Pharmacology Flashcards

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1
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

A
  • acetazolamide; methazolamide; dichlorphenamide
  • inhibits luminal CA at proximal tubule→ less activity of Na/H antiporter, decreased HCO3 and Na+ (and water) reabsorption
  • FeNa=5%
  • Contraindicated in cirrhosis
  • Tx: glaucoma (decrease IOP and vol), mountain sickness
  • side effects: hypokalemia, metabolic acidosis; hepatic encephalopathy, BM depression, skin toxicity, sulfonamide HSR
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2
Q

Aminophylline

A
  • PDE inhibition and enhanced signalling via cAMP and cGMP; works at proximal tubule; decreased HCO3 and Na (and water) reabsorption
  • aminophylline = theophylline + ethyelenediamine (solubility agent)
  • Tx: reduce inflammation and bronchospasm in moderate-severe asthma, night symptoms; NOT as diuretic
  • FeNa = 5%
  • side effects: larger doses→ N/V CNS stimulation or seizures, tachycardia/arrythmias
  • metabolized by liver; cimetidine and quinoline increase blood levels
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3
Q

Mannitol

A
  • osmotic diuretic; opposes H2O and Na reabsorption at proximal tubule→ increased osmolarity of tubular fluid
  • Tx: increased drug clearance, minimize renal failure (shock or surgery), decrease IOP/ICP, diagnose oliguria
  • FeNa = 5%
  • side effects: risk of pulmonary edema
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4
Q

Loop diuretics

A
  • furosemide, bumetanide, torsemide, ethacrynic acid
  • inhibits Cl portion of Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in luminal membrane at medullary and cortical (proximal) talH→ decreased K, Ca and Na reabsorption, resultant K loss
  • Tx: crisis edema (pulmonary, CHF, cirrhosis), hypercalcemia, drug toxicity/OD; severe HTN in CHF or cirrhosis (vasodilate via prostaglandins and decrease preload by lowering volume)
  • FeNa = 25%; eventually causes increase in PT reabsorption, decreases positive & negative free water clearance; decreases cortex-medulla molarity gradient; avoid NSAIDs, take before salty meals, reduce salt intake; useful in patients with renal insufficiency (GFR < 30)
  • side effects: hyper glycemia/ lipidemia (DM!), hyperuricemia (gout!), hyperCa; hypoMg/K; photosensitivity, nephrocalcinosis, Rx interactions; ED
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5
Q

Thiazide/thiazide-like diuretics

A
  • thiazides: chlorothizide, hydrochlorothiazide
  • thiazide-like: chlorthalidone, quinethazone, metolazone, indapamide
  • inhibit Cl portion of Na-Cl cotransporter in the luminal membrane at early distal tubule→ decreased Na (and H2O) reabsorption, increased Ca reabsorption, resultant K loss
  • Tx: HTN (intravascular contraction), CHF, chronic edema (cardiac insufficiency), idiopathic hypercalciuria (stones), nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
  • FeNa = 8%
  • side effects: hypoK/hyperCa, contraction alkalosis, decreases positive free water clearance; increased BUN & creatinine; hyperglycemia/lipidemia (DM) hyperuricemia (gout); hypo magnesia /natremia; gout, photosensitivity, ED
  • lethal interaction w/quinidine (v. tach→ fib, may be due to hyperK)
  • avoid NSAIDs, bile sequestrants
  • increased risk of hypoK w/steroids or AmphoB
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6
Q

K+ sparing diuretics

A
  • amiloride, triamterene
  • work on principal cell of collecting duct to blocks ENaC and Na/H antiporter in lumenal membrane→ decreased K secretion and distal tubule acid secretion, increased Ca absorption
  • FeNa = 2%
  • Tx: use w/ other diuretics to prevent hypokalemia; edema, idiopathic hypercalciuria (stones); Li-induced polyuria/toxicity, Liddle syndrome, mucocilliary clearance
  • side effects: hyperkalemia in renal failure or patients on ACEi/ARBs
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7
Q

Aquaretics

A
  • conivaptan, tolvaptan
  • new drug class with unproven clinical benefit
  • ADH receptor antagonist working at collecting duct→ increased free water excretion
  • Tx: hyponatremia (SIADH, CHF)
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8
Q

Eplerenone

A
  • K+ sparing diuretic; selective aldosterone receptor blocker devoid of antiandrogenic effect (inhibits Na reabsorption in distal tubule)
  • Tx: CHF (30% in NYHA class III and IV); use w/ other diuretics to prevent hypoK; HTN edema; 1’/2’ aldosteronism; anti-testosterone agent
  • side effects: hyperK; low incidence of gynecomastia and mennorhagia vs. spironolactone
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9
Q

Spironolactone

A
  • K sparing diuretic; competes for aldosterone receptor, inhibiting mRNA transcription and translation→ decreased Na and K channels, decreased #/activity of Na-K-ATPase in late distal tubule and collecting duct→ decreased K+ secretion, distal tubule acid secretion
  • Tx: CHF mortality (30% in NYHA class III and IV); use w/ other diuretics to prevent hypokalemia; HTN edema; 1’/2’ aldosteronism; anti-testosterone agent
  • side effects: hyperK in renal failure or patients on ACEi; gynecomastia, ED, a/oligomenorrhea, breast soreness
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10
Q

ACE inhibitors

A
  • short acting: capto_pril_
  • long acting: lisinopril, benazepril, quinapril, ramipril**
  • vasodilating: enalapril**
  • blocks ACE conversion of ATI to ATII (potent vasoconstrictor); prevents breakdown of bradykinin (potent vasodilator)
  • Tx: 1st line for CHF (reduces afterload), LV hypertrophy, post-MI (prevents LV remodeling); protective of diabetic nephropathy; mild/ moderate HTN, reduces incidence of future CAD events in at risk for or PMH of vascular disease;
  • side effects: dry cough, hyperK, angioedema, inhibits renal autoregulation, hypotension
  • contraindicated in pregnancy, renal artery stenosis, hyperK, and prior angioedema; caution in ARF; reduces future CAD events; may reduce risk of DM
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11
Q

ARBs

A
  • losartan, valsartan, irbesartan**
  • competitive inhibition of ATII in vascular endothelium→ fall in PVR w/ little change in HR or CO
  • Tx: CHF (reduces afterload), LV hypertrophy, post-MI (prevents LV remodeling); protective of diabetic nephropathy; mild/ moderate HTN
  • as effective as ACEi; use if cough is an issue
  • side effects: angioedema, decreased renal function, hypotension;
  • contraindicated in pregnancy, renal artery stenosis, hyperkalemia, and prior angioedema; caution in ARF
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12
Q

Aliskiren

A
  • renin inhibitor (blocks ATI formation)
  • not v. effective
  • does not interfere with bradykinin
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13
Q

Non-dihydropyridine Ca channel blockers

A
  • diltiazem; verapamil (most heart specific)
  • blocks L-type Ca channel→ decreased Ca intracellularly→ decreases CO (lowers HR via decrease AV nodal conduction) and decreases TPR (less than dihydropyridine)
  • Tx: HTN, angina (esp. vasospastic; - ionotrope→ decreased MO2 demand), SVT (class IV anti-arrhythymic); good to preserve renal function in DM and CKD
  • side effects: leg edema, bradycardia, AV nodal blockade, hypotension, worsening HF; constipation (most common), headache, flushing
  • contraindicated in overt decompensated HF, bradycardia, sinus node dysfunction, high-degree AV block
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14
Q

Dihydropyridine Ca channel blockers

A
  • nifedipine, amlodipine**
  • L-type Ca channel→ decreased Ca in vascular SM→ decreases TPR; no effect on AV nodal conduction
  • Tx: HTN, Raynauds, angina (3rd choice drug); 1st line for coronary vasospasm;
  • side effects: leg edema (less than nondihydros), constipation (most common), headache, flushing
  • no bradycardia, can use in low HR patients, can use in patients with AV block
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15
Q

ß blockers for HTN

A
  • lower CO and decrease renin release
  • Tx: 1st line for HTN if CHF, post MI/angina, CAD
  • nonselective: propranolol
    • bronchospasm, bradycardia (-chronotrope), CHF (- ionotrope), masking hypoglycemia
    • decreased exercise capacity, depression (crosses BBB), worsening PVD
  • selective ß1: metoprolol, atenolol, esmolol
    • decrease contractility and HR (reduced MO2 demand); prevent MIs, prevent sudden cardiac death, increase survival post-MI (do not stop suddenly)
    • ​less likely to have bronchospasm, hypoglycemic awareness, and depression
    • side effects: fatigue, worsening claudication, impotence
  • combined a/ß: labetolol, carvedilol
    • ​ß1 blockage with vasodilatory effects
    • Tx: HTN urgency, ACS, CHF
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16
Q

Terazosin (Hytrin)

Doxazosin (Cardura)

A
  • blocks post-synaptic a1 receptor on vascular SM→ decreased arteriolar and venous resistance
  • Tx: BPH (decrease tone of urinary sphincter), 2nd tier med for HTN
  • side effects: orthostatic hypotension, fluid retention, worsening angina (2nd to reflex tachy)
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17
Q

Clonidine (Catapres)

α-methyldopa (Aldomet)

A
  • central α2-agonist→ reduction in symp outflow; inhibition of renin release (2nd to decreased symp tone)
  • a methyldopa: only drug for HTN of pregnancy; takes place of dopa, so less NE (methyl-NE also activates α2)
  • side effect: rebound HTN if abruptly stopped; moderate orthostatic hypotension; sedation, dry mouth, fatigue, depression
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18
Q

Reserpine (Serpalan)

A
  • ganglion blocking agent (blocks transport of NE, DA, and 5HIAA vesicles)
  • Tx: decreased CO and TPR
  • side effects: sedation, depression, Parkinsonism symptoms
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19
Q

Hydralazine (Apresoline)

A
  • direct vasodilators (prevent oxidation of NO)→ decrease TPR via arteriolar dilation
  • Tx: HTN urgency; patients with both CHF and HTN
  • side effects: SLE-like syndrome; reflex tachy
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20
Q

Minoxidil (Loniten)

A
  • direct vasodilators; open K channels→ hyperpolarization of SM→ vasodilation of arterioles
  • Tx: refractory HTN; hair loss
  • side effects: leg edema, pericardial effusion; hirsutism; reflex tachy
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21
Q

Niacin (Niaspan)

A
  • nicotinic acid→ reduction of liver TG synthesis→ less hepatic VLDL (thus LDL); decreases lipolysis in adipose→ lowered FFA transport to liver (thus, less TGs); reduced hepatic clearance of ApoAI (raising HDL)
  • best agent to increase HDL (30-40%); as good as fibrates and statins at lowering TGs (35-4%); lowers LDL (20-30%)
  • Tx: hyperTG and low HDL
  • side effects limit compliance (<50%): flushing, pruritis of face and upper trunk (take aspirin), rashes, acanthosis nigricans, hepatotoxicity, hyperuricemia, hyperglycemia; dyspepsia/reactivation of peptic ulcer disease; rarely, toxic ambylopia, tachyarrhythmias, a-fib (in elderly) and myopathy
  • contraindicated in DM and gout patients
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22
Q

Fibric Acid Derivatives (Fibrates)

A
  • Clofibrate, gemfibrozil, fenofibrate
  • may interact w/peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor (esp. PPARα) to induce LPL (enhance TG-rich lipoprotein clearance); inhibit apoC III expression (enhance VLDL clearance); stimulation of apoAI and apoAII (increase HDL)
  • Marked reduction in VLDL (thus, TGs); variable small effect on LDL; small increase in HDL (10%)
  • Tx: severe hyperTG
  • side effects: potentiate oral anticoag (displace from albumin), gallstones; myositis flu-like syndrome in 5% (higher risk + statin)
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23
Q

Bile acid sequestrants

A
  • colestipol, cholestyramine, colesevelam
  • v. + resins bind - bile acids, inhibiting reabsorption and increasing CH loss→ increase LDL receptors in liver (to make more CH), decreasing LDL in blood
  • Tx: pure hyperCH (decrease LDL (25%), but slight increase (5%) in TG and HDL)
  • v. safe (indicated for kids) because not systematically absorbed; impairs vitamin ADKE absorption, binds other drugs (e.g., cardiac glycosides, coumarins)
  • standard treatment in combo w/statin; contraindicated in hyperTG
  • side effects: bloating, dyspepsia, constipation, gritty/unpleasant taste
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24
Q

HMG-CoA reductase Inhibitors (statins)

A
  • lovastatin, simvastatin: lactone product (modified in liver to hydroxy acid form), take in pm
  • pravastatin, fluvastatin: take in pm
  • atorvastatin, rosuvastatin, pitavastatin: longer t1/2
  • inhibits HMG-CoA reductase formation of mevalonate; activates SREBP, membrane-bound TF that increases LDL-R synthesis and lessens degradation
  • Tx: 1st line for dyslipidemia (reduces fatal & nonfatal CHD, strokes; total mortality reduction is 20%)
  • reduce LDL (20-55%) and TG (25%), while increasing HDL (5-10%)
  • side effects: hepatic dysfunction in 1%; myopathy/ rhabdo (reduced if factors inhibiting statin catabolism lacking)
25
Q

Ezetimbe (Zetia)

A
  • inhibits enterocyte absorption of CH in jejunum→ decreased LDL alone (15-20%) or w/statin (60%)
  • side effect: GI distress
  • LT decrease in endpoints not seen yet (questionable effectiveness)
26
Q

Alirocumab

Evolucumab

A
  • inhibits an endopeptidase (PCSK9) responsible for LDL-R degradation→ higher # LDL-Rs on hepatocytes
  • Tx: 2nd line for hyperCH not controlled by diet and statins
  • side effects: injection site rxns; flu-like symptoms; nose and throat irritation; muscle pain; diarrhea
27
Q

Aspirin

A
  • NSAID; irreversible COX inhibitor (o TxA2 synthesis), so blocks platelet aggregation
  • Tx: reduce adverse events (MI, CVA, death); stable angina, unstable angina, acute MI, prophylaxis
  • Low-doses; if you’re allergic, you’ll get asthma
28
Q

Ticlopidine (Ticlid)

A
  • Thienopyridine antiplatelet agent; inhibits platelet aggregation by ADP; reduces blood viscosity by decreasing plasma fibrinogen and increasing RBC deformability
  • use as an aspirin alternative (not really used anymore)
  • side effects: neutropenia, TTP (rarely)
29
Q

Clopidogrel (Plavix)

A
  • Thienopyridine antiplatelet agent; selectively and irreversibly inhibits ADP binding to P2Y12 (blocks ADP-dependent activation of GP IIb/IIIa complex)
  • Tx: great antithrombotic; standard of care w/ stent
  • side effect: bleeding (no surgical or dental procedures)
30
Q

Prasugrel (Effient)

A
  • Thienopyridine antiplatelet agent; irreversibly binds P2Y12 receptor (GCRP chemoreceptor for ADP)
  • Tx: reduce thrombotic events in those w/ stent
  • massive bleeding risk (1:1 save from MI die from bleeding event); use limited to patients <75 yo, >60kg and no history of stroke or TIA
31
Q

Ticagrelor (Brilinta)

A
  • Adenosine-like antiplatelet agent; reversibly blocks ADP receptors
  • Tx: great antithrombic
  • side effect: bleeding (be careful about aspirin use in addition)
  • requires bid dosing
32
Q

Dipyradimole (Persantine)

A
  • Pyrimido-pyrimidine antiplatelet agent; increases platelet intracellular cAMP (inhibits PDE 5, activates adenylate cyclase, inhibits uptake of adenosine from vascular endothelium and RBCs)
  • Tx: PVD (as adjunct); chemical stress test
  • side effects: vasodilation of coronary arteries can enhance exercise-induced ischemia (elevates extracellular adenosine)
  • do not use in patients with CAD
33
Q

Cilostazol (Pletal)

A
  • Quinoline antiplatelet agent; inhibits cellular PDE→ raises intracellular cAMP
  • Tx: claudication with PVD (3rd line)
  • side effects: vasodilation
  • contraindicated in HF
34
Q

Nitrates

A
  • Isosorbide ditrate, isosorbide mononitrate
  • vasodilator; functions as NO in SM: vasodilation, venodilation (decrease preload, decrease MO2), decrease infarct size and improves MI mortality
  • Tx: acute episodes; long-acting for those on other drugs and still can’t control angina
  • side effects: tolerance w/chronic use (need nitrate free periods of 8-12 hrs), headaches, hypotension, activation of Bezold-Jarisch reflex (causes brady); decreases preload
  • Contraindicated in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, severe aortic stenosis, significant hypotension, use of PDE inhibitors
35
Q

Digoxin

A
  • Cardiac glycoside and anti-arrhythmic
  • inhibits Na/K ATPase (more Ca→ increase contractility); indirect increase vagal and sympathetic activity (decrease HR, NE, RAAS)
  • Tx: CHF (no mortality benefit); SVTs; improves LV function, decreases neurohormonal activation, increases vagal tone, normalizes arterial baroreceptors; decreases hospitalizations in a-fib/flutter
  • side effects: nausea, cognitive dysfunction, blurred or yellow vision; DAD arrythmias
  • v. narrow TI (mostly arrhythmias); Fab antibodies for toxicity
  • renal elimination (dose according to renal function)
36
Q

Dobutamine (Dobutrex)

A
  • β1 receptor agonist; + inotrope and chronotrope
  • Tx: acutely decompensated patients (50% will die after 6 mo)
  • side effects: quick acting, but can develop tachyphylaxis after 48 hrs (rapidly desensitizes)
  • No NE release; given IV
37
Q

Milrinone (Primacor)

A
  • PDE IIIa inhibitor; inhibits cAMP breakdown→ increase Ca (+inotrope, vasodilation and decrease TPR in SM)
  • Tx: acute setting of HF (short-term only)
  • increased hypotensive and atrial arrhythmia events acutely; 2 mo mortality >50% higher vs. placebo
  • IV, depends on renal clearance, no tolerance after 72 hrs
38
Q

Bronchodilator (short-acting β2 agonist)

A
  • albuterol, terbutaline, metoproterenol, pirbutal
  • Relax bronchial SM, inhibit mediator release (mast cells, basophils), increase mucociliary clearance, suppression of microvascular permeability
  • Tx: prevent/reduce exercise-induced bronchospasms; mild asthma & acute exacerbations
  • side effects: msk tremor, tachy, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia
  • tolerance with chronic use, prolonged QTc, lactic acidosis, paradoxical bronchospasm
  • 5 mins to take action, 4-6 hrs duration; nebulizer delivers more, but greater side effects
39
Q

Bronchodilator (long-acting β2 agonist)

A
  • salme_terol,_ formoterol, indacaterol
  • Relax bronchial SM, inhibit mediator release (mast cells, basophils), increase mucociliary clearance, suppression of microvascular permeability
  • Tx: LT control of asthma (always in combo with inhaled steroids)
  • side effects: msk tremor, tachy, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia
  • tolerance with chronic use, prolonged QTc, lactic acidosis, paradoxical bronchospasm
  • 10-15 mins to act, 6-12 hrs duration; nebulizer delivers more, but greater side effects; oral is least effective (requires more dose→ side effects); not ideal for pm symptoms
40
Q

Theophylline (Theolair)

Theobromine

Caffeine

A
  • Bronchodilator (Methylxanthine); PDE inhibition and enhanced signalling via increased cAMP and cGMP; relax bronchial SM
  • Tx: reduce inflammation and bronchospasm in moderate-severe asthma, pm symptoms
  • side effects: CNS stimulation or seizures, tachy/arrythmias, anorexia, nausea
  • low TI; metabolized by liver; cimetidine and quinoline increase blood levels
41
Q

Roflumilast

A
  • Methylxanthine; selective PDE4 inhibitor; more anti-inflam than bronchodilator
  • Tx: COPD
  • side effects: CNS stimulation or seizures, tachy/arrythmias, anorexia, nausea
42
Q

Ipratropium (Atrovent)

Tiotropium

Atropine

A
  • 4’ amine antimuscarinic; blocks vagal pathways and decreases vagal tone to bronchial SM; blocks the reflex bronchoconstriction caused by inhaled irritants
  • Tx: 1st line for COPD; status asthmaticus (w/ nebulized β2-agonists); no role in chronic stable asthma
  • side effects: Typical antimuscarinic effects; acute angle glaucoma; paradoxical bronchospasm
  • tiotropium: anti-inflam and decreases mucus
43
Q

Aclidinium Bromide

A
  • 4’ amine antimuscarinic; blocks vagal pathways and decreases vagal tone to bronchial SM; blocks the reflex bronchoconstriction caused by inhaled irritants
  • Tx: COPD; status asthmaticus (w/ nebulized β2-agonists); no role in chronic stable asthma
  • side effects: less systemic & CNS side effects than other antimuscarinics due to extremely short circulation half-life
44
Q

Budesonide

Fluticasone propionate

Beclomethasone

A
  • corticosteroid; anti-inflammatory, inhibition of growth factor secretion, inhibition of arachidonic acid metabolites and platelet activation factor, inhibition of leukocyte accumulation, decreased vascular permeability, inhibition of neuropeptide-mediated responses, inhibition of mucous glycoprotein secretion
  • Tx: cornerstone for persistent asthma; beneficial combo w/ ß2 agonist; limited role in COPD
  • side effects
    • inhaled: thrush, hoarseness, dry cough, mild adrenal suppression (higher doses)
    • oral: mood-swings, increased appetite, and suppression of ACTH (Cushing’s)
45
Q

Ciclesonide

A
  • corticosteroid; anti-inflam with same mechanism as other corticosteroids, but is a prodrug only activated by airway esterase
  • Tx: cornerstone for persistent asthma; beneficial combo w/ ß2 agonist; limited role in COPD
  • Less side effects than other corticosteroids (on site activation required)
46
Q

Sodium cromoglycate

Nedocromil sodium

A
  • Anti-inflam; prevent mast cell degranulation and mediator release from mast cells
  • Tx: prophylaxis for inhibiting early and late phase rxns; best results in mild and allergic asthma
  • side effect: cough, throat irritation
47
Q

Montelukast

Pranlukast

Zafirlukast

A
  • Leukotriene receptor antagonist
  • Tx: add-on in mild persistent asthma; aspirin-induced asthma; prophylaxis for exercise-induced bronchospasm
  • monitor LFTs
48
Q

Zileuton (Zyflo)

A
  • Leukotriene inhibitor; inhibits 5-lipoxygenase and blocks leukotriene synthesis
  • Tx: add-on in mild persistent asthma; aspirin-induced asthma; prophylaxis for exercise-induced bronchospasm
  • side effects: liver toxicity
49
Q

Omalizumab

A

anti IgE for poorly controlled severe asthma; subQ injection every 3 wks

50
Q

Class IA anti-arrhythmics

A
  • Quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide
  • Block fast Na preferentially in open/activated state; increase APD and ERP, decrease slope of phase 0; block K rectifying channel (prolongs repolarization)
  • Tx: a-fib/flutter, paroxsymal SVT, v-tach
  • side effects: long QT; TdP arrhythmias; heart block; hypotension; lupus-like syndrome (procainamide); GI symptoms; cinchonism (quinidine), hepatitis, thrombocytopenia (quinidine); anticholinergic effects (disopyramide)
51
Q

Class IB anti-arrhythmics

A
  • lidocaine, mexiletine
  • Block fast Na channels in inactivated state (prevent return back to resting and firing new AP); decrease APD; slow conduction in hypoxic and eschemic heart
  • Tx: post MI; open heart surgery; digitalis toxicity
  • side effects: tremor, nausea, seizures, local anesthetic action; GI toxicity w/ mexiletine
52
Q

Class IC anti-arrhythmics

A
  • flecainide, propafenone, moricizine
  • most potent class I Na channel blockers (esp. His-Purkinje); no effect on APD, acts as negative ionotrope
  • Tx: a-fib/flutter, paroxsymal SVT, v-tach
  • side effects: worsened HF, proarrhythmia in ischemic tissue, increased mortality; blurred vision w/ flecainide; sinus brady and brochospasm w/ propafenone
53
Q

Class II anti-arrhythmics (non selective ßblockers)

A
  • propanolol, carvedilol
  • decrease SA, AV node activity, decrease slope phase 4
  • Tx: SVTs; control of ventricular rate in a-fib/flutter
  • side effects: heart block, hypotension, brochospasm, bradycardia; contraindicated in WPW
  • decreases mortality in CHF
54
Q

Class II anti-arrhythmics (selective ßblockers)

A
  • metoprolol, acebutolol, esmolol
  • Blocks ßreceptors; decrease SA, AV node activity (phase 4 depolarization)
  • Tx: post MI prophylaxis (- inotropy decreases MO2 demand) control ventricular rate in a-fib/flutter, LT suppression of SVTs, PVCs
  • side effects: heart block, hypotension, brochospasm, bradycardia; contraindicated in WPW
  • decreases mortality in CHF
55
Q

Class III anti-arrhythmics

A
  • sotalol, amiodarone, dofetilide, ibutelide, dronedarone
  • K channel blockade = prolongs refractoriness (increase APD and ERP; slows phase 3)
  • Tx: a-fib/flutter, paroxsymal SVT, v-tach
  • amiodarone: mimics all antiarrythmics; use for any arrythmia, 1st line for sustain VT/VF; long t1/2
  • sotalol: treats life-threatening ventricular arrythmia
  • side effects: TdP; long QT, bradycardia; pulmonary fibrosis, peripheral neuropathy, hepatic dysfunction, hypotension, brochospasm
  • Photosensitivity (blue-gray skin; numerous drug interactions; N & V w/ dronedarone
56
Q

Class IV anti-arrhythmics (Ca channel blockers)

A
  • nifedipine, amlodipine, verapamil, diltiazam
  • Block L-type Ca channels (slow SA & AV node activity); decrease phase 0 and phase 4
  • Tx: prevent or terminate reentrant SVTs
  • side effects: AV block; hypotension, bradycardia, constipation, dizziness; increases serum digoxin levels; contraindicated in WPW
57
Q

Adenosine

A
  • anti-arrhythmic; adenosine receptors in atrium, sinus node, AV node; activates K current, shortening AP, hyperpolarizing tissue, and slowing down automaticity and AV conduction
  • Tx: a-fib, paroxsymal SVT
  • side effects: sedation, dyspnea, hypotension
58
Q

Magnesium sulfate

A
  • Anti-arrhythmic
  • Tx: prevents recurrent TdP and some digitalis-induced arrhythmias
  • alternative to amiodarone for shock-refractory cardiac arrest