tumour arising from fascia or aponeurosis
Less aggressive than deep fibromatosis
Dupuytren’s – common, M>F, idiopathic, lots of associations e.g. alcohol but diabetes and anticonvulsants are more likely cause
Knuckle pads
Plantar
Penile – Peyronie’s

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4
Q
Deep fibromatoses
Features?
Where does it tend to occur?
Other name?
Associated with what syndrome?
A

THIS IS A DIFFERENT DISEASE TO SUPERFICIAL FIBROMATOSES
This is a different disease
Rapidly growing tumour which usually reaches a large size
Tends to occur in mesenteric or pelvic regions
Referred to as Desmoid tumours Associated with Gardner’s syndrome (FAP)

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5
Q

Giant cell tumours
Name and describe the two main types
Benign or malignant
Similarity?

A
  1. Giant cell tumour of tendon sheath (GCTS) - small nodules in the digits that are easier to remove with occasional recurrence
  2. Pigmented villonoduar synovitis (PVNS) - more destructive and diffuse in a joint space; get pain and difficulty locking joint; difficult to excise and commonly recur
    Both are benign
    These two lesions are very similar
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6
Q

Angiolipoma
Where in the body do they occur?
Why angio?
Painful or not?

A

Multiple and peripheral
Vascular with fibrin thrombi
One of the painful subcutaneous lesions (other than infection/trauma)

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7
Q

What are benign tumours of smooth muscle called?

Where do they often arise from?

A

Leiomyomas are one of the most common tumours in the body
Rarely encountered in orthopaedic practice
Often arise from large vessel walls -> muscular veins etc

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8
Q

What are benign tumours of skeletal muscle called?

What is the most common type and who gets it?

A

Rhabdomyomas - very rare:

Cardiac – limited to paediatric age group

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9
Q

What are the three types of rhabdomyosarcoma?

Describe them

A

Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma – kids (looks like grapes coming out of the vagina); genital tract (botyroides), GU tract, H&N (periorbital) and common bile duct
Alveolar – older (young adults); lots of sites; H&N
Pleomorphic – rarest form; still older age groups

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10
Q

What are benign tumours of cartilage called?

A

Enchrondroma (chondroma)

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11
Q

What is the most common primary malignant bone tumour?
What % of malignant bone tumours does it account for?
Describe the manifestation

A

Multiple myeloma
45% of all malignant bone tumours
Multiple punched out osteolyic lesions

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12
Q

What is the second most common primary malignant bone tumour?
Who does the primary kind usually affect and where does it arise in these people?
When might the secondary type of this tumour arise?

A

Osteosarcoma
Primary osteosarcoma typically affects adolescents and arises in the metaphyses of long bones, especially around the knee
Secondary type may arise in bone affected by Pagets or after irradiation

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13
Q

Who does primary osteosarcoma typically present in?

A

Classically between ages 10-20 with a peak in adolescent growth spurt

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14
Q

What does imaging for osteosarcoma show?

A

Bone destruction and new bone formation (sunray spiculation), often with marked periosteal elevation (Codman’s triangle)
50% of lesions are around the knee joint

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15
Q

How does osteosarcoma typically present?
What does staging assess?
What other imaging should you do?

A

Usually pain before a mass develops
Staging assesses intramedullary spread
Do a HRCT chest to screen for pulmonary metastases, especially if ALP is raised

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16
Q

Treatment of osteosarcoma?

A

Used to be amputation but >80% of patients devloped metastatic disease which highlights that most patients have micrometastases at diagnosis
Neoadjuvant (prior to surgery) chemotherapy is advised

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17
Q

What is Ewing’s sarcoma?
Who typically gets it?
What genetic abnormality is it associated with?

A

Malignant round-cell tumour of long bones (typically diaphysis) and limb girdles
Usually presents in adolescents
T11:22 chromosomal translocation

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18
Q

Radiological features of Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

Bone destruction
New bone formation in concentric layers ‘onion ring’ sign
Soft tissue swelling
Periosteal elevation

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19
Q

Treatment of Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

Chemotherapy, radiotherapy and surgery

20
Q
Chondrosarcoma 
What are the two possible causes?
How and where on the body does it typically present?
What sign is seen on x-ray?
Treatment?
A

May arise de novo of from malignant transformation of chondromas
Usually associated with pain, or a lump, and presents in the axial skeleton of the middle aged
‘Popcorn calcification’ is typical on x-ray
No response so chemo or radio, so treatment is by excision
Inadequate surgery is associated with local recurrence, often with a high malignancy

21
Q

What is the commonest benign bone tumour?
Where are the typical sites?
How does it present?
How does it show on x-ray?

A

Osteochondroma
Typical sites - around the knee; proximal femur; proximal humerus
Painful mass associated with trauma
A bony spur arising from the cortex and usually pointing away from the joint

22
Q

Treatment of osteochonroma?

A

Remove if causing symptoms, e.g. pressure on adjacent structures
Any osteochondroma continuing to grow after skeletal maturity must be removed because of risk of malignancy

23
Q
Osteoid osteoma 
What is it?
Where does it occur?
Who gets it?
How does it appear on x-ray? - How does this relate to the symptoms?
A

A painful benign bone lesion that occurs most commonly in long bones of males 10-25 years old (and also often in the spine)
Appears on x-ray as local cortical sclerosis with a central radiolucent nidus
The nidus produces prostaglandins leading to pain unrelated to activity, and relieved with ibuprofen

24
Q

Treatment of osteoid osteoma?

A

CT guided biopsy and radiofrequency ablation

Plain x-rays may miss these tumours; CT is the best imaging modality

25
Q

Chondroma + enchondromata

What are they and what is the difference between the two?

A

These are benign cartilaginous tumours arising from bone surfaces (chondroma) or within the medulla (enchondromata)

26
Q

What markers are commonly positive in sarcomas?

A

Epithelial markers

27
Q
Nodular fasciitis 
What age gets it?
How does it present?
What is often in the history?
What does histology show?
What condition is similar to it?
A
Any age group
Rapid growth; small (ish) 
Often history of preceding trauma 
Histology – very chaotic appearance; haemorrhage; pseudocystic spaces; large atypical cells; frequent, normal mitoses
Myositis ossificans
28
Q

Myositis ossificans?
What other condition is it like?
Common features of history?
Which muscles are affected?

A

Like nodular fasciitis
Reactive small and relatively short history
Preceding trauma
Big muscles – quadriceps, gluteus, occasionally brachialis

29
Q

What are heberdens and bouchards nodes?

Which condition are they associated with?

A

They are both bony swellings found in the hands
Heberdens = DIP
Bouchrds = PIP
Osteoarthritis

30
Q

What does biopsy of giant cell arteritis show?

Where in the vessel is the inflammation?

A

Segmental with skip lesions + granolumas (lots of giant cells)
Inflammation is medial and on elastic lamina

31
Q

In a patient with vasculitis and Hep B positivity, which condition should you think of?

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

32
Q

Which type of vasculitis tends to spare the lungs?

A
Medium vessel
(Polyarteritis nodosa)
33
Q

What does biopsy of polyarteritis nodosa show?

A

Fibrinoid necrosis of the vessel wall -> completely wrecked

Transmural necrotising inflammation

34
Q

Why is excess uric acid precipitated in joints?

A

Because they exist at low temperatures

35
Q

How do crystals of yric acid show on microscopy?

A

Negative birefringence

Needle shaped crystals

36
Q

How does myeloid (associated with myeloma) show on pathology?

A

Apple green birefringence with congo red staining

37
Q

How do crystals of calcium pyrophosphate show on microscopy?
Which condition are they associated with?

A

Rhomboid shape

Weakly positive birefringence

38
Q
Paget's disease
What is it and what causes it?
Which infection is it associated with?
Which bones are affected?
What is there a risk of?
A

Also called osteitis deformans, there is increased osteoclastic activity, which triggers resultant remodelling by osteoblasts.
There is resultant bone enlargement, deformity and weakness
Paget’s disease of bone s a chronic disorder which results in thickened, brittle and misshapen bones which are susceptible to pathological fracture.
Viral infection component - paromyxovirus, measles and RSV
Can affect all bones – usually axial, small bones are unusual
Secondary malignancy

39
Q

What are the three stages of fracture healing?

Give some features of each

A

Initial phases
- Haematoma – fibrin mesh
- Influx of inflammatory cells
- Cytokine release – recruitment of osteoprogenitor cells from periosteum or medullary cavity
- After 1 week – callus, organised haematoma, early recruitment and remodelling at ends of bone
2-3 weeks
- Maximum girth of callus
- Woven bone deposited perpendicular to cortical bone
- Some cartilage deposition at fracture site which undergoes endochondral ossification (cartilage turns into bone)
- Bridging with a bony callus
Remodelling
- Woven bine in callus constantly remodelled
- Areas that are under less stress are resorbed and eventually bone returns to its normal shape

40
Q

What is the most common cause of pathological fracture?

A

Osteoporosis

41
Q

What are the big four cancers which metastasize to bone?

How do these metastases all show on x-ray?

A
Lung 
Kidney
Breast 
Prostate
All show areas which are radiolucent except prostate, which shows areas of opacity
42
Q

is osteoporosis quantitative or qualitative?

A

This is a quantitative defect of bone characterised by reduced mineral density and increased porosity, i.e. the bone is of normal quality, there just isn’t enough of it.

43
Q

What causes osteoporosis?

How is this linked to age?

A

Loss of bone mineral density usually starts around the age of 30 with a gradual slowdown of osteoblastic activity. Females tend to lose more bone mineral density after the menopause due to an increase in osteoclastic bone resorption with the loss of protective effects of oestrogen.

44
Q

What are the two types of osteoporosis?

A

Type 1 aka post-menopausal -> exacerbated loss of bone in the post-menopausal period
Type 2 aka osteoporosis of old age with a greater decline in bone mineral density than expected

45
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for osteoporosis?

A

DEXA scanning

46
Q

What is osteomalacia and is it quantitative or qualitative?

A

Osteomalacia is a qualitative defect of bone with abnormal softening of the bone due to deficient mineralization of osteoid (immature bone) secondary to inadequate amounts of calcium and phosphorus. Rickets is the same disease occurring in children which has subsequent side effects on the growing skeleton.

47
Q

Osteochondritis

  • Who does it tend to occur in?
  • What causes it?
  • Briefly describe the disease process/pathology
  • Main symptom and possible associated disease?
  • What is osteochondritis dissecans and how is it treated?
A

Children and young adults
Increased physical activity with repetitive stress
Recurrent impact causes bleeding and oedema within bone, resulting in capillary compression. Bone necrosis ensues, resulting in compression, fragmentation or separation of bone
Pain and progression to arthritis at a young age if a joint is involved
OD = fragmentation with separation of bone and cartilage within a joint - either pinning of unstable fragments or removal of detached fragments