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Comprehensive Exam > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Etomidate

(induction dose)

A
  1. 2 - 0.6 mg/kg
    * for ages > 10 y.o.
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2
Q

Ketamine

(induction dose)

A

1 - 2 mg/kg

  • given IM or PR
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3
Q

Methohexital

(induction dose)

A

1 - 2 mg/kg

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4
Q

Midazolam

(induction dose)

A

0.15 - 0.35 mg/kg

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5
Q

Propofol

(induction dose)

A

2 - 2.5 mg/kg

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6
Q

Propofol

(Induction dose - Pediatric)

A

2.5 - 3.5 mg/kg

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7
Q

Propofol

(infusion dose)

A

100 - 200 mcg/kg/min

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8
Q

Fentanyl

(Induction dose)

A

5 - 40 mcg/kg

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9
Q

Fentanyl

(infusion dose)

A

0.1 - 1 mcg/kg/min

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10
Q

Succinylcholine

(Intubating dose)

A

0.6 mg/kg

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11
Q

Succinylcholine

(Intbuating dose - Pediatric)

A

1 - 2 mg/kg

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12
Q

Succinylcholine

(RSI dose)

A

1 - 1.5 mg/kg

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13
Q

Succinylcholine

(Laryngospasm dose)

A

20 mg

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14
Q

Succinylcholine

(Laryngospasm dose - Pediatric)

A

0.1 - 0.2 mg/kg

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15
Q

Atracurium

(Intubating dose)

A

0.5 mg/kg

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16
Q

Rocuronium

(intubating dose)

A

0.6 mg/kg

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17
Q

Vecuronium

(intubating dose)

A

0.1 mg/kg

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18
Q

Rocuronium

(RSI dose)

A

0.6 - 1.2 mg/kg

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19
Q

Vecuronium

(RSI dose)

A

0.3 - 0.4 mg/kg

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20
Q

Atropine and Edrophonium

(reversal dose)

A

0.015 - 0.03 mg/kg Atropine

and

0.5 - 1 mg/kg Edrophonium

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21
Q

Glycopyrrolate and Neostigmine

(reversal dose)

A

0.01 - 0.02 mg/kg

and

0.04 - 0.08 mg/kg

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22
Q

Acetaminophen

(IV dose)

A

650 - 1000 mg

(15 mg/kg)

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23
Q

Acetaminophen

(PO dose)

A

5 - 15 mg/kg

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24
Q

Ketorolac

(IV dose)

A

30 mg

(0.5 mg/kg)

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25
Q

Dexamethasone

(antiemetic dose)

A

8 mg

(0.25 mg/kg)

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26
Q

Droperidol

(IV dose)

A

0.625 - 2.5 mg

(10 - 20 mcg/kg)

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27
Q

Metoclopromide

(IV/IM/PO dose)

A

5 - 20 mg

(0.1 mg/kg)

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28
Q

Ondansetron

(IV dose)

A

4 mg

(0.1 mg/kg for child < 40kg)

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29
Q

Flumazenil

(IV dose)

A

0.2 mg

(every 15 minutes)

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30
Q

Naloxone

(IM/IV dose)

A

0.1 - 0.4 mg

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31
Q

Desflurane

(MAC - adult)

A

6.0

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32
Q

Desflurane

(MAC - infant)

A

10

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33
Q

Desflurane

(vapor pressure)

A

660

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34
Q

Desflurane

(blood:gas)

A

0.42

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35
Q

Rank Inhalational Agents according to their Brain:blood coefficients

(greatest to least)

A

Halothane

Sevoflurane

Isoflurane

Desflurane

Nitrous Oxide

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36
Q

Rank Inhalational Agents according to their Fat:Blood Coefficients

(greatest to least)

A

Halothane

Sevoflurane

Isoflurane

Desflurane

Nitrous Oxide

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37
Q

Halothane

(MAC - adult)

A

0.77

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38
Q

Halothane

(MAC - infant)

A

1.2

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39
Q

Isoflurane

(MAC - adult)

A

1.15

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40
Q

Isoflurane

(MAC - infant)

A

1.87

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41
Q

Nitrous Oxide

(MAC - adult)

A

104

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42
Q

Sevoflurane

(MAC - adult)

A

2.4

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43
Q

Sevoflurane

(MAC - infant)

A

3

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44
Q

Halothane

(vapor pressure)

A

240

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45
Q

Isoflurane

(vapor pressure)

A

238

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46
Q

Nitrous Oxide

(vapor pressure)

A

39,000

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47
Q

Sevoflurane

(vapor pressure)

A

160

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48
Q

For no movement to noxious stimuli, use _____ MAC

A

1.25 - 1.3

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49
Q

For blocking adrenergic response use _____ MAC

(MAC-BAR)

A

1.5

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50
Q

Phenylephrine

(IV push dose)

A

50 - 200 mcg

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51
Q

Phenylephrine

(IV infusion dose)

A

0.15 - 0.75 mcg/kg/min

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52
Q

Norepinephrine

(IV infusion dose)

A

0.05 - 0.5 mcg/kg/min

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53
Q

Epinephrine

(IV push dose)

A

2 - 10 mcg

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54
Q

Epinephrine

(IV Beta Infusion dose)

A

0.01 - 0.03 mcg/kg/min

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55
Q

Epinephrine

(IV B > a infusion dose)

A

0.03 - 0.15 mcg/kg/min

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56
Q

Epinephrine

(IV a + B infusion dose)

A

0.15 - 0.5 mcg/kg/min

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57
Q

Ephedrine

(IV push dose)

A

5 - 10 mg

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58
Q

Phenylephrine

(dilution)

A

20mg in 250mL bag

(80 mcg/mL)

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59
Q

Norepinephrine

(dilution)

A

8mg in 250mL bag

(32 mcg/mL)

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60
Q

Dopamine

(IV infusion - renal dose)

A

0.5 - 3 mcg/kg/min

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61
Q

Dopamine

(IV infusion - Beta dose)

A

3 - 10 mcg/kg/min

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62
Q

Isoproterenol

(IV push dose)

A

20 - 60 mcg

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63
Q

Isoproterenol

(IV infusion dose)

A

0.01 - 0.5 mcg/kg/min

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64
Q

Vasopressin

(IV infusion dose)

A

0.01 - 0.06 U/min

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65
Q

Milrinone

(IV push dose)

A

50 mcg/kg

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66
Q

Milrinone

(IV infusion dose)

A

0.375 - 0.75 mcg/kg/min

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67
Q

Hydralazine

(IV push dose)

A

2.5 - 5 mg

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68
Q

Nitroglycerine

(IV push dose)

A

25 - 50 mcg

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69
Q

Nitroglycerine

(IV infusion dose)

A

0.1 - 7 mcg/kg/min

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70
Q

Niroglycerine

(dilution)

A

50mg in 250mL

(200 mcg/mL)

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71
Q

Nitroprusside

(IV push dose)

A

0.5 - 1 mcg/kg

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72
Q

Nitroprusside

(IV infusion dose)

A

0.1 - 10 mcg/kg/min

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73
Q

Diltiazem

(IV push dose)

A

0.25 then 0.35 mg/kg

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74
Q

Diltiazem

(IV infusion dose)

A

1 - 3 mcg/kg/min

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75
Q

Nicardipine

(IV push dose)

A

0.5 - 2 mg

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76
Q

Nicardipine

(IV infusion dose)

A

1 - 4 mcg/kg/min

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77
Q

Nifedipine

(IV push dose)

A

10 - 20 mcg/kg

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78
Q

Nifedipine

(IV infusion dose)

A

1 - 3 mcg/kg/min

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79
Q

Verapamil

(IV push dose)

A

75 - 150 mcg/kg

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80
Q

Verapamil

(IV infusion dose)

A

1 - 5 mcg/kg/min

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81
Q

Esmolol

(IV push dose)

A

0.5 - 1 mg/kg

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82
Q

Labetalol

(IV push dose)

A

0.1 - 0.25 mg/kg

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83
Q

Metoprolol

(IV push dose)

A

2 - 15 mg

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84
Q

Amiodarone

(antiarrhythmic dose)

A

150mg in 1st 10 minutes

360mg over next 6 hours

540mg over remaining 18 hours

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85
Q

Diazepam

(PO/IM dose - pediatric)

A

0.3 - 0.4 mg/kg

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86
Q

Midazolam

(PO dose - pediatric)

A

0.5 - 1 mg/kg

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87
Q

Midazolam

(IM dose - pediatric)

A

0.1 - 0.2 mg/kg

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88
Q

Morphine

(IM dose - pediatric)

A

0.1 - 0.2 mg/kg

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89
Q

Clonidine

(IV dose - pediatric)

A

2.5 mcg/kg

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90
Q

Ketamine

(IM dose - pediatric)

A

3 - 5 mg/kg

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91
Q

Ketamine

(IV dose - pediatric)

A

0.25 - 0.75 mg/kg

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92
Q

Pediatric IM Cocktail

A

0.15 mg/kg Midazolam

3 - 3.5 mg/kg Ketamine

10 mcg/kg Glycopyrrolate

93
Q

Lipid Rescue

A

1.5 mL/kg IV of 20% Lipid Emulsion

followed by 0.25mL/kg/min for 30-60 minutes

94
Q

2-Chloroprocaine

(toxic dose)

A

11 and 14 mg/kg

(plain and with Epi)

95
Q

Procaine

(toxic dose)

A

8 and 14 mg/kg

(plain and with Epi)

96
Q

Tetracaine

(toxic dose)

A

1 and 2.5 mg/kg

(plain and with Epi)

97
Q

Bupivacaine

(toxic dose)

A

2.5 and 3 mg/kg

(plain and with Epi)

98
Q

Lidocaine

(toxic dose)

A

4.5 and 7 mg/kg

(plain and with Epi)

99
Q

Mepivacaine

(toxic dose)

A

4 and 7 mg/kg

(plain and with Epi)

100
Q

Prilocaine

(toxic dose)

A

6 and 9 mg/kg

(plain and with Epi)

101
Q

Ropivacaine

(toxic dose)

A

2.5 and 3 mg/kg

(plain and with Epi)

102
Q

Diazepam

(IV dose - adult)

A

2 - 10 mg

103
Q

Midazolam

(IV dose - adult)

A

0.5 - 5 mg

104
Q

Morphine

(IV dose - adult)

A

5 - 15 mg

105
Q

Atropine

(IV/IM/SQ dose)

A

0.4 - 0.8 mg

106
Q

Glycopyrrolate

(IV/IM/SQ dose)

A

0.1 - 0.3 mg

107
Q

Scopolamine

(IV/IM dose)

A

0.3 - 0.6 mg

108
Q

Diphenhydramine

(IM/IV/PO dose)

A

25 - 50 mg

109
Q

Propofol

(overview)

A

[diprivan]

sedative and hypnotic

  • can also be used as an anti-emetic, anti-pruritic, anti-convulsantt, and attenuates bronchoconstriction
110
Q

Propofol

(mechanism of action)

A

GABAA Agonist

  • Propofol decreases the rate of dissociation between GABA and its receptor; thereby increasing the duration of GABA activated chloride channels and resulting in hyperpolarization of cell membranes
111
Q

Propofol

(metabolism and excretion)

A

metabolized mostly in the liver

(very fast clearance)

excreted through the kidneys

112
Q

Propofol

(side effects and warnings)

A
  • avoid in egg or soy allergy
  • prolonged administration (>24 hours) may cause lactic acidosis
  • supports growth of E. coli and Pseudomonas
113
Q

Propofol

(effects on central nervous system)

A
  • decreases CMRO2, cerebral blood flow, and ICP
  • occasional excitatory activity
    • myoclonic movements and hiccupping
114
Q

Propofol

(effects on cardiovascular system)

A
  • venous dilation, decreased PVR, and cardiac depression lead to hypotension
  • negative inotropic effect
  • does not alter SA or AV node function
115
Q

Propofol

(bradycardia-related death)

A

chance of profound bradycardia and asystole after propofol administration

  • increases incidence of oculocardiac reflex in pediatric strabismus surgery
  • decreased response to atropine
  • treat with direct Beta agonist (isoproterenol)
116
Q

Propofol

(effects on respiratory system)

A
  • decreased ventilatory response during hypoxia
  • decreased rate and tidal volume
  • depression of laryngeal reflexes
117
Q

Etomidate

(overview)

A

[amidate]

sedative and hypnotic

  • no histamine release
118
Q

Etomidate

(mechanism of action)

A

GABAA agonist

119
Q

Etomidate

(side effects and warnings)

A
  • myoclonic movement
  • relatively high incidence of PONV
  • adrenal suppression
120
Q

Etomidate

(metabolism and excretion)

A

metabolized in the liver and by plasma hydrolysis

excreted by kidney

121
Q

Etomidate

(effects on central nervous system)

A
  • may increase EEG activity
    • especially in those with epilepsy
  • myoclonic movements
  • reduces CMRO2, CBF, and ICP
122
Q

Etomidate

(effects on cardiovascular system)

A
  • slight decrease in PV
  • may decrease blood pressure
  • no histamine release
123
Q

Etomidate

(effects on respiratory system)

A
  • transient apnea
  • small decrease in rate and tidal volumes
124
Q

Etomidate

(effects on adrenal system)

A

inhibits 11-B-hydoxylase in adrenal cortex

  • reduces corticoid production and elevates ACTH
  • avoid continuous infusion in critically ill patients
125
Q

Ketamine

(overview)

A

[ketalar]

induction of anesthesia

126
Q

Ketamine

(mechanism of action)

A

NMDA antagonist

  • also acts on opioid and cholinergic receptors
  • causes dissociation between limbic and thalamocorticol systems
127
Q

Ketamine

(side effects and warnings)

A
  • emergence delirium
  • increased oropharyngeal secretions
  • myoclonic movements
  • nystagmus
    • IOP increase
128
Q

Ketamine

(metabolism and excretion)

A

metabolized by the liver and excreted through kidney

  • production of norketamine by-product prlongs analgesic effects
129
Q

Ketamine

(effects on central nervous system)

A
  • increase CMRO2, CBP, and ICP
  • EEG may be more active in seizure patients
  • myoclonic activity
130
Q

Ketamine

(effects on cardiovascular system)

A
  • MAP, CO, and HR increase
  • may depress myocardium if catecholamine depleted or autonomic blockade
131
Q

Ketamine

(effects on respiratory system)

A
  • minimal depression
  • bronchodilator
132
Q

(6) GABA agonists

A
  • propofol
  • etomidate
  • benzodiazepines
  • non-benzodiazepine benzodiazepine
  • barbiturates
  • alcohol
133
Q

Diazepam

(overview)

A

[valium]

sedative and anxiolytic

  • benzodiazepine
  • more prolonged action than midazolam
134
Q

Diazepam

(mechanism of action)

A

GABA agonist

135
Q

Diazepam

(metabolism)

A

hepatic enzymes using oxidative pathway

  • produces two metabolites
    • desmethyldiazepam and oxazepam
136
Q

Diazepam

(onset and duration)

A

60 seconds

15-30 minutes

137
Q

Diazepam

(effects on central nervous system)

A
  • slight increase in CMRO2, CBF, CPP, and ICP
  • muscle relaxant effect
  • anterograde amnesia
  • potent anticonvulsant
138
Q

Diazepam

(side effects and warnings)

A
  • prolonged residual sedation
  • caution in pregnant patients
    • possible teratogenic
139
Q

Midazolam

(overview)

A

[versed]

sedative and anxiolytic

  • benzodiazepine
140
Q

Midazolam

(mechanism of action)

A

GABA agonist

141
Q

Midazolam

(metabolism)

A

rapid absorption from GI tract

  • 10x clearance rate compated to Diazepam
142
Q

Midazolam

(effect on central nervous system)

A
  • anxiolysis
  • amnesia
  • central muscle relaxant
  • anticonvulsant
143
Q

Midazolam

(effects on respiratory system)

A
  • respiratory depression
    • especially in COPD patients
144
Q

Flumazenil

(overview)

A

Competitive antagonist of benzodiazepine site on GABA complex

145
Q

Inhalation Agents

(effects on respiratory system)

A

Decreased tidal volume

increased respiratory rate and PaCO2

146
Q

Inhalational agents

(effects on CBF and ICP)

A

increase

147
Q

Inhalational agents

(effects on the renal system)

A

decrease RBF, GFR, and urine output

148
Q

inhalational agents

(effects on the hepatic system)

A

decrease blood flow

149
Q

Isoflurane

(effects on the cardiovascular system)

A
  • lowers arterial BP and SVR
  • increases HR by 20%
  • Coronary steal syndrome
150
Q

Desflurane

(effects on cardiovascular system)

A
  • decreased BP and SVR
  • increased HR, CVP, and PA pressure
  • no coronary steal
151
Q

Sevoflurane

(effects on cardiovascular system)

A
  • decrease CO, SVR, and MAP
  • no change in HR
152
Q

Thiopental

(overview)

A

[sodium pntothal or thiopentone]

rapid-onset barbiturate

153
Q

Thiopental

(effects on central nervous system)

A
  • increased slow-wave high-amplitude activity on EEG
  • anticonvulsant
  • decreased CMRO2, CBF, and ICP
154
Q

Thiopental

(effects on cardiovascular system)

A
  • venous dilation with cardiac depression
  • slight increase in HR
155
Q

Thiopental

(effects on respiratory system)

A

decreased rate and tidal volume

156
Q

Thiopental

(side effects and warnings)

A
  • allergy - may increase histamine by 300%
  • fixed cardiac output syndromes may lead to profound hypotension
  • intra-arterial injection may cause spasm or thrombosis
  • acute intermittent porphyria
157
Q

Nitrous Oxide

[blood:gas]

A

0.46

158
Q

Sevoflurane

[blood:gas]

A

0.69

159
Q

Isoflurane

[blood:gas]

A

1.46

160
Q

Nitrous Oxide

[adverse effects]

A

absorption of N2O in gas containing spaces

inactivates vitamin B12

PONV

161
Q

best anesthetic gas for ECT

A

Enflurane

decreases seizure threshold

162
Q

Elimination Half-Life

A

time for drug concentration to decrease 50%

163
Q

How does elimination half-life related to Vd and clearance?

A

directly proportional to Vd

inversely proportional to clearance

164
Q

Context Sensitive Half-Life

A

time to decrease 50% after discontinuing a continuous infusion

165
Q

First Pass Hepatic Effect

A

drug gets absorbed in the blood and goes to the liver which is extracted before returning to systemic circulation

166
Q

Transmucosal administration

[advantage]

A

rapid onset

bypasses liver and first pass hepatic effect

167
Q

Difference between proximal and distal rectum administration

A

proximal rectum undergoes first-pass hepatic effect

168
Q

Volume of Distribution

[equation]

A

[drug given] / [plasma drug]

169
Q

What is the Vd influenced by?

A

lipid solubility

binding to plasma proteins

molecular size

170
Q

Non-Ionized ddrugs

A

lipid soluble and diffuse across cell membranes

171
Q

weak base with pH > pKa environment

A

unionized form predominates

172
Q

Diazepam, a weak base (pKa3.3), is given orally to a patient. If this patient’sstomach pH is 1.3 and the

plasma pH is 7.4, which compartment will the Diazepam become “trapped” in?

A

stomach

173
Q

Where do bound drugs go in the body?

A

once bound they will stay in the intravascular space

174
Q

Where do unbound and unionized drugs go in the body?

A

cross placenta and blood brain barrier

175
Q

Coumadin is _____% protein bound

A

98

176
Q

(3) Types of Phase I reactions

A

hydrolysis, oxidation, and reduction

177
Q

Creatinine Clearance

[equation]

A

CLcr = (140-age) * (weigh) / (72*Scr)

178
Q

(3) Phase II reactions

A

conjugation reactions

(sulfation, acetylation, and glucuronidation)

179
Q

describe the Second Gas Effect with N2O

A

N2O has a high volume of uptake and diffuses quickly which increases the alveolar pressure of the second gas

180
Q

Which (2) gases are most soluble?

A

halothane and isoflurane

181
Q

How does solubility affect alveolar pressure?

A

solubility is inversely related to rate of increase of alveolar pressure

Example: Des

lower blood:gas → less soluble → higher pressure in alveoli → brain sees higher pressure → faster

182
Q

How does cardiac output affect the speed of an inhalational induction?

A

If CO is increased, more rapid uptake of agent so alveolar pressure is lower and therefore a slower induction

increased CO = slower induction

183
Q

Diffusion Hypoxia

A

reverses the partial pressure gradients so that N2O leaves the blood to enter alveoli

  • occurs when inhalation is discontinued abruptly
  • dilutes PAO2, PaO2, and PaCO2
184
Q

MAC

[estimation equation]

A

150 / oil:gas

185
Q

Factors that increase MAC

A
  • hyperthermia
  • red hair
  • cyclosporin
  • hypernatremia
186
Q

Factors that decrease MAC

A
  • hypothermia
  • elderly
  • pregnant
  • lidocaine
  • acute EToH
  • narcotics
187
Q

Henry’s Law

A

the amount of gas which dissolves in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas in equilibrium with the liquid

188
Q

Dalton’s Law

A

the sum of the partial pressures of each gas in a mixture equals the total pressure of the entire mixture

189
Q

Blood:Gas Coefficient

[ideal]

A

lower coefficient indicates a greater control of anesthetic depth and recovery

  • higher numbers are worse due to it wanting to stay in the blood
190
Q

Pernicious Anemia

A

lack of vitamin B12 causing macrocytic RBCs

  • treat with high doses of vitamin B12
191
Q

Nitrous Oxide

[cardiovascular effects]

A

myocardial depressant

no change in BP or pulse

increases pulmonary vascular resistance

192
Q

Concern with increasing pulmonary vascular resistance

A

increases work by the right heart, increases O2 consumption, may lead to heart failure

  • avoid in Tet babies with any type of shunt defect
193
Q

Nitrous Oxide

[CNS effects]

A

increases CMRO2, CBF, CBV, and ICP

194
Q

What volatile agent can cause hepatotoxicity

A

halothane

195
Q

Characteristics of Nephrotoxicity

A

polyuria

hypernatremia or hyperosmolarity

increased Cr

dilute urine

196
Q

Inhalational Agents

[effect on the Uterus]

A

decrease uterine contractility and tocolytics

decrease blood flow to uterus (except N2O)

197
Q

MAC BAR

A

the MAC at which Blocks Autonomic Response

(around 2 MAC)

198
Q

At what MACs can volatile agents cause circulatory collapse?

A

Des 2.45 and Iso 3.0

199
Q

volatile agents

[cerebral blood flow]

A

increases intially due to vasodilation

uncouples CBF and CMRO2

200
Q

Inhalational Agents

[rank of increasing cerebral blood flow]

A

N2O > Iso > Des > Sevo

201
Q

volatile agents

[geriatric patients]

A

decreased MAC

5% decrease for every decade after 40yrs

202
Q

which inhalational agent doesn’t lower MAP

A

N2O

203
Q

which agent maintains CO best

A

Desflurane

204
Q

Which agents decrease stroke volume

A

Sevoflurane and Halothane

205
Q

which agents decrease SVR

A

all but N2O

206
Q

which agent increases PVR

A

N2O

207
Q

which agent increases chance of arrhythmias

A

Halothane

sensitizes myocardium to catecholamines

208
Q

GABA

[mechanism of action]

A

inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS

  • allows chloride ions to enter the cell
  • hyperpolarizes the post-synaptic neuron and reduces its excitability
209
Q

Barbiturates

[mechanism of action]

A

increases duration of GABA

210
Q

Barbiturates

[cardiovascular effects]

A

decrease BP and increase HR

211
Q

cerebral perfusion pressure

[equation]

A

MAP - ICP (or CVP)

212
Q

Barbiturate of choice in ECT

A

Brevital

(methohexital)

  • induces seizure activity but decreases duration
  • 1 mg/kg
  • must be dissolved in normal saline because it precipitates with LR
213
Q

Acute Intermittent Porphyria

A

deficiency of a heme enzyme

  • “Dracula” disease
  • barbiturates precipitate symptoms
  • abdominal pain, urinary symptoms, and peripheral neuropathy
214
Q

Propofol

[anti-emetic infusion dose]

A

500 mcg/kg/min

215
Q

What effects of opioids can you not develop tolerance for?

A

miosis and bowel motility

216
Q

Fentanyl

[potency compared to morphine]

A

100x more potent than morphine

217
Q

Opioids

[potency rank]

A

Sufentanyl > Fentanyl and Remi > Dilaudid > morphiine > tramadol

218
Q

Benzodiazepines

[substances with synergistic effects]

A

alcohol, anesthetics, and alpha-2 agonsts

219
Q

(2) types of sympathetic adrenergic receptors

A

alpha and beta

220
Q

Alpha-1 Receptor

A

smooth muscle contraction and vasoconstriction

221
Q

Alpha-2 Receptors

A

smooth muscle contraction and inhibition of NE release

222
Q

Beta-1 Receptors

A

increase heart rate and contractility

223
Q

Beta-2 Receptors

A

smooth muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

224
Q

Synthesis of Norepinephrine

A

Tyrosine

L-DOPA

DOPA

Norepinephrine

225
Q

How is Norepineprine terminated?

A

80% by reuptake and reused

diffusion from receptors

metabolism by MAOs and COMT

226
Q

Where are nicotinic receptors found?

A

autonomic ganglia and skeletal muscle

227
Q

Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy

A

painful stimulation evokes sympathetic activity

  • leads to acidosis and tissue ischemia
228
Q

Pseudochoinesterase Deficiency

[causes]

A
  • pregnancy
  • insecticides
  • liver disease
  • echothiophate eye drops
  • hypothermia
  • organophophates
  • magnesium
  • ester local anesthetics
229
Q
A

Comprehensive Exam (6 decks)

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